Answer:
Diabetes.
Explanation:
Diabetes is a chronic (long-lasting) health condition that affects how your body turns food into energy. Your body breaks down most of the food you eat into sugar (glucose) and releases it into your bloodstream. When your blood sugar goes up, it signals your pancreas to release insulin.
Diseases are those that are spread by contact between living things or through the environment.
Noninfectious
Infectious
Congenital
Answer:
Infectious
Explanation:
Congenital means someone is born with that disease
1. A diet that's high in which of the following can contribute to the development of chronic diseases?
A. Saturated fat, potassium, and sugar
B. Saturated fat, sodium, and amino acids
C. Saturated fat, sodium, and sugar
D. Unsaturated fat, sodium, and sugar
suppose a young boy is always tired and fatigued, suffering from a metabolic disease. which of the following organelles is most likely involved in this disease?
The most likely organelle involved in this disease is the mitochondria, which are responsible for producing the energy needed for metabolic functions.
Mitochondria are organelles found in the cells of all eukaryotic organisms. They are often referred to as the “powerhouses” of the cell because they are responsible for generating the majority of the cell’s energy supply. Mitochondria are rod-shaped and measure approximately 0.75 to 3 micrometers in length, with an inner and outer membrane. The inner membrane is highly convoluted and is home to proteins involved in the production of energy, while the outer membrane encloses the organelle. Mitochondria contain their own DNA and often contain ribosomes, though they are not essential for the organelle’s function.
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Consider a class in which your grade depends entirely on one difficult final exam with a teacher who grades harshly. According to the optimal arousal theory, you would likely feel too...stressed to do well because the class's arousal levels are too high.
Think about a class where the sole determinant of your grade is a challenging final test and a strict teacher. According to the optimum arousal theory, the arousal levels in the class are likely too high for you to perform successfully since you would feel too anxious. It is accurate.
don't have a lot or any influence over how something will turn out. have obligations that feel excessive. lack of employment, activity, or changes in your life. encounter abuse, hatred, or discrimination. Eat a balanced diet, get adequate sleep, and work out frequently. Relax by yourself.Would feel anxious,To relieve stress, try yoga, swimming, prayer, breathing exercises, or meditation. Spend time outdoors or in quiet music.
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choose all the structures that are involved with emotional feelings and memories. multiple select question. prefrontal cortex amygdala midbrain medulla oblongata pons
The structures that are involved with emotional feelings and memories are:
prefrontal cortex amygdala What is the function of prefrontal cortex and amygdala ?The prefrontal cortex can be described as the cerebral cortex covering the front part of the frontal lobe it can be considered as the brain region which has been implicated in planning complex cognitive behavior, personality expression, as swell as moderating social behaviour.
The amygdala, region of the brain can be seen as one that is associated with emotional processes it can be considered owing to the structure's almondlike shape as one that is located in the medial temporal lobe, just anterior to (in front of) the hippocampus.
In conclusion, both are structures that are involved with emotional feelings and memories .
Therefore, option A, B are correct.
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When you accept someone—faults and all—regardless of whether or not you like the individual or approve of his or her lifestyle, Rogers suggests that you are exhibiting ________.a. inventories are standardized
b. personality inventory
c. openness
d. unconditional positive regard
d. unconditional positive regard
When you accept someone—faults and all—regardless of whether or not you like the individual or approve of his or her lifestyle, Rogers suggests that you are exhibiting unconditional positive regard.
Humanist psychologist Carl Rogers coined the phrase "unconditional positive regard" to characterise a strategy he employed in his non-directive, client-centered treatment. 1
Unconditional positive regard, in Rogers' view, entails extending a person's full support and approval regardless of what they say or do. No matter what the client says or does, the therapist accepts them and is there to assist them. That implies that the therapist encourages the patient whether they are displaying "good" or "poor" behaviours and feelings.
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Women can experience benefits of strength training, however, they cannot achieve the level of hypertrophy that men can. What is the reason for this is?
Endocrinological differences do not allow women to achieve the same amount of muscle hypertrophy (size) as men. (Testosterone)
Women are not able to reach the same level of muscular hypertrophy (size) as men due to endocronological variations (Testosterone).
Male testes produce 30 times as much testosterone as they did before puberty, which is why men eventually have greater testosterone levels than women do. And at any age, men have 15 times the amount of testosterone in the blood than women have. Men often grow more muscle hypertrophy, or bigger muscles, from strength training than women do due to the action of testosterone. Muscle recruitment and muscle hypertrophy lead to strength improvements, which women are just as capable of achieving as men are. Men have noticeably more testosterone on average than women, despite the fact that testosterone is present and operates equally in both men and women.
