Answer:
16Gpa < 30 Gpa
there would be no fracture
Explanation:
fracture can occur if the maximum strength at the top of the biggest flaw is more than the theoretical fracture
to get the theoretical strength =
e/10 = 300/10
= 30 Gpa
we get the magnitude at the buggest flaw
= 2σ√a/ρt
σ = 800
ρτ = 0.0015
a= 0.3/2
[tex]=2*800\sqrt{\frac{\frac{0.3}{2} }{0.0015} }[/tex]
= [tex]=2*800*\sqrt{100} \\=2*800*10\\=16000MPa[/tex]
= 16Gpa < 30 Gpa
the fracture is not going to happen given that the maximum strenght is smaller than the theoretical fracture strength.
An engineer is applying dimensional analysis to study the flow of air through this horizontal sudden contraction for the purpose of characterizing the pressure drop. The flow is being modeled as constant density and steady. What is the functional relationship of the variables that characterize this situation
Answer:
The answer is " [tex]\Delta p = f(V1, p, V2, d, D, L)[/tex]"
Explanation:
Please find the complete question in the attached file.
Its change in temperature in pipes depends on rate heads and loss in pipes owing to pipe flow, contractual loss, etc.
The temperature change thus relies on V1 v2 p d D L.
Can some people answer these questions so i can get to know the age group i an making my target market for DT-GSCE thankyou if you do my deadline is tomorrow :D
Answer:
I think you might have forgotten to post the problems
Given below are the measured streamflows in cfs from a storm of 6-hour duration on a stream having a drainage area of 185 mi^2. Derive the unit hydrograph by the inverse procedure. Assume a constant baseflow of 550 cfs.
Hour Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4
Midnight 550 5,000 19,000 550
6 am 600 4,000 1400
Noon 9000 3000 1000
6 pm 6600 2500 750
Answer:
33.56 ft^3/sec.in
Explanation:
Duration = 6 hours
drainage area = 185 mi^2
constant baseflow = 550 cfs
Derive the unit hydrograph using the inverse procedure
first step : calculate for the volume of direct runoff hydrograph using the details in table 2 attached below
Vdrh = sum of drh * duration
= 29700 * 6 hours ( 216000 secs )
= 641,520,000 ft^3.
next step : Calculate the volume of runoff in equivalent depth
Vdrh / Area = 641,520,000 / 185 mi^2
= 1.49 in
Finally derive the unit hydrograph
Unit of hydrograph = drh / volume of runoff in equivalent depth
= 50 ft^3 / 1.49 in = 33.56 ft^3/sec.in
How to Cancel prescription
Question
А
Particle of 2kg mass is being pulled across a smooth horizontal
surface by a horizontal force. The force does 24 Joule of work in
increasing
the particle's
velocity from 5m/s
to v m/s. calculate
the value of v and the position of particle
after 15s
Answer:
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Resistance depends on which three properties of a wire?
Color and texture are not directly related to a wire’s resistance.
1. color, thickness, texture
2. thickness, length, temperature
3. length, texture, temperature
4. temperature, color, texture
Answer:
2
Explanation:
From the formula R=(ro)A/l resistance depends on the length of the wire, the area of the wire(thickness) and the resistivity(ro) which depends on the material and temperature.
Determine the voltage which must be applied to a 1 k 2 resistor in order that a current of
10 mA may flow.
Answer:
The correct solution is "20 volt".
Explanation:
Given that:
Current,
I = 10 mA
or,
= [tex]10\times 10^{-3} \ A[/tex]
Resistance,
R = 2 K ohm
or,
= [tex]1\times 10^3 \ ohm[/tex]
Now,
The voltage will be:
⇒ [tex]V=IR[/tex]
By putting the values, we get
[tex]=10\times 10^{-3}\times 2\times 10^{3}[/tex]
[tex]= 20 \ volt[/tex]
Even though the content of many alcohol blends doesn’t affect engine drive ability using gasoline with alcohol in warm weather may cause
A pump is used to extract water from a reservoir and deliver it to another reservoir whose free surface elevation is 200 ft above that of the first. the total length of pipes required is 1000 ft. All pipes are 12 in. in diameter and are made of galvanized iron with relative roughness equal to 0.0005 (you may assume fully-rough flow). the pump performance curves suggest that the H-Q relationship is of the form: H_pump=665-0.051Q^2 (Q in ft) the expected flow rate the brake horsepower required to drive the pump (assume an efficiency of 78%). the location of pump inlet to avoid cavitation (assume the required NPSH=25 ft).
