a 14-year-old boy presents with headache, fever, and altered mental status. he was recently seen and evaluated for sinusitis 1 week ago but was not given antibiotic treatment at that time. a ct scan of the head is performed. what management is indicated?

Answers

Answer 1

Ceftriaxone, metronidazole and neurosurgery consultation is indicated.

This patient presents with signs, symptoms and imaging consistent with an intracranial abscess. Immediate treatment includes the administration of antibiotics against the most likely pathogens as well as neurosurgical consultation. CNS abscess is unusual in immunocompetent hosts but can result from direct spread from other infections. Dental infections, otitis media, and sinus infections are the most common direct spread causes. Patients who have multiple abscesses should be evaluated for endocarditis.

The most common causative agents are Streptococcus species and anaerobic bacteria. Patients with a history of trauma or intracranial surgery are also at risk for MRSA. CT scan is the diagnostic modality of choice and typically is followed by a lumbar puncture (unless there are signs of increased intracranial pressure), which aids in determining the etiologic agent.

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which statement is not a prediction of the hygiene hypothesis? group of answer choices children who frequently play outside should develop allergic diseases les often than children who don't play outside. pathogens that have long historical associations with humans, such as h. pylori, should be more positively related to immune system function than pathogens with more recent associations. extensive use of antibiotics as a child may affect how the body responds to future bacterial invasions. children who never wash their hands or bathe will be less likely to develop immune disorder than children who wash regularly. the more infectious diseases an individual is exposed to as a child, the less likely that person will be to develop immune disorders as an adult.

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Children who NEVER wash they hands or bathe will be less likely to develop immune disorders than children who wash regularly.

According to the hygiene hypothesis, childhood exposure to germs and certain infections aids in the development of the immune system. This teaches the body to distinguish between harmless and harmful substances that cause asthma. Exposure to certain germs, in theory, teaches the immune system not to overreact. The hygiene hypothesis presumes that humans evolved in a pathogen-rich environment that no longer exists in industrialized societies.

The hygiene hypothesis presumes that humans evolved in a pathogen-rich environment that no longer exists in industrialized societies. According to the original hygiene hypothesis, decreased microbial exposure would increase the incidence of allergies and allergic asthma through enhanced atopic immune responses.

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which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead squat assessment

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Abductor static stretch mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the exercise squat assessment.

Exercise is a sort of physical activity that enhances or maintains both physical fitness and overall health and wellness. It is done for a variety of reasons, including to improve athletic prowess, support strength and growth, develop the muscles and cardiovascular system, lose or maintain weight, improve health, or just for enjoyment. Since exercising outside enables people to socialize, form groups, and enhance their physical and emotional well-being, many people prefer to do so. Depending on the goal, the type of exercise, and the age of the person, a certain quantity of exercise is recommended for health advantages. Any form of exercise is better for you than no exercise at all.

The complete question is:

which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead exercise squat assessment?

a. Abductor static stretch

b. Adductor static stretch

c. Piriformis foam roller

d. Psoas foam roller

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Functional imaging studies indicate that drugs that alleviate symptoms of schizophrenia tend to increase activation of thefrontal cortex

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It is false that functional imaging studies indicate that drugs that alleviate symptoms of schizophrenia tend to increase activation of the frontal cortex.

Functional imaging is that the study of human brain perform supported analysis of knowledge noninheritable victimization brain imaging modalities like Electroencephalography (EEG), fMRI, or Optical Imaging, MEG or PET. Functional imaging techniques is accustomed verify the consequences of brain injury or sickness on brain systems associated with psychological feature and behavior and to work out however rehabilitation changes brain systems.

Schizophrenia is a serious disturbance within which individuals interpret reality abnormally. Dementia praecox could end in some combination of hallucinations, delusions, and intensely disordered thinking and behavior that impairs daily functioning, and might be disabling. Individuals with dementia praecox need womb-to-tomb treatment.

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a patient presents to your dental office the day after her dental appointment complaining of swelling and itching on the right side of her face. you should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms are related to dental anesthesia. group of answer choices true false

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You should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms related to dental anesthesia is False.