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Lim and Zebrack (2004) reported that for family caregivers of dementia, having social support is significantly associated with improved : Help please!!!
According to Lim and Zebrack (2004) reported that for family caregivers of dementia, having social support is significantly associated with improved:
affecting the standard of living for people providing care for loved ones who have a chronic physical condition. Here, we examine the theories behind and tools available for gauging the quality of life of caregivers. Understanding stress-related variables and compiling elements affecting quality of life in accordance with the family stress theory were of special interest to us. According to the findings, quality of life was measured using a variety of positive and negative adjectives. Results show that patient and caregiver characteristics, stresses, stress appraisal, stress coping mechanisms, and social support are all potential determinants impacting carers' quality of life. The application of theory to interventions, measurement development, operationalization of measurement concepts, and the necessity of extensive longitudinal research are all topics covered in our recommendations.
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Today, most people with psychological problems are not hospitalized. Typically they are only hospitalized if they ________.are an imminent threat to themselves orothers
Most psychologically, ill persons, today are not hospitalized. They are often only admitted to a hospital if they pose a serious risk to others or themselves.
With 15% of women obtaining treatment compared to 9% of males, women are more likely than men to receive treatment for all mental health issues. The least likely age group to receive mental health care is young people (16–24), according to research.
Today, there are psychiatric hospitals run by state governments and neighborhood community hospitals, with a focus on short-term admissions, in place of asylums. But the majority of those suffering from mental illness do not get hospitalized. A patient with symptoms could consult with a primary care physician, who would probably send him to a therapist. Numerous professionals, such as psychologists, psychiatrists, marriage and family therapists, school counselors, clinical social workers, and members of the clergy, are able to provide the client with outpatient mental health care. The cost of these therapy sessions would be covered by insurance, public assistance, or private funding.
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The intake of fatty foods contributes to a rise in cholesterol levels. This is an example of a(n) ______.
Group of answer choices
control group
neutral association
positive association
negative association
positive, because it it raises it
peripheral tolerance group of answer choices is caused by costimulation without tcr-mhc peptide interaction. is caused by tcr-mhc peptide interaction without costimulation. leads to anergy. both leads to anergy and is caused by costimulation without tcr-mhc peptide interaction. both leads to anergy and is caused by tcr-mhc peptide interaction without costimulation.
Anergy is a form of peripheral tolerance, and the lack of a costimulatory signal prevents the lymphocyte from becoming activated against the foreign substance.
When lymphocytes that can recognize self-antigens escape from the central tolerance, peripheral tolerance develops. Anergy is caused by an inhibitory receptor, which renders the lymphocyte inoperative.The second subset of immunological tolerance in immunology, after central tolerance, is peripheral tolerance. It occurs in the immune system's periphery (after T cells and B cells egress from primary lymphoid organs). Its main goal is to prevent autoimmune illness from being brought on by self-reactive T cells and B cells that eluded central tolerance. Peripheral tolerance stops the immune system from reacting to both allergens and innocuous dietary antigens.Only 60–70% of self-reactive T cells are successfully eliminated in the thymus, and a sizable percentage of low-avidity self-reactive T cells make up the naive T cell repertoire. Numerous peripheral tolerance mechanisms exist to prevent the stimulation of these cells from producing an autoimmune reaction.To know more about lymphocyte check the below link:
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When one faces a situation with both attractive and unattractive characteristics, one is facing a(n) _____ conflict.
When one faces a situation with both attractive and unattractive characteristics, one is facing an approach-avoidance conflict.
When a goal or event has both favorable and unfavorable consequences or traits that make it both desirable and undesirable at the same time, approach-avoidance conflicts arise. According to the approach-avoidance theory, people gravitate toward pleasant and other favorable environments. According to Havlena and Holbrook32, people will go toward alternatives that produce pleasant emotional states while deciding between similar alternatives.
One of the three potential conflicts that could exist alongside a decision-making circumstance is the approach-avoidance conflict. Making decisions regarding events that have both good and negative consequences is a part of the approach-avoidance conflict.
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A nurse is admitting a client who has experienced a weight loss of 11 kg (25 lb) in the past 3 months. The clientweighs 40 kg (88 lb) and believes she is fat. Which of the following aspects of care should the nurse consider thefirst priority for this client?A. Identify the client's nutritional status.B. Request a mental health consult.C. Plan a therapeutic diet for the client.D. Provide a structured environment for the client.A. Identify the client's nutritional status.Rationale: According to the nursing process, the nurse should perform an assessment first to gatherenough data regarding nutritional status and other findings in order to plan, implement, andevaluate care. The assessment identifies client nutrition needs as well as complications theclient might be experiencing related to the eating disorder.