Answer:
a) the expected flow rate is 31.4 ft³/s
b) the required brake horsepower is 2808.4 bhp
c) the location of pump inlet to avoid cavitation is -8.4 ft
Explanation:
Given the data in the question;
free surface elevation = 200 ft
total length of pipe required = 1000 ft
diameter = 12 inch
Iron with relative roughness ( k/D ) = 0.0005
H[tex]_{pump[/tex] = 665-0.051Q² [Qinft ]
a) the expected flow rate
given that;
k/D = 0.0005
k/2R = 0.0005
R/k = 1000
now, we determine the friction factor;
1/√f = 2log₁₀( R/k ) + 1.74
we substitute
1/√f = 2log₁₀( 1000 ) + 1.74
1/√f = 6 + 1.74
1/√f = 7.74
√f = 1/7.74
√f = 0.1291989
f = (0.1291989)²
f = 0.01669
Now, Using Bernoulli theorem between two reservoirs;
(p/ρq)₁ + (v²/2g)₁ + z₁ + H[tex]_p[/tex] = (p/ρq)₂ + (v²/2g)₂ + z₂ + h[tex]_L[/tex]
so
0 + 0 + 0 + 665-0.051Q² = 0 + 0 + 200 + flQ²/2gdA²
665-0.051Q² = 200 + flQ²/2gdA²
665-0.051Q² = 200 +[ ( 0.01669 × 1000 × Q² ) / (2 × 32.2 × (π/4)² × 1⁵ )
665 - 0.051Q² = 200 + [ 16.69Q² / 39.725 ]
665 - 200 - 0.051Q² = 0.420138Q²
665 - 200 = 0.420138Q² + 0.051Q²
465 = 0.471138Q²
Q² = 465 / 0.471138
Q² = 986.97196
Q = √986.97196
Q = 31.4 ft³/s
Therefore, the expected flow rate is 31.4 ft³/s
b) the brake horsepower required to drive the pump (assume an efficiency of 78%).
we know that;
P = ρgH[tex]_p[/tex]Q / η
where; H[tex]_p[/tex] = 665 - 0.051(986.97196) = 614.7
we substitute;
P = ( 62.42 × 614.7 × 31.4 ) / ( 0.78 × 550 )
P = 1204804.6236 / 429
P = 2808.4 bhp
Therefore, the required brake horsepower is 2808.4 bhp
c) the location of pump inlet to avoid cavitation (assume the required NPSH=25 ft).
NPSH = ([tex]P_{atom[/tex] / ρg) - h[tex]_s[/tex] - ( P[tex]_v[/tex] / ρg )
we substitute
25 = ( 2116 / 62.42 ) - h[tex]_s[/tex] - ( 30 / 62.42 )
h[tex]_s[/tex] = 8.4 ft
Therefore, the location of pump inlet to avoid cavitation is -8.4 ft
What is the key objective of data analysis
Answer: The process of data analysis uses analytical and logical reasoning to gain information from the data. The main purpose of data analysis is to find meaning in data so that the derived knowledge can be used to make informed decisions.
4. An aluminum alloy fin of 12 mm thick, 10 mm width and 50 mm long protrudes from a wall, which is maintained at 120C. The ambient air temperature is 22C. The heat transfer coefficient and conductivity of the fin material are 140 W/m2K and 55 W/mk respectively. Determine a. Temperature at the end of the fin b. Temperature at the middle of the fin. c. Calculate the heat dissipation energy of the fin
Answer:
a) 84.034°C
b) 92.56°C
c) ≈ 88 watts
Explanation:
Thickness of aluminum alloy fin = 12 mm
width = 10 mm
length = 50 mm
Ambient air temperature = 22°C
Temperature of aluminum alloy is maintained at 120°C
a) Determine temperature at end of fin
m = √ hp/Ka
= √( 140*2 ) / ( 12 * 10^-3 * 55 )
= √ 280 / 0.66 = 20.60
Attached below is the remaining answers
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Explanation:
mitski
An air conditioner removes heat steadily from a house at a rate of 750 kJ/min while drawing electric power at a rate of 5.25 kW. Determine (a) the COP of this air conditioner and (b) the rate of heat transfer to the outside air.Answers:(a) 2.38, (b) 1065 kJ/min
Answer:
a) the COP of this air conditioner is 2.38
b) the rate of heat transfer to the outside air is 1065 kJ/min
Explanation:
Given the data in the question;
[ Outdoor ] ← Q[tex]_H[/tex] [ W[tex]_{net, in[/tex] ] Q[tex]_L[/tex] ← [ House ]
Rate of heat removed from the house; Q[tex]_L[/tex] = 750 kJ/min = ( 750 kJ/min × ( 1 kW / 60 kJ/min ) ) = 12.5 kW
Net-work input; W[tex]_{net, in[/tex] = 5.25 kW
a) The coefficient of performance of the air conditioner; COP.