The reason local anesthetic concentrations are higher than injectables is to facilitate the diffusion of local anesthetic through mucous membranes. Neither local nor injectable anesthetics used in dentistry are natural vasoconstrictors.

Cetakaine Spray is the only FDA-approved local anesthetic for gag reflex inhibition. The dosage is one spray per second. The toxicity of local anesthetics usually occurs as a result of treatment error. Circumstances leading to toxicity include accidental intravenous or arterial injections and overdose of ingestion or topical formulations containing local anesthetics.

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a client has been involved in a motor vehicle accident and has sustained spinal cord damage. the client has voluntary motor function loss on one side and a loss of pain and temperature sensation from the contralateral side below the level of the lesion. what type of cord syndrome does the nurse recognize the client has sustained?

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Answer:

It sounds like the client has sustained a spinal cord injury that has resulted in Brown-Sequard syndrome. This type of spinal cord injury is characterized by the loss of voluntary motor function on one side of the body and a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side below the level of the lesion. This type of injury is typically caused by a penetrating injury to the spinal cord, such as a knife wound or gunshot wound. Treatment typically involves addressing any life-threatening injuries and providing supportive care to prevent complications. In some cases, surgery may be necessary to repair the damaged spinal cord.

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Explanation:

a patient presents with heatstroke. the nurse uses cool packs, cooling blanket, and a fan. which technique is the nurse using when the fan produces heat loss?

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Your physician may perform the following to do this on heatstroke: Put cold water on you. It has been demonstrated that the fastest way to drop your core body temperature is to take a cold or ice bath.

There is a lower chance of death in heatstroke and organ damage the sooner you can be submerged in cold water. Use cooling methods that involve evaporation. Health care professionals may use evaporation to try to lower your body temperature if cold water immersion is not an option. Warm air is blown over you as cool water is misted on your body, evaporating as it cools your skin. Provide cooling blankets and ice for you. Applying ice packs to your groin is another technique, which involves wrapping you in a special cooling blanket.

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Which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline of the American Medical Association as a way to protect electronic medical records?
Keep all backup disks in a safe place away from the practice
Prepare a backup plan for use when the computer system is down
Change login codes every 18 months
Store disks in a bank safe deposit box
Set security levels to limit entry to all functions

Answers

In order to safeguard electronic medical records, the American Medical Association changes login codes every 18 months.

Which medical course is the best?

Medical and surgical bachelor's degree: This degree, which is sometimes referred to as MBBS, is frequently regarded as the most prestigious in the medical industry. To enroll in this programme, one must successfully pass the NEET UG admission test.

What does a work medical entail?

Pre-placement health testing and pre-employment medical exams both seek to analyze and monitor people in order to identify risk factors that could prevent them from performing effectively at work. It guarantees there is no risk to the employee or their coworkers.

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Scattered and off-focus radiation outside of the collimated field can have what effect on the width of the histogram?
A. Causes narrowing of the histogram
B. Causes widening of the histogram
C. Causes both narrowing and widening of the histogram
D. Causes neither narrowing nor widening of the histogram

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Scattered and off-focus radiation outside of the collimated field can (B) Causes widening of the histogram.

Off-focus radiation in x-ray generation is the emission of x-ray photons from sources other than the anode focal area. These photons, which are essentially a type of scatter, may blur and are useless for diagnostic purposes.

When a radiation beam comes into contact with a substance, such body tissue, more radiation is produced that spreads out in various directions.

In order to concentrate light as sharply as possible, a telescope must be collimated, or all of its parts must be in perfect alignment.

In a histogram, several classifications are grouped into columns along the horizontal x-axis, resembling a bar graph in its display of the data. Each column's data count or percentage of occurrences are shown on the vertical y-axis. Data distribution patterns can be seen visually using columns.

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Dietary supplements may be beneficial for
a. a pregnant woman
b. someone who is on a diet with restricted kilocalorie intake
c. an elderly man with pneumonia
d. a healthy college student
e. a,b, and c only

Answers

The correct option is (E) that is a, b and c only.

a. a pregnant woman

b. someone who is on a diet with restricted kilocalorie intake

c. an elderly man with pneumonia

All nutrients are important, but these six play a key role in your baby's growth and development during pregnancy:

Folic acid.Iron.Calcium.Vitamin D.DHA.Iodine.

