The type of mutations, positive, negative or neutral, which are most likely to be seen in offspring several generations after the mutation occurred, are neutral mutations.
A neutral mutation is a type of genetic mutation that occurs when there is a slight alteration or shift in the genetic code of an organism that does not affect the phenotype or survival of that organism or its offspring. Neutral mutations can, however, accumulate over time, providing evolutionary raw material for later adaptation or speciation events. Neutral mutations are more likely to be passed down to the next generation because there is no selection pressure acting against them.
a. A single bacteria cell contains a positive mutation in its DNA: As bacteria reproduce by binary fission, the positive mutation is highly likely to be passed on to the offspring .b. A skin cell on a cat contains a positive mutation in its DNA: The positive mutation is unlikely to be passed on to the offspring because skin cells are not involved in reproduction. Only mutations that occur in cells that form eggs or sperm are likely to be passed down. c. A sperm cell in a whale contains a positive mutation in its DNA: As sperm cells are involved in reproduction, the positive mutation is highly likely to be passed on to the offspring.
However, Neutral mutations are more likely to be passed down to the next generation because there is no selection pressure acting against them.
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in pea plants, the allele for purple flowers, p, is dominant over the allele for white flowers, p. which conclusion about phenotype and genotype is possible?(1 point) responses A. if a plant has white flowers, then its genotype must be pp. B. if a plant has white flowers, then its genotype must be , pp, . C. if a plant has white flowers, then its genotype must be pp. D. if a plant has white flowers, then its genotype must be , pp, . E. if a plant has purple flowers, then its genotype must be pp. F. if a plant has purple flowers, then its genotype must be , pp, . G. if a plant has purple flowers, then its genotype must be pp.
A plant's genotype must be pp if it produces white blooms. On pea plants, purple flowers are predominate and white flowers are recessive. The blossom will be purple if at least one P allele is present.
What is the most accurate way to define genotype?The genetic configuration of a property that an organism inherits from its parents is called a genotype. The total set of genes that a child or adult acquired from each parent is referred to as the genotype.
How can a genotype be determined?With a Punnett square, you may ascertain a genotype. To identify the genotypes that are present, you can utilize analytical techniques like PCR analysis and genomic dna hybridization if you are functioning in a more sophisticated laboratory.
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Which evidence suggests that some of the first life on earth was prokaryotic bacteria?
Look at the following sketch: What is illustrated in this sketch? Describe the term given in your answer in Question ?1
Which type of bond occur between bases in a DNA base-pair?
a. covalent bonds
b. ionic bonds
c. hydrogen bonds
The type of bond that occurs between bases in a DNA base-pair is hydrogen bonds. Therefore the correct option is option C.
DNA is a double-stranded helix that is made up of nucleotides that are paired with complementary nucleotides via hydrogen bonds. The base pairs, adenine, and thymine or guanine and cytosine, are held together by hydrogen bonds.
Nucleotides are small molecules that function as the building blocks of DNA. The nucleotides found in DNA are comprised of three distinct components: a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar called deoxyribose, and a phosphate group. The nitrogenous bases are compounds that contain nitrogen and other elements.
There are four different nitrogenous bases in DNA, each of which has a unique structure and chemical composition. Adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C) are the four nitrogenous bases that are present in DNA.
In DNA, the nucleotides are joined together by covalent bonds between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of the next nucleotide. The base pairs are held together by hydrogen bonds. Therefore the correct option is option C.
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It is possible for a cell to make proteins that last for months; hemoglobin in red blood cells is a good example. However, many proteins are not this long-lasting. They may be degraded in days or even hours. What is the advantage of short-lived proteins?
A). Most cells have a short life span.
B). Short-lived proteins enable the cells to adjust (control) gene expression when this is critical to their well-being.
C). Long-lasting proteins are likely to make the cell cancerous.
D). Cells lack the raw materials to make most of the proteins they need.
E). Most proteins are used only once.
The advantage of short-lived proteins is that they enable the cells to adjust (control) gene expression when this is critical to their well-being. The correct option is B.