A nurse is admitting a client who has experienced a weight loss of 11 kg (25 lb) in the past 3 months. The client weighs 40 kg (88 lb) and believes she is fat therefore the following aspects of care which the nurse should consider the first priority for this client is identify the client's nutritional status which is therefore denoted as option A.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred tom as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved.
The things which an individual eats is responsible for their weight as fatty foods such as butter etc leads to an increase and is part of the client's nutritional status.
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in order to prove that pellagra was not an infectious disease, dr. joseph goldberger exposed himself to blood and secretions from pellagra patients. which of the following vitamins was discovered as a result of dr. goldberger's work?
Vitamin B was discovered as a result of Dr. Goldberger's work in order to prove that pellagra was not an infectious disease.
Following the Civil War, Pellagra, a condition brought on by a dietary deficit in vitamin B (niacin), was observed in the southern United States (1861-65). It was formerly believed to be an infectious disease in the early 1900s, but research by public health physician Joseph Goldberger at Georgia's Milledgeville State Hospital (later Central State Hospital) revealed that it was caused by nutrition. Pellagra may have been one of the most severe nutritional deficiency disorders ever identified in the United States, according to death figures. Dermatitis, diarrhoea, mucous membrane irritation, and even dementia are among the symptoms. Strong sunshine can cause pellagra to flare. The condition is fatal if left untreated.
During the Progressive Era in the beginning of the 20th century, pellagra cases significantly rose. More than 1,000 estimated cases from thirteen states were reported in 1909. With the exception of nine states, pellagra cases had increased ninefold by 1911. About 3 million cases and 100,000 fatalities were ascribed to this illness between 1906 and 1940. Most of the available land was used for commercial crops like cotton and tobacco rather than food crops in the southern states, where income levels were low. Pellagra had developed into a significant epidemic in Georgia by 1920, where it was blamed for 432 fatalities. When it was most prevalent in 1928–1929, pellagra was the eighth or ninth most common cause of death.
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The measurement that reports the fastest speed at which air emptied from the lung is called:
Select one:
a. FEFmax
b. FEF 50%
c. FEFR
d. FEV1
e. none of the above
The measurement that reports the fastest speed at which air emptied from the lung is called FEFmax. Thus, option A is correct.
What is residual air?The residual air is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after a forced expiration. The volume of air exchanged during normal breathing is called the tidal volume. After a normal inspiration, the amount of air that can then be inspired forcefully is called the inspiratory reserve volume.
The lungs are the main organs of the respiratory system. These lungs are also the site of exchange of gases. The air is inspired through the nostrils and this air then reaches the lungs, where the oxygen from air is trapped in the alveoli. This oxygen then diffuses into the bloodstream through capillaries.
Therefore, The measurement that reports the fastest speed at which air emptied from the lung is called FEFmax. Thus, option A is correct.
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these are larger potential impact bodies ranging in size 10 m-1000 km in diameter, originating from the asteroid belt and composed of rocky material and/or metallic materials.
Meteorites are larger potential impact bodies ranging in size 10 m-1000 km in diameter, originating from the asteroid belt and composed of rocky material and/or metallic materials.
A meteorite is a solid piece of trash from associate degree object, like a estraterrestrial body, asteroid, or meteor, that originates in space and survives its passage through the atmosphere to achieve the surface of a planet or moon.
The asteroid belt is a torus-shaped region within the system, placed roughly between the orbits of the planets Jupiter and Mars. It contains an excellent several solid, on an irregular basis formed bodies, of the many sizes, however a lot of smaller than planets, referred to as asteroids or minor planets.
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I drink coffee _____
Answer: Its alright to drink coffee but not to much!
Explanation:
Answer: are you asking what is the correct punctuation if so its a period
Explanation:
In order to prescribe ____ therapies, a ____ or other medical professional must have a special license that ensures they are trained and experienced in this type of treatment. However, in most states anyone can call themselves a ____ and administer ____ therapies.biologicalpsychiatristtherapistpsychologica
In order to prescribe biological therapies, a psychiatrist or other medical professional must have a special license that ensures they are trained and experienced in this type of treatment. However, in most states anyone can call themselves a therapist and administer psychological.
What is an example of biological therapy?The term "biologic therapy" refers to a variety of treatments, including certain targeted therapies and immunotherapy (using agents including cytokines, cancer vaccines, and some antibodies). BRM therapy, biotherapy, and other variations are also used to describe this treatment.Biomedical treatments target the physiological manifestations of psychological problems with a particular emphasis on symptom reduction. The three techniques include electroconvulsive (shock) therapy, psychosurgery, and pharmacological treatments.Drug therapies, electroconvulsive therapy, and psychosurgery are all examples of treatments for mental diseases that aim to change physiological function. sometimes referred to as biomedical treatment.To learn more about biological therapies refer to:
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Which circuit should you use if you want to save money by using fewer parts? Why would this circuit be cheaper?