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the nurse determines which nursing intervention would best assist the client with a brain tumor who may be at increased risk for aspiration?

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the nurse should determine evaluation of gag reflex and ability to swallow intervention would best assist the client with a brain tumor who may be at increased risk for aspiration.

An accumulation of aberrant brain cells is known as a brain tumour. Brain tumours come in a wide variety of forms. Brain tumours can vary in their cancerousness and non-cancerousness. Like other cancers, brain and spinal cord tumours are brought on by modifications to the DNA of cells. Our genes, which regulate how cells work, are made out of the molecule called DNA. Our parents are the origin of our DNA, thus we typically resemble them. But DNA has an impact beyond just our appearance. A malignant brain tumor's prognosis depends on mucosal lining factors such its location inside the brain, size, and grade. A brain tumour frequently returns and cannot always be removed, but it can occasionally be healed if discovered early on.

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the nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for the creation of an ileal conduit. which statement by the client provides evidence that client teaching was effective?

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The statement by the client provides evidence that client teaching was effective is  "I will not need to worry about being incontinent of urine."

An ileal conduit is one of the numerous surgical techniques for urinary diversion. It's typically been named because of the Bricker ileal conduit after its inventor, Eugene M. Bricker. During the procedure, a MD creates a replacement tube from a chunk of bowel that permits the kidneys to empty and urine to exit the body through atiny low gap known as a stoma.

Incontinent of urine is a common and infrequently embarrassing problem. The severity ranges from sometimes leaking urine once you cough or sneeze to having an urge to urinate that is therefore sharp and powerful you do not get to a rest room in time.

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TRUE/FALSE. the medical record must meet the standards defined by the centers for medicare and medicaid services conditions of participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations.

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The medical record must meet the standards defined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Conditions of Participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. This statement is True.

The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is a federal agency within the United States Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) that administers the Medicare program as well as Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP), and health insurance portability standards in collaboration with state governments.

CMS also has administrative simplification standards from the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), quality standards in long-term care facilities (more commonly known as nursing homes) through its survey and certification process, clinical laboratory quality standards under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, and oversight of HealthCare.gov. Until 2001, CMS was known as the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA).

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a post-menopausal woman with osteoarthritis of the left hip underwent a total hip replacement. after the surgery, the patient suffered total paralysis of the left quadriceps muscle group and radiating pain along the posterior thigh. it was determined that nerves from the lumbar plexus and the sacral plexus were damaged during the surgery. what two nerves were most likely damaged?

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If a post-menopausal woman with osteoarthritis of the left hip underwent a total hip replacement and subsequently suffered total paralysis of the left quadriceps muscle group and radiating pain along the posterior thigh, it is likely that the nerves from the lumbar plexus and the sacral plexus were damaged during the surgery. The lumbar plexus is a network of nerves that originates in the lower spine and supplies the muscles of the lower extremities. The sacral plexus is a similar network of nerves that originates in the sacrum and also supplies the muscles of the lower extremities.

Two of the nerves that are likely to have been damaged in this scenario are the femoral nerve and the sciatic nerve. The femoral nerve arises from the lumbar plexus and provides sensory and motor innervation to the muscles of the anterior and medial thigh, including the quadriceps muscle group. The sciatic nerve arises from the sacral plexus and is the largest nerve in the body. It provides sensory and motor innervation to the muscles of the posterior thigh, as well as the lower leg and foot. Damage to these nerves could result in paralysis of the quadriceps muscle group and radiating pain along the posterior thigh. Treatment may involve physical therapy and other rehabilitative measures to restore function to the affected muscles.

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Generic medications __________. A. Are more expensive than the original versionb. Are designed to cause more side effects than the original versionc. Often won't help the conditiond. Include the same active ingredients as the original medication.

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Answer:

Include the same active ingredients as the original medication.