Proteins are biomolecules composed of one or more long chains of amino acid residues, which play a significant role in most biological processes. Amino acids are connected to each other in a linear chain through peptide bonds in a particular order defined by the genetic code. The sequence of amino acids in a protein defines the structure and functionality of the protein, allowing it to carry out a broad range of functions within the cell or organism. Proteins have many vital functions in the body, such as providing structure, acting as enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions, serving as signalling molecules, and performing various other metabolic, transport, and regulatory functions.Short-lived proteins, unlike long-lived proteins, are responsible for a variety of cellular functions, including the regulation of gene expression, rapid responses to environmental stimuli, and short-term metabolic adjustments, among others. As a result, they assist cells in adapting to their environment, maintaining homeostasis, and avoiding cellular dysfunction caused by the buildup of unwanted molecules.Long-lived proteins, on the other hand, may produce accumulated damage over time, leading to cellular and tissue impairment. Short-lived proteins are highly regulated, and their speedy elimination from the cell is critical for their proper function. Furthermore, short-lived proteins are degraded by the cell's intracellular proteolytic machinery, allowing the cell to quickly remove proteins that are no longer required or have become harmful. Thus, short-lived proteins play a critical role in maintaining cellular health and preventing disease. So, the answer to the given question is option B. Short-lived proteins enable the cells to adjust (control) gene expression when this is critical to their well-being.Learn more about proteins: https://brainly.com/question/884935
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Judith is startled when her six-year-old daughter, Laura, sleepwalks into the family room. It is most likely that Laura is experiencing the __________ stage of the sleep cycle.
A. REM
B. first
C. third
D. fourth
Judith is startled when her six-year-old daughter, Laura, sleepwalks into the family room. It is most likely that Laura is experiencing the first stage of the sleep cycle. Thus, the correct option is B.
What is the first step of sleep cycle?The first sleep cycle is the most common stage in which sleepwalking or somnambulism can occur. The first sleep cycle, which lasts around 90 minutes, consists of light sleep. Sleepwalking is an occurrence in which a person walks while still asleep, thus unconsciously. It is a behavioral disorder that typically occurs during deep sleep cycles and affects approximately 20% of children.
Sleepwalking is most likely to occur during the first third of the sleep cycle, during slow-wave sleep. Children are more prone to sleepwalking, and it usually disappears as they get older. Because of the safety concerns connected with sleepwalking, it is critical to understand the condition and to take safety precautions during sleep to avoid harm.
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During what phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell? Select one:
a. prophase
b. telophase
c. anaphase
d. interphase
e. metaphase
The phase of mitosis during which chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell is metaphase. Therefore the correct option is option E.
Mitosis is a cell division process that occurs in most eukaryotic cells. In this process, a parent cell produces two identical daughter cells. Mitosis has five stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and interphase.
Chromosomes are visible and condense during mitosis, as a result of the coiling of DNA around proteins called histones.Mitosis can be divided into four distinct stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. During metaphase, the chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell, which is known as the metaphase plate.
The centromeres of the chromosomes are located on the metaphase plate. Chromosomes can then be separated and pulled to opposite poles of the cell during anaphase.
The spindle fibers of the cell, which are microtubules that connect the centrosomes to the chromosomes, are responsible for the separation and movement of the chromosomes. Therefore the correct option is option E.
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the industrial revolution has led to an increased reliance on fossil fuels to
electric farming equipment as well as the creation of pesticides and fertilisers. The industrial revolution resulted in a substantial change in energy sources by the middle of the 19th century with the use of coal.
Coal first powered the Industrial Revolution, which was afterwards fuelled by oil and gas. An enormous increase in the amount of useful energy available to humanity was made possible by the use of fossil fuels to power electrical and steam machines. Fossil fuels were the main source of energy during the first three industrial revolutions, but their consumption continued to fall as time went on. Secondly, following the third industrial revolution, economic expansion increasingly decoupled from the rise in fossil fuel use.
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The endocrine system regulates the release of hormones and enzymes
needed to digest food. The digestive system breaks down food into nutrients
that can be absorbed into the circulatory system. These functions are part of
which process?
O A. Reproduction
B. Nutrition
OC. Regulation
OD. Defense
The functions described in the question are part of the process of
B.nutrition.
Nutrition refers to the process by which organisms obtain and use nutrients from food to support growth, repair tissues, and maintain bodily functions. The endocrine system plays a crucial role in regulating the release of hormones and enzymes needed for digestion, while the digestive system breaks down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed into the circulatory system and transported to the body's cells for energy and other functions. Together, these systems work to ensure that the body receives the necessary nutrients for optimal health and functioning.
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what body system moves and supplies nutrients around the body
The circulatory system is responsible for moving and supplying nutrients around the body. It consists of the heart, blood vessels (arteries, veins, and capillaries), and blood.