COP = Q[tex]_L[/tex] / W[tex]_{net, in[/tex]
we substitute
COP = 12.5 kW / 5.25 kW
COP = 2.38
Therefore, the COP of this air conditioner is 2.38
b) the rate of heat transfer to the outside air.
Q[tex]_H[/tex] = Q[tex]_L[/tex] + W[tex]_{net[/tex]
we substitute
Q[tex]_H[/tex] = 12.5 kW + 5.25 kW
Q[tex]_H[/tex] = 17.75 kW
Q[tex]_H[/tex] = ( 17.75 × 60 ) kJ/min
Q[tex]_H[/tex] = 1065 kJ/min
Therefore, the rate of heat transfer to the outside air is 1065 kJ/min
If you deposit $ 1000 per month into an investment account that pays interest at a rate of 9% per year compounded quarterly.how much will be in your account at the end of 5 years ?assume no interpèriod compounding
Answer:
5,465.4165939453
Explanation:
formula
A=P(1+r/n)^n(t)
p=1000
r=0.09
n=4
t=5
Convert the following indoor air quality standards, established by the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), from ppmv to mg/m3 (at 25°C and 1atm) or vice versa.
a. Carbon dioxide (CO2), 5,000 ppmv
b. Formaldehyde (HCHO), 3.6 mg/m^3
c. Nitric oxide (NO), 25 ppmv
A turbine of a fossil fuel burning installation delivers 1,500 hp of mechanical energy to a generator. The generator then converts 80.0% of the mechanical energy into electrical energy. If the terminal potential difference of the generator is 1790 V, what current does it deliver (in A)
Answer:
The generator delivers current of 500.11 A
Explanation:
Given the data in the question;
mechanical energy delivered to the generator = 1500 hp
efficiency η = 80.0 %
terminal potential difference of the generator = 1790 V
we know that;
1 hp = 746 W
so
the mechanical energy delivered to the generator will be
Generator Input = ( 1500 × 746 )W = 1119000 W
So the generator output will be;
Generator Output = Generator Input × η
we substitute
Generator Output = 1119000 W × 80.0 %
Generator Output = 1119000 W × 0.8
Generator Output = 895200 W
So the Current will be;
[tex]I[/tex] = Generator Output / terminal potential difference of the generator
we substitute
[tex]I[/tex] = 895200 W / 1790 V
[tex]I[/tex] = 500.11 A
Therefore, The generator delivers current of 500.11 A
What possible scenarios may happen if you do the task without using PPE?
Calculate the biaxial stresses σ1 and σ2 for the biaxial stress case, where ε1 = .0020 and ε2 = –.0010 are determined experimentally on an aluminum member of elastic constants, E = 71 GPa and v = 0.35. Also, determine the value for the maximum shear stress.
Answer:
i) σ1 = 133.5 MPa
σ2 = -2427 MPa
ii) 78.89 MPa
Explanation:
Given data:
ε1 = 0.0020 and ε2 = –0.0010
E = 71 GPa
v = 0.35
i) Determine the biaxial stresses σ1 and σ2 using the relations below
ε1 = σ1 / E - v (σ2 / E) -----( 1 )
ε2 = σ2 / E - v (σ1 / E) -------( 2 )
resolving equations 1 and 2
σ1 = E / 1 - v^2 { ε1 + vε2 } ---- ( 3 )
σ2 = E / 1 - v^2 { ε2 + vε1 } ----- ( 4 )
input the given data into equation 3 and equation 4
σ1 = 133.5 MPa
σ2 = -2427 MPa
ii) Calculate the value of the maximum shear stress ( Zmax )
Zmax = ( σ1 - σ2 ) / 2
= 133.5 - ( - 2427 ) / 2
= 78.89 MPa
For a pipe system with a pump (pumping uphill), the change in elevation is 400 feet and the total head loss is 408.5 feet. Assuming gage pressure at the entrance and exit and no difference in velocity between the entrance and exit, determine the total energy transferred to the water. Estimate the required power input if the pump efficie
Answer:
Explanation:
From the given information;
There is no change or any difference in velocity in between the inlet and the outlet.