Explanation:

according to the national heart, lung, blood institute, which characteristics below is a coronary heart disease (chd) risk equivalent; that is, which risk factor places the patient at similar risk for chd as a history of chd?

Answers

Diabetes mellitus places the patient at similar risk for CHD as a history of CHD.

In determining whether a patient should be treated for hyperlipidemia, a patient's risk factors must be determined. CHD equivalents must be identified after fasting lipids, specifically LDLs, have been assessed. The term "responsibility" refers to the act of determining whether or not a person is responsible for his or her own actions.

Elevated LDL cholesterol, cigarette smoking, hypertension, low HDL cholesterol, family history of premature CHD [in male first degree relatives (FDR) < 55years; female FDR, 65 years] , and age (men ≥ 45 years, women ≥ 55 years) are major CHD risk factors. Patients with 2 or more risk factors should have a 10 risk assessment performed and treated accordingly.

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a baby was born with a ventricular septal defect (vsd). the provider performed a right heart catheterization and transcatheter closure with implant by percutaneous approach. what codes are reported?

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93581, Q21.0, The following codes were recorded for a newborn with a ventricular septal defect (vsd). The medical professional carried out a transcatheter closure and right cardiac catheterization.

One type of common birth abnormality is a hole in the heart called a ventricular septal defect (VSD) (congenital). Blood can flow from the left side of the heart to the right side of the heart due to a hole (defect) in the wall (septum) separating the lower chambers (ventricles) of the heart. Urinary catheterization involves inserting a catheter (a hollow tube) into the bladder to drain or collect urine. cardiac catheterization comes in two primary flavours: clean intermittent catheterization and indwelling catheterization (CIC). With this kind of catheterization, the catheter's tip stays inside the bladder.

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78-year-old man has a history of a cerebrovascular accident. the nurse notes that when he walks, his left arm is immobile against the body with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder. his left leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. what type of gait disturbance is this individual experiencing?

Answers

Spastic hemiparesis: This condition causes the arm to become motionless in relation to the body. Flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers also occurs, and an adducted shoulder is shown that does not easily swing.

Why are mishaps referred to as accidents?

The word "accident" suggests that no one in particular is to blame for an automobile collision. This is seen in the expression "It was merely an accident," which is frequently used. On the other hand, the word "crash" implies that someone was responsible for the auto accident or that it was their responsibility.

What is an accident example?

Physical instances of accidents include unintentional car accidents, slips and falls, burns from touching something hot or sharp, and bumps while walking.

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a patient is sent to a general surgeon by her family physician for an opinion and recommendation for surgical repair of a recurrent femoral hernia, right. a brief problem focused history and exam are performed. the mdm complexity was straightforward. what is the correct e/m service code?

Answers

The correct e/m service code is CPT Code: 99241

ICD-10-CM:

K41.91

A femoral hernia occurs when fatty tissue or a portion of your bowel protrudes through the top of your inner thigh into your groin. It pushes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle wall (abdominal wall) into an area called the femoral canal. Femoral hernias are generally not life-threatening medical conditions. Strangulation of the hernia can become life-threatening, however, and must be treated through emergency surgery.

Femoral hernias are frequently confused with inguinal hernias due to their proximity. Femoral hernias are relatively uncommon. If the hernia is not repaired, the intestine can become trapped inside. This is referred to as an incarcerated or strangulated hernia. It has the potential to cut off blood supply to the intestines.

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an 80-year-old patient who is overweight andsedentary has developed elevated fastingglucose levels (142, 153, and 147 mg/dl). shewas diagnosed with diabetes today.considering her age, how should the nursepractitioner proceed

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The nurse practitioner would proceed with start metformin 500 mg daily.

To treat high blood sugar, metformin is taken along with a healthy diet, an exercise routine, and maybe other drugs. Patients with type 2 diabetes use it. Keeping blood sugar levels under control helps prevent kidney damage, blindness, nerve damage, limb loss, and issues with sexual function. The chance of having a heart attack or stroke may be reduced if your diabetes is well controlled.