The heart is a muscular organ that pumps blood through the blood vessels to deliver oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and other substances to the cells and tissues of the body. The blood vessels provide a network of tubes for the blood to flow through, and the capillaries are the smallest blood vessels that allow for the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between the blood and the cells. The blood contains red blood cells, which carry oxygen, and white blood cells, which are involved in the immune system and help fight infections. Additionally, the circulatory system is responsible for removing waste products, such as carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste, from the cells and transporting them to the lungs and kidneys for elimination from the body.
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how might a scientist determine whether a trait is sex-linked by observing the offspring of several genetic crosses? 4. compare and contrast how is the expression of sex-linked genes both similar to and different from the expression of autosomal genes?
Autosomal traits are equally expressed in both males and females, while sex-linked traits are expressed differently in males and females. Males have only one X chromosome and no equivalent Y-linked genes to compensate for gene abnormalities, resulting in males expressing more sex-linked traits than females.
However, sex-linked traits are more likely to be recessive, meaning they will only be expressed if present on both the X chromosomes in females. As a result, males have a higher chance of inheriting and expressing a sex-linked recessive trait than females. Thus, the expression of sex-linked genes is similar to that of autosomal genes in some respects, while it differs in others.
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A concise diagram of a fruit
The exocarp, mesocarp, and endocarp are normally the three major components of a fruit.
Exocarp: Often referred to as the fruit's skin, this is the fruit's outermost covering.
The central, fle shy layer of the fruit known as the mesocarp is where the majority of the fruit's mass is located.
The endocarp, or innermost layer of the fruit, encloses the seeds.
FruitA flower's developed ovary that bears seeds is referred to as a fruit. Usually, an ovary develops into a fruit and the ovules inside mature into seeds after pollination and fertilization of the flower. The fruit is then propagated via a variety of techniques, including wind, water, or animals, which aid in dispersing the seeds and ensuring the survival of the plant species.The exocarp, mesocarp, and endocarp are the fruit's three primary structural components. The fruit's exocarp, commonly referred to as the skin, is its outermost covering. It serves to guard the fruit against harm, water loss, and pests and is frequently thin and colorful. Depending on the fruit, the exocarp may be smooth, ha iry, waxy, or textured.learn more about fruit here
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in a peptide bond, which parts of the two amino acids are joined together?
8. Most organisms were unable to live in the area for the first six months after the eruption. After the pioneer species, what organisms to you expect to begin inhabiting the area?
[] secondary consumers
[] tertiary consumers
[] primary consumers
[]autotrophs
9. Two types of stickleback fish are found in a lake in British Columbia. One kind of stickleback is large, lives on the bottom of the lake, and eats other fish. The second kind of stickleback is small, lives in the open water, and eats plankton.Based on this information, which of the following statements most likely describes the two kinds of stickleback fish?
[] they are different populations of fish
[] they are different communities of fish
[] are they the same population of fish
[] are they the same community of fish
8. After the pioneer species, you would expect primary consumers, such as autotrophs, to begin inhabiting the area.
9. The two kinds of stickleback fish seen are different populations of fish.
8. Pioneer species are the first organisms to colonize a new area after a disturbance, such as a volcanic eruption. They are often autotrophs, such as lichens or algae, that can survive in harsh conditions.
Over time, as the pioneer species break down rocks and other materials and add organic matter to the soil, other organisms are able to move in. This includes primary consumers, which are organisms that eat autotrophs.
Therefore, it is expected that primary consumers will begin inhabiting the area after the pioneer species.
9. Populations are groups of organisms of the same species that live in the same area and interact with each other. In this case, there are two different types of stickleback fish, one large and bottom-dwelling and the other small and living in the open water.
These two types of fish are both sticklebacks, but they have different traits and habitats, which suggests that they are different populations.
A community, on the other hand, is all of the populations of different species that live in the same area and interact with each other.
Therefore, it would be correct to say that the two different populations of fish are seen.
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At its core, science is about inquiry—the act of asking questions and seeking answers. Most labs begin as the result of a question, and the pre-lab information of your lab report should include a question. For example, you may have noticed that you seem to play basketball better at the court in the park than you do at home in my driveway. After doing some thinking and research, you realize that the surface of the court at the park is different than your driveway. As a result, you might formula a scientific question, "What is the effect of the court surface on the height that the basketball bounces?" To answer this question scientifically, you could perform several experiments and gather data
Science is fundamentally driven by curiosity and the desire to understand the world around us. This begins with asking questions and seeking answers through inquiry.