Therefore by using Bernoulli's equation, we have:
[tex]\dfrac{V_1^2}{2g}+ \dfrac{P_1}{\gamma}+ z_1 + Epump= \dfrac{V_2^2}{2g}+ \dfrac{P_2}{\gamma}+ z_2+ H_L[/tex]
By dividing like terms on both sides, the equation is reduced to:
[tex]z_1 + E_{pump} = z_2+H_L \\ \\ E_{pump} =(z_2-z_1)+H_L[/tex]
where;
[tex]\Delta z = 400[/tex]
[tex]\Delta z = z_2-z_1[/tex]
[tex]\text{total head loss}= 408.5[/tex]
[tex]E_{pump} =(400)+408.5[/tex]
[tex]E_{pump} = 808.5 \ ft[/tex]
The required power input can be determined by using the formula:
[tex]P= \dfrac{\gamma_wQH_{pump}}{\eta}[/tex]
Assuming the missing pump efficiency = 70% and the flow rate Q= 1.34
Then:
[tex]P= \dfrac{62.40\times 1.34 \times 808.5}{0.7}[/tex]
[tex]P = \dfrac{96576.48 \ ft.lb/s}{550\dfrac{ ft*lb/s}{hp}}[/tex]
P = 175.594 hp
. (5 points) Based on the Reynolds number for each of the following objects, identify each flow as either inertial or viscous force dominant and in which cases the flows are laminar or turbulent. Flow Re A. A bee larva in honey 0.2 B. A ball tossed on Mars 500 C. An elderly driver on i95 1,2000,000
Answer:
Part A
The flow of the bee lava is inertia dominant and laminar
Part B
The flow of a baseball in Mars is inertia dominated and the flow is laminar
Part C
The flow of an elderly on i95 is viscous force dominated and turbulent
Explanation:
The Reynold's number when inertia is dominant is low, and the flow is laminar
When viscous force is dominant, the Reynold's number is high, and we have turbulent flow
The Reynold's number of laminar flow is Re < 2,000
The Reynold's of unstable or intermediate flow is 2,000 < Re < 4,000
The Reynold's number of turbulent flow is Re > 4,000
Therefore, we have;
Part A
The Reynold's number of a bee lava, Re = 0.2, therefore, the flow is inertia and laminar
Part B
The Reynold's number of the ball in Mars is Re = 500, therefore, given that the Reynold's number is less than 2,000, the inertia is dominant, and the flow is laminar flow
Part C
The Reynold's number of the driver on i95 = 1,200,000 which is larger than 4,000, therefore, the flow is viscous force dominated and the flow is turbulent.
What is the per capita GDP of China? Be sure to indicate the calendar year that this information represents.
The per capita GDP of China in the Calendar year 2021 was found to be around 12,359 U.S. dollars.
What is GDP?GDP termed Gross Domestic Product, has been evaluated with the value producing the economy of the region with the values added with the used products formed to be the less of the economy produced. It has been termed as the measure of the income of a region and not the wealth.
The per capita GDP has been the total income earned by a person in a region during a specified period of time. The calculation has been made by dividing the total gross income of the region by the total population.
China has been the world's most populous country in the East Asian region. It has been found that the per capita GDP of China is low because of its large population. In the calendar year 2021, the per capita GDP of China was 12,359 U.S. dollars.
Learn more about the GDP, here:
https://brainly.com/question/15171681
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A particle which moves in two-dimensional curvilinear motion has coordinates in millimeters which vary with time t in seconds according to X=2t^2 +3t–1 and y = 5t - 2. Determine the coordinates of the center of curvature C at time t = 1s.
Answer:
The answer is "22.501,-22.899"
Explanation:
Just as in the previous problems find the angle the velocity makes with the x-axis and radius of curvature.
[tex]x= 2t^2 + 3t — 1\\\\y=5t-2\\\\x=4t+3\\\\y=5\\\\\tan \alpha (t = 1) =\frac{y}{x}=\frac{5}{4+3}=\frac{5}{7} \to alpha=35.54^{\circ}\\\\[/tex]
For the radius of curvature, we can use the expression from the last two problems, but first express the position and derivatives as y(x).