The way that metformin works is by assisting in restoring your body's appropriate reaction to the insulin that must naturally make. Additionally, it reduces how much sugar the liver produces and how much sugar your stomach and intestines absorb.

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a nurse on the medical-surgical unit just received the client care assignment report. which client should the nurse assess first?

Answers

The client who reports anxiety and shortness of breath and has unilateral leg swelling should be seen first.

What is unilateral leg swelling?

Unilateral leg swelling is described as a very rare clinical feature in patients with ureteral cancer that is caused by direct invasion or metastatic lymphadenopathy can result in the compression of the external iliac vein inducing venous insufficiency.

If a nurse on the medical-surgical unit just received the client care assignment report.

This client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition.

The signs and symptoms of pneumonia include: Crackles, fever, and pleuritic pain are.

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Complete question:

A nurse on the medical-surgical unit just received the client care assignment report. Which client should the nurse assess first?

the client with anorexia, weight loss, and night sweats

the client with crackles and fever who reports pleuritic pain

the client who had difficulty sleeping, daytime fatigue, and morning headache

the client with unilateral leg swelling who reports anxiety and shortness of breath

a 34-year-old client is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis c. testing reveals that the client is a candidate for treatment. the nurse anticipates that which therapy could be used to treat the client's condition?

Answers

Multiple sclerosis and chronic inflammatory illnesses are both treated with interferons. Interferons are immune system-related disorders (e.g. chronic hepatitis)

Proteins called interferons are a component of your body's natural defences. They alert your immune system to the presence of pathogens or cancerous cells in your body. Additionally, they activate killer immune cells to combat the invaders. Because they "interfere" with viruses and prevent their growth, interferons received their name.

a natural substance that supports the body's immune system in the battle against illness, including cancer. White blood cells and other cells in the body produce interferons, but they can also be produced in a lab for use in treating various disorders.

Because they shield cells against viral infections, interferons have the power to "interfere" with viral reproduction.

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excessive growths of stratum corneum layer of epidermis that often occur on hands and feet

Answers

Stratum corneum hyperplasia refers to abnormal stratum corneum growths, which frequently affect the hands and feet. as well as bedsores and pressure sores.

Which layer of epidermis is mostly found in the skin on hands and feet?The whole outside of the body is covered by the biggest organ in the body, the skin. The epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis, the three layers that make up the skin, have distinctly different anatomical structures and physiological roles. The complex network of cells that make up the skin act as the body's first line of defense against viruses, UV rays, chemicals, and mechanical harm. The volume of water discharged into the environment and temperature are both controlled by it. This page covers the relevant vascular supply, innervation, embryology, anatomical components, function, and clinical relevance of the skin's epidermal layer.Skin layer thicknesses are classified according to the thickness of the epidermal and dermal layers and vary depending on the area of the body. Because of a second layer of epidermis called the stratum lucidum, the hairless skin on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet is the thickest. According to the thickness of the dermis, the upper back is the thickest, but histologically it is referred to as "thin skin" since the epidermal thickness is thinner than hairless skin and lacks the stratum lucidum layer.

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Which of the following describes an acute infection caused by reactivation of dormant chickenpox virus?
a. Herpes simplex
b. Herpes zoster
c. Meningococcemia
d. Verrucae

Answers

Herpes Simplex Treatment

Answer:

b. Herpes zoster

Explanation:

Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is an acute infection caused by the reactivation of the dormant chickenpox virus (varicella zoster virus). It is characterized by a painful rash and blisters on the skin, often appearing on one side of the body or face. It can also cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, and pain. The virus is reactivated due to a decrease in the body's immune system function, which can occur due to aging, stress, or certain medications. Herpes simplex is a different type of herpes virus that causes cold sores or genital herpes. Meningococcemia is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria meningitidis that can lead to meningitis and sepsis. Verrucae are wart-like growths caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV).

a pediatric client with a ventricular septal defect repair is placed on a maintenance dose of digoxin. the safe dose is 0.03 mg/kg/day, and the client's weight is 7.2 kg. the primary health care provider (phcp) prescribes the digoxin to be given twice daily. how much digoxin would the nurse administer to the client at each dose?