In the context of a laboratory experiment, the process typically begins with identifying a scientific question, which serves as the basis for the experiment. This question should be specific, clear, and testable, and it should guide the entire experimental process, from the hypothesis to the data collection and analysis.
In the example of the basketball experiment, the question "What is the effect of the court surface on the height that the basketball bounces?" provides a clear direction for the investigation. By systematically varying the surface texture, material, and height of the basketball hoop, and measuring the height of the bounce using a standardized method, the student can collect data to test their hypothesis and answer the question.
Through this process of inquiry, the student can gain a deeper understanding of the factors that influence the height of the basketball bounce and potentially develop new insights into the physics of basketball. This highlights the importance of asking questions in science, as it drives the experimental process and leads to new discoveries and knowledge.
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which of the following is not a function of the spleen? destruction of old red blood cells removal of impurities storage of blood absorption of digested fats
The spleen doesn't absorb digested fats. That is the function of the lymphatic system in our body.
The spleen is an organ in the body's lymphatic system, which functions to regulate and filter blood as it circulates. It is positioned in the upper-left portion of the abdomen, below the diaphragm, and to the left of the stomach. The spleen helps in the maintenance of a healthy immune system, blood cell metabolism, and other important body functions. It stores white blood cells and platelets, which play a crucial part in fighting infection and clotting blood.
The following are the primary functions of the spleen: Destruction of old red blood cells: When red blood cells reach the end of their lifespan, the spleen filters them out of the bloodstream and destroys them. Removal of impurities: The spleen's white pulp assists in the removal of impurities from the blood, including germs, viruses, and bacteria.Storage of blood: The spleen serves as a blood reservoir, storing excess blood that can be released into the bloodstream as needed.
Absorption of digested fats: The lymphatic system, not the spleen, absorbs digested fats. Fats and fat-soluble vitamins from our diet are absorbed in the intestines and transported via the lymphatic system to the bloodstream, where they can be utilized as required.
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the purpose of this set of laboratory exercises is to introduce you to the basics of cell division (sometimes referred to as cellular reproduction). from this lab, and from your readings, you should learn to:
The purpose of this set of laboratory exercises is to introduce you to the basics of cell division (sometimes referred to as cellular reproduction). From this lab, and from your readings, you should learn to describe the structure and function of the cell cycle.
The cell cycle is the life cycle of the cell that includes growth and division. It is made up of two main stages, the interphase and the mitotic phase. Interphase is the stage where the cell grows and prepares for division.The mitotic phase, on the other hand, is the stage where the cell undergoes cell division.
Mitosis is the process of cell division that is responsible for the creation of two identical daughter cells that have the same genetic material as the parent cell.The cell cycle is regulated by various checkpoints and controls to ensure that the cell divides properly and accurately. The cell cycle is essential for the growth and development of an organism as well as for the repair and replacement of damaged or old cells.
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Drag each label into the proper position to identify whether the given bone is paired (right and left) or unpaired (singular) as related to the ADULT skeleton. Incus Parietal Xiphoid Vomer Trapezoid Occipital Hyoid Maxilla Mandible Sacrum Atlas Nasal Clavicle Ethmoid Frontal Patella Navicular Humerus Sphenoid Unpaired Paired
The proper position to identify whether the given bone is paired (right and left) or unpaired (singular) are:
Incus: PairedParietal: PairedXiphoid: UnpairedVomer: UnpairedTrapezoid: PairedOccipital: UnpairedHyoid: UnpairedMaxilla: PairedMandible: UnpairedSacrum: UnpairedAtlas: UnpairedNasal: PairedClavicle: PairedEthmoid: UnpairedFrontal: PairedPatella: UnpairedNavicular: PairedHumerus: PairedSphenoid: UnpairedWhat is the difference between adult skeleton and a child's skeleton?The primary difference between an adult's skeleton and a child's skeleton is the number of bones and their sizes. A newborn baby's skeleton consists of approximately 270 bones, while an adult's skeleton has 206 bones.
As the child grows, some of the bones fuse together to form larger bones, leading to a reduction in the total number of bones. In addition, the bones in a child's skeleton are generally smaller and less dense than those in an adult's skeleton, due to ongoing growth and development.
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Which statement is true about disruptive natural selection?