[tex]y(x)=2(\frac{y+2}{5})^2+3(\frac{y+2}{5})-1=\frac{1}{25}(2y^2+23y+13)\\\\y'(x)=\frac{1}{25}(4y+23)\\\\y''(x)=\frac{4}{25}\\\\\rho(t=1)=\frac{[1+(\frac{dy}{dx})^2]^{\frac{3}{2}}}{\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}}=\frac{(1+(\frac{35}{25})^2)^{\frac{3}{2}}}{4}25=31.828[/tex]
The position for the center of the radius of curvature [tex]\vec{r}[/tex], (finding this expression is easy and is left as an exercise for the reader.)
[tex]\to \vec{r} = \hat{x}(x + \rho \sin \alpha) + \hat{y}(y- \rho \cos \alpha)\\\\= (4 + 18.501, 3-25.899)\\\\=(22.501, -22.899)[/tex]
. En la facultad de Ingeniería Industrial se realizó una encuesta a 200 personas para saber que lenguaje de programación preferían para aprender al inicio, se obtuvo: 50 prefieren C, 65 prefieren C#, 77 prefieren Python, 100 prefieren C o C#, 105 prefieren C# o Python, 110 prefieren C o Python, 10 personas prefieren C y Python pero no C#.
Answer:
lalalalapumpe
Explanation:
A brittle material is subjected to a tensile stress of 1.65 MPa. If the specific surface energy and modulus of elasticity for this material are 0.60 J/m2 and 2.0 GPa, respectively. What is the maximum length of a surface flaw that is possible without fracture
Answer:
The maximum length of a surface flaw that is possible without fracture is
[tex]2.806 \times 10^{-4} m[/tex]
Explanation:
The given values are,
σ=1.65 MPa
γs=0.60 J/m2
E= 2.0 GPa
The maximum possible length is calculated as:
[tex]\begin{gathered}a=\frac{2 E \gamma_{s}}{\pi \sigma^{2}}=\frac{(2)\left(2 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^{2}\right)(0.60 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m})}{\pi\left(1.65\times 10^{6} \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^{2}\right)^{2}} \\=2.806 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~m}\end{gathered}[/tex]
The maximum length of a surface flaw that is possible without fracture is
[tex]2.806 \times 10^{-4} m[/tex]
An aggregate blend consists of 65% of aggregate A and 35% of aggregate B. The bulk specific gravities of aggregate A and B are 2.45 and 3.25, respectively. What is the bulk specific gravity of the blend?
a) 2.45
b) 2.68
c) 2.73
d) 2.92
Answer:
2.68
Explanation:
Percentage by Mass of each Aggregate :
Pa = 65% ; Pb = 35%;
Bulk Specific gravity of each aggregate :
Ga = 2.45 ; Gb = 3.25
Gsb = (Pa + Pb) / (Pa/Ga + Pb/Gb)
Gsb = (65 + 35) / (65/2.45 + 35/3.25)
Gsb = (65 + 35) / 37.299843
Gsb = 100 / 37.299843
Gsb = 2.68
Why does the ceramic made from Thorium and Oxygen have the chemical ratio of 2 oxygen atoms to every thorium atom (ThO2)
Engineers design products or processes to meet desired needs. Your desired need or goal (hopefully) is to graduate with your Bachelor of Science degree in engineering. But what is the process you need to apply to be successful in achieving this goal?
An intelligence signal is amplified by a 65% efficient amplifier before being combined with a 250W carrier to generate an AM signal. If it is desired to operate at 50% modulation, what must be the dc input power to the final intelligence signal amplifier
Answer:
"192.3 watt" is the right answer.
Explanation:
Given:
Efficient amplifier,
= 65%
or,
= 0.65
Power,
[tex]P_c=250 \ watt[/tex]
As we know,
⇒ [tex]P_t=P_c(1+\frac{\mu^2}{2} )[/tex]
By putting the values, we get
[tex]=P_c(1+\frac{1}{2} )[/tex]
[tex]=1.5 \ P_c[/tex]
Now,
⇒ [tex]P_i=(P_t-P_c)[/tex]
[tex]=1.5 \ P_c-P_c[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{P_c}{2}[/tex]
DC input (0.65) will be equal to "[tex](\frac{P_c}{2} )[/tex]".
hence,
The DC input power will be:
= [tex]\frac{250}{2}\times \frac{1}{0.65}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{125}{0.65}[/tex]
= [tex]192.3 \ watt[/tex]
to check for ripple voltage from the alternator, connect a digital multimeter and select
Answer:
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Hi, can anyone draw me an isometric image of this shape?