Answers

The digoxin that the nurse administers to the patient at each dose is 28.8 mcg.

Digoxin is in a class of drugs called cardiac glycosides. Their function is to slow the heart rate and improve the filling of the ventricles with blood. Digoxin belongs to a class of drugs called digitalis glycosides. Used to improve heart strength and efficiency or to control heart rate and rhythm.

This improves circulation and reduces swelling in the hands and ankles of patients with heart problems. Digoxin is used to treat heart failure, usually with other drugs. It is also used to treat certain types of arrhythmias. Treatment for heart failure helps maintain walking ability and improve heart strength.

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TRUE/FALSE. continuous improvement in the context of a hospital organization entails maintaining profitability, even if some quality measures have to be traded off.

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Continuous improvement in the context of a hospital organization entails maintaining profitability, even if some quality measures have to be traded off. The given statement is false.

A group of people who cooperate is known as an organisation. Examples of such groups include unions, corporations, charities, and neighbourhood associations. The term "organisation" can be used to describe a person, a company, a group, or the process of creating something. A club, corporation, charity, or political party are all examples of official groups of individuals. These specialty schools are chronic illness primarily offered by nonprofit institutions. Functional, departmental, and matrix organisations are the three types of organisations that best reflect the organisational structures currently used by the majority of businesses. Owners must weigh the benefits and drawbacks of each of these formats before picking which to use for their particular firm.

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In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, which of the following is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey?
A. Initiation of pulse oximetry.
B. Complete set of vital signs.
C. Client’s allergy history.
D. Brief neurologic assessment.

Answers

In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, the following which is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey is brief neurologic assessment and is therefore denoted as option D.

What is a Trauma?

This is referred to as an incident that causes physical, emotional, spiritual, or psychological harm to an individual.

This could cause different types of negative effect which is why a brief neurologic assessment which helps to determine the level of consciousness is needed as part of the primary survey and is therefore the reason why option D was chosen as the correct choice in this scenario.

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a student who specializes in neurology in their doctorate of physical therapy program would be best equipped to work with which patient conditions? (choose all that apply)

Answers

A student who specializes in neurology in their doctorate of physical therapy program would be best equipped to work with patient diseases of the brain and spinal cord.

Neurology is that the branch of drugs coping with the identification and treatment of all classes of conditions and unwellness involving the brain, the medulla spinalis and also the peripheral nerves. medicine apply depends heavily on the sphere of neurobiology, the scientific study of the system.

Serious neurological disorders with diseases of the brain and spinal cord are learning disabilities, autism, cerebral palsy, ADD, epilepsy, spinal stenosis, tumors,degenerative disc disease, etc.

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a 46-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and shortness of breath after he was bitten on the leg by a rattlesnake. his blood pressure is 106/58 mm hg and his pulse rate is 112 beats/min. treatment for this patient should include:

Answers

A 46-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and shortness of breath after he was bitten on the leg by a rattlesnake. his blood pressure is 106/58 mm hg and his pulse rate is 112 beats/min. treatment for this patient should include: splinting and lowering of the affected parts.

Every year, not a few people in the world die from venomous snake bites. A venomous snakebite is a medical emergency as it can cause shock and death. Prompt and appropriate treatment of snake bites can reduce mortality by more than 90 percent. Find out the first aid steps when bitten by a snake in the following review.

The difference between venomous and non-venomous snakes

Snakes are one of the many animals found in tropical countries like Indonesia. One of the snake's defense mechanisms when it feels threatened is to bite the target.

Snakebite wounds can come from venomous or non-venomous snakes. Snake venom contains poison that can paralyze the body.

There are more than 2000 species of snakes in the world, but only about 200 species of snakes are venomous.

To distinguish the type of snake venomous or nonvenomous, you can pay attention to the following signs:

Non-venomous snake characteristics: rectangular head shape, small canine, round pupils, and bite marks in the form of smooth open wounds in the form of an arch. The characteristics of venomous snakes: triangular head shape, two large canines on the upper jaw, vertical and thinly flat black pupils, surrounded by yellow-green eyeballs, and the type of bite wound is in the form of two fang bite holes, similar to a stick or sharp object puncture

Some types of venomous snakes that we can find around us are spoon snakes, welang snakes, cobras, ground snakes, green snakes, sea snakes, and tree snakes.