Responses
It results in an averaging of traits.
It results in an averaging of traits.
It favors one trait over all others.
It favors one trait over all others.
It results in an even distribution of traits.
It results in an even distribution of traits.
It favors extremes in traits.
The statement "It favors extremes in traits" is true about disruptive natural selection.
What is Disruptive natural selection?Disruptive natural selection occurs when extreme traits are favored over intermediate traits, leading to a bimodal distribution of traits in a population. This means that individuals with extreme traits at both ends of the distribution have a higher fitness compared to individuals with intermediate traits. As a result, the population becomes less homogeneous and more specialized in the extreme traits that are favored by natural selection.
What kind of natural selection is disruptive?Oysters of different colors—dark and light—are one instance of disruptive selection. Oysters with dark or light colours can blend in more effectively. Dark oysters can hide behind the shadow of the rocks, whereas light oysters can blend in with the rocks.
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please choose the term used to describe the type of antimicrobial resistance that is of most concern today. multiple choice: A) native B) mutational C)intrinsic D) acquired E) inherent
The term used to describe the type of antimicrobial resistance that is of most concern today is acquired. So the correct option is D.
Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is a public health problem that results when germs such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites alter over time and become resistant to medications used to cure them. Because germs that are immune to medicines that once worked for them are difficult to treat, AMR can make it difficult to treat infections in people and animals, resulting in serious infections and even death. Acquired is the most concerning type of antimicrobial resistance. It refers to a situation in which an organism acquires resistance genes from another organism, which can occur through horizontal transfer.
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Match the following statements with either Adrenal Medulla (Nervous System), Adrenal Cortex (Endocrine System) or Both.
Answer:
Explanation:
don't know
what another name for a single skeletal muscle cell is a?
Muscle fiber is another name for a solitary skeletal muscle cell. These are big multinucleated cells with cross-striations as their most noticeable histological feature.
A skeletal muscle is made up of individual, long cylindrical cells called muscle fibers. Myofibrils, specific structures that give muscle fibres their unique ability to contract and produce force, are found within the connective tissue that surrounds them. Fascicules, which are collections of muscle fibers encircled by more connective tissue, are known as fascicles. The entire muscle is made up of these fascicles that are then bundled together. Muscle fibers contract when triggered by a nerve impulse, causing the muscle to move.
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The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to...
a) provide nutrients to spores
b) make spores less dense and able to disperse more readily
c) reduce dehydration
d) repel toxic chemicals
The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to reduce dehydration. Therefore the correct option is option C.
Sporopollenin is a polymer substance that is composed of fatty acids, carotenoids, phenylpropanoids, and other compounds. This substance is found in the outer layer of the spore wall or pollen grain wall. It is not digestible by most organisms and is chemically stable.
Sporopollenin's properties: Sporopollenin is a substance that is durable, chemically stable, and insoluble in water. It is one of the most chemically resistant organic substances known. It is not degraded by digestive enzymes or strong acids and bases, making it an excellent preservation agent.
Sporopollenin's properties make it essential for plants' reproduction since spores and pollen grains need to survive in adverse environments, and sporopollenin is responsible for making them less susceptible to dehydration. Therefore, the correct option is c) reduce dehydration.
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the energy source for the light reactions of photosynthesis is ; the energy source for the calvin reactions is
The energy source for the light reactions of photosynthesis is light energy, while the energy source for the Calvin reactions is ATP and NADPH.
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy. Photosynthesis is a method that uses light energy to generate organic compounds. The process of photosynthesis is critical for life on the planet because it produces the oxygen that organisms require to survive.
The Calvin cycle, also known as the light-independent reactions, is a sequence of chemical reactions that convert carbon dioxide (CO2) into glucose, a simple sugar.
During the Calvin cycle, light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH, which are used to produce glucose.
The light reactions are dependent on light, while the Calvin cycle is independent of light.
The energy source for the light reactions of photosynthesis is light energy, which is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts. During the light reactions, light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH, which are used in the Calvin cycle.
In contrast, ATP and NADPH are used as energy sources for the Calvin cycle. This cycle takes place in the stroma of the chloroplasts and is used to create glucose from carbon dioxide.
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How do scientists use comparative embryology for evidence of evolution? (Use the photo provided to explain. SPAM ANSWERS = INSTANT REPORT.)