Bites by these types of venomous snakes require immediate first aid and emergency medical treatment.

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the parents of a child admitted with rheumatic fever (rf) ask why the child has been placed on bedrest. the nurse explains that bedrest serves what primary purpose for the client?

Answers

Bedrest serves primary purpose for the client with rheumatic fever to restrict the inflammation and pain.

Rheumatic fever (acute rheumatic fever) is a condition that may have an effect on the guts, joints, brain, and skin. infectious disease will develop if infection, contagion, and strep skin infections aren't treated properly. Symptoms embody fever and painful, tender joints. Treatment involves medication, typically for keeps.

Rheumatic fever causes inflammation, particularly of the guts, blood vessels and joints. The heart valves may be inflamed and become scarred over time. Rheumatic fever will cause long complications in sure things. It primarily affects youngsters between the ages of six and sixteen.

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greta, the quality control inspector at a baby food copacking factory, has discarded fourof the previous nine batches of baby food for trace levels of contamination. greta needs to turn this problem around and find a way to improve the situation, so she should probably perform

Answers

Greta, the quality control inspector needs to turn this problem around and find a way to improve the situation, so she should probably perform a diagnosis.

Diagnosis is that the method of crucial that sickness or condition explains a human symptoms and signs. it's most frequently spoken as designation with the medical context being implicit. There ar four sorts of nursing diagnoses: risk-focused, problem-focused, health promotion-focused, or syndrome-focused.

Contamination is that the presence of a constituent, impurity, or another undesirable part that spoils, corrupts, infects, makes unfit, or makes inferior a fabric, soma, natural atmosphere, workplace, etc. Contamination generally comes from explicit industrial, agricultural or business activities.

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what is the force on the electron, magnitude, and direction? (i.e. when it is in the plane of the page as stated above.) justify your answer. Directions, Part 1: Now that you have finished reading the book, explain how the themes of the novel are communicated to readers. Read the following quotes from the book. Using the Text Editor, explain the meaning of the quote and then explain how each reflects one of the themes in the novel.When Atticus asks Scout if she understands why they are going to say that Bob Ewell fell on his knife to protect the person that stabbed him, she says "Yes sir, I understand...Mr. Tate was right...it'd be sort of like shootin' a mockingbird, wouldnt it?""Atticus was right. One time he said you never really know a man until you stand in his shoes and walk around in them. Just standing on the Radley porch was enough."Scout says "As I made my way home, I thought Jem and I would get grown but there wasn't much else for us to learn, except possibly algebra."Scout says, "An' they chased him 'n' never could catch him 'cause they didnt know what he looked like, an' Atticus, when they finally saw him, why he hadn't done any of those things....Atticus, he was real nice..." to which Atticus answers, "Most people are, Scout, when you finally see them."Directions, Part 2: While there are many different messages that readers get when reading literature, there are some themes within texts that are generally accepted by most people. Read the widely accepted themes in To Kill a Mockingbird below, and then use the Text Editor to explain how these themes are developed within the text. Think about the events that have occurred, the characters involved, and the symbolism you have identified to help you explain these themes.Innocence and goodness are often threatened by evil; sometimes the innocent are destroyed by such cruelty, but sometimes good can prevail.People should learn to "walk in other peoples shoes" in order to see things from their perspective. This would allow us to see the best in people and to better understand the bad.Children have to grow up; they move from seeing the world through innocence and purity, where everyone is essentially good, into an adult world where they have to learn how to incorporate an understanding of evil into their worlds.Social inequality exists, as does class structure, and many times people are unfairly judged by their wealth (or lack of money) or their race.Directions, Part 3: Think about the theme of innocence being destroyed or corrupted by evil, intolerance, and racism. Using the Text Editor, explain how and why each character below is a "mockingbird" and how this fits into that theme.JemScoutTom RobinsonBoo Radley Miguels Skate Shop is having a sale on skateboards. The original price for its Extreme Skateboard is $84.50. The sale price for the skateboard is $50.70. What is the percent decrease in the price of the skateboard? 1. What makes Charles Darwin an important person to learn about? the accountant at swiftly company is figuring out the difference in income taxes the company will pay depending on the chouice of either fifo or lifo as an inventroy costing method the tax rate is 30 and the fifo method will result in income before taxes of 8100 1. When you compose a message, you want your audience to find the information it needs quickly and to understand it. Your message should be easy to read and comprehend.Strategic use of white space improves document readability. Which of the following techniques employ white space? Check all that apply.Using bulleted and numbered listsUsing headingsUsing serif typefaceUsing parallel structures2. A WIDE variety of typefaces are available for business writers. Different typefaces suggest different purposes and occasions.True or False: This selection uses a serif typeface.TrueFalseHeadings are important for visual impact and readability. Which of the following sentences about headings are true? Check all that apply.Headings often appear in business reports.Headings should not be used in formal documents.Headings increase the skim value of a message.3. Read the following sentence, and determine which technique is most applicable to improve its readability.Please follow these steps when filling out an expense report: begin by writing your name, date, and position; record the exact expense amount; and obtain your supervisors signature.Developing parallelism for balanceUsing numbered or bulleted listsUsing graphic techniquesChoose the heading that is best at highlighting information and improves readability.Financial Analysis of ABC Corp.The Truth About ABC Corp. Profitability Which of the following describes the first step in modernizing Shakespeare's works?Which of the following describes the first step in modernizing Shakespeare's works?reading about Shakespeare's lifereading all of his worksrewriting everythingdefining archaic words which graph represents the equation y =1/3 x + 2 apply the loop rule to loop 2 (the smaller loop on the right). sum the voltage changes across each circuit element around this loop going in the direction of the arrow. remember that the current meter is ideal.express the voltage drops in terms of vb , i2 , i3 , the given resistances, and any other given quantities. After reuniting China, Qin embraced legalism and was a strict ruler (even forcing the nobles to live in the cities!). Why do you think this strict approach at ruling was effective during this time period? Your class council determined that its profit from the upcoming homecoming dance is directlyrelated to the ticket price for the dance. Looking at past dances, the council determined that theprofit p can be modeled by the function p(t) = -1212 + 480t + 30, where t represents the price ofeach ticket. What should be the price of a ticket to the homecoming dance to maximize thecouncil's profit? a restaurant is introducing a new gluten-free recipe for the topping in its baked zucchini recipe. the chef will continue to use this topping if less than 8% of her customers complain about the new taste. using a random sample of customers, she conducts a hypothesis test with h0: the complaint rate is 8%, and ha: the complaint rate is less than 8%. what is a type i error and its consequence in this context? a 30-year-old potential client states she just had a physical and was informed by her physician that her total cholesterol and blood pressure looked great. you review her medical history and note she is taking vitamins and antihypertensive medication. based on this profile, she would be considered as having how many risk factors? Name the following compounds (Include stereochemical terms where appropriate. Only use cis trans terminology for cyclic structures. Omit customary italics from your name)OH The IUPAC name OH OH The IUPAC name is Ryanne is 14. Her brother's age is three more than half her age. How old is her brother?OA 7OB. 8.5OC. 10OD. 31Question widespread black shales were deposited on the north american craton in the late devonian and early mississippian periods. today they serve as source rocks for oil and gas. _____________________ encompasses a set of rules and conditions that must be met for the offender to remain in the community.a. Aftercareb. Parolec. Probationd. Diversion Stockholders of a company may be reluctant to finance expansion through issuing more equity because? Around 1400 BCE Linear B tablets suddenly supplant Linear A tablets in the archaeological record at Minoan palaces suggesting that... dr. johnson wants to investigate whether the physiological measure, heart rate variability, varies over time or whether it is a trait that stays stable within the same person over time. he records participants' heart rate variability once at the beginning of the semester and once at the end of the semester. he finds a high positive correlation (r