Researchers have found that gp41, a harpoon-like protein, resides on the surface of HIV. These researchers observed that if they interfere with the action of gp41, then HIV is unable to _____.
bind to and enter T-cells in the blood
The researchers observed that if they interfere with the action of gp41, a harpoon-like protein that resides on the surface of HIV, then HIV is unable to bind to and enter T-cells in the blood.
What is HIV?
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a lentivirus that causes HIV infection, which in turn causes Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS). This is a lifelong disease with no cure, but medications can help people with HIV lead long, active lives.
The HIV envelope contains two glycoproteins, gp120 and gp41, which are required for virus entry into target cells.
gp120 is responsible for binding to the CD4 molecule on host cells, while gp41 is responsible for fusion between the viral and host cell membranes and entry of the virus into the cell.
The researchers found that interference with gp41 prevents HIV from binding to and entering T-cells in the blood. When gp41's activity is impeded, the virus's ability to penetrate host cells is impaired.
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In the astonishing hypothesis (1994, p. 49) sir francis crick noted, "when one neuron tells another neuron is simply how much it is excited. " using terms from the chapter, compare the neural communication when we are a) tapped gently on the arm, and b) slapped across the face
The neural communication varies greatly from when we are tapped gently on the arm in comparison to when we are slapped across the face. When we slapped that strongly triggers and increases the number of times those neurons fire. But when we tap on the arm that triggers fewer neurons to be fired.
Communication between neurons occurs electrochemically. Neurotransmitter receptors can be found on the dendrites of neighboring neurons. If the impulses from neighboring neurons are strong enough, an action potential will travel the length of the axon to the terminal buttons, releasing neurotransmitters into the synapse in the process.
Many neurotransmitters serve a variety of purposes. Unbalances in a specific neurotransmitter system frequently play a role in psychiatric disorders. As a result, doctors often prescribe psychiatric medications to try to rebalance the neurotransmitters. For a certain neurotransmitter system, drugs can either behave as agonists or antagonists.
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Select the feature(s) common to ecdysozoans. (Choose one or more.)
A. spiral cleavage
B. Intermittent growth with molting
C. Waxy cuticle
D. Continuous growth
which idea of evolution is supported by the existence of vestigial structures?
The existence of vestigial structures, which are anatomical features that no longer serve their original purpose, supports the idea of evolution through the process of common descent.
What are vestigial structures?Vestigial structures are remnants of structures that were once useful to an organism's ancestors but have lost their original function over time as the organism's environment and needs have changed. For example, the wings of flightless birds, such as ostriches, are vestigial structures that no longer serve their original purpose of flight. Similarly, the human appendix is a vestigial structure that no longer plays a significant role in the digestive system.
The existence of vestigial structures provides evidence for evolution through common descent because it suggests that organisms have changed over time, with some structures becoming unnecessary or even harmful as a result of changes in the environment and selective pressures. This supports the idea that all living organisms are related and have evolved from a common ancestor.
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Sort the following events according to whether they occur in replicative transposition, nonreplicative transposition, or both:Donor DNA retains a copy of insertion sequence., Recombination separates donor and target DNAs. Hairpin structures form on each end of insertion sequence., Insertion sequence "jumps" into recipient DNA., Donor DNA loses insertion sequence. DNA polymerase fills in gaps, Transposase is required., Target sequence gets duplicated., DNA ligase seals nicks.- Replicative:- Nonreplicative:- Both:
In replicative transposition, the donor DNA retains a copy of insertion sequence, whereas in nonreplicative transposition, the donor DNA loses the insertion sequence. Hairpin structures form at each end of the insertion sequence in both nonreplicative and replicative transposition.
The insertion sequence jumps into the recipient DNA in both replicative and nonreplicative transposition. DNA polymerase fills in gaps in replicative transposition, while transposase is required in both replicative and nonreplicative transposition. The target sequence is duplicated in both replicative and nonreplicative transposition, while DNA ligase seals nicks in replicative transposition.
The following list shows how the events are sorted according to whether they occur in replicative transposition, nonreplicative transposition, or both:
Replicative transposition :
1. DNA polymerase fills in gaps.
2. DNA ligase seals nicks.
Nonreplicative transposition:
1. Donor DNA loses insertion sequence.
2. Transposase is required.
Both:
1. Donor DNA retains a copy of insertion sequence.
2. Recombination separates donor and target DNAs.
3. Hairpin structures form on each end of the insertion sequence.
4.Insertion sequence "jumps" into recipient DNA.
5. Target sequence gets duplicated.
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