We can use series circuit to save money by using fewer parts. Making a series circuit is less expensive. Less energy is used in the series circuit.
What makes series circuits superior to parallel ones?While the voltage across each appliance is the same in a parallel connection, the current flowing through each appliance is different in a series connection. Additionally, despite being more reliable, a parallel circuit uses more energy than a series circuit.
Why utilize less power in series circuits?Because the current in the circuit is lower than in the circuit with a single bulb and battery, and the potential difference is the same for both circuits, connecting two lamps in series uses the battery considerably less quickly. The two bulbs shift less energy than the single lamp does.
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Blank —- includes the negative thoughts,
attitudes, beliefs, and stereotypes about a
group of people based upon specific
attributes or characteristics they have.
Answer: STIGMA
STIGMA includes the negative thoughts, attitudes, beliefs, and stereotypes about agroup of people based upon specificattributes or characteristics they have.
A therapist takes a very directive role in challenging the client; she even assigns homework to confront those beliefs and modify the client's behavior. She is probably a ________ therapist.
Rational emotive behavioral
A therapist takes a very directive role in challenging the client; she even assigns homework to confront those beliefs and modify the client's behavior. She is probably a rational emotive behavioral therapist.
A therapist is someone who provides various types of therapy. Therapists are trained professionals who provide a variety of services, such as psychologists, social workers, counsellors, life coaches, and others. They are useful in counseling people with various mental and physical issues. A therapist or licensed counselor must pass a state licensure exam and should have a master's degree in addition to completing an internship with a practicing Supervisor.
Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT) was developed by Albert Ellis in the 1950s. It's a method for identifying irrational beliefs and negative thought patterns that can lead to emotional or behavioral problems. REBT is based on the premise that most people want to succeed in life. For example, you most likely want to achieve your goals and be happy.
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Type 2 diabetes is increasing greatly in the U.S. population as people become heavier and less physically active
True
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Type 2 diabetes is increasing, and some of the cause is obistity.
A nurse is evaluating teaching on a client who has a new prescription for montelukast to treat asthma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?A. "I'll rinse my mouth after taking this medication."B. "I'll take this medication when I get an asthma attack."C. "I'll take this medication once a day in the evening."D. "I'll use a spacer device when I inhale this medication."
The answer for the question is (C) "I'll take this medication once a day in the evening for montelukast to treat asthma.
Montelukast is a drug used in the maintenance treatment of asthma and is marketed under the trade names Singulair and others. In comparison to inhaled corticosteroids, it is typically less favoured for this application. To treat severe asthma attacks, it is useless. Other applications include long-lasting hives and allergic rhinitis. It is a second-line therapy for allergic rhinitis. Headache, cough, and abdominal pain are typical adverse effects. Allergic reactions, such as anaphylaxis and eosinophilia, can have serious side consequences. Pregnancy use seems to be safe. The leukotriene receptor antagonist class of drugs includes montelukast. It functions by preventing leukotriene D4 from acting in the lungs, which reduces inflammation and relaxes smooth muscle.
Asthma, exercise-induced bronchospasm, allergic rhinitis, and urticaria are among the disorders for which montelukast is used. It is mostly used as a supplemental therapy in adults in addition to inhaled corticosteroids, if inhaled steroids alone do not have the desired effect.
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They works by entering a cell of the body, known as the host cell, and producing more. It kill the host cell and spread throughout the body. Antibiotics do not work against.
Bacteria
Viruses
Hypertension
The fact that children with anxiety problems are likely to exhibit similar disorders as adults best illustrates the concept of developmental ____.
The fact that children with anxiety problems are likely to exhibit similar disorders as adults best illustrates the concept of developmental Continuity.
Continuous development can be thought of as consistency. From early childhood through old age, we continue to develop, almost as if life were an elevator that never stopped. Psychologists may choose either a continuous or discontinuous perspective, depending on the situation and the type of growth.Even though we frequently refer to life as having different stages, such adolescence, the actual biological changes that take place at this time happen gradually.Continuous development often refers to quantitative changes made over the course of development when contrasting continuity and discontinuity in human development.The majority of developmental psychologists tend to err on the side of neither continuity nor discontinuity in human development.To know more about psychologists check the below link:
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Programs such as Meals on Wheels provide at least one meal a day that provides ________ of the RDA for individuals who are 60 years of age or older.
a. one - half
b. one - fifth
c. one - third
d. one - quarter
e. two - thirds
Programs such as Meals on Wheels provide at least one meal a day that provides one-third of the RDA for individuals who are 60 years of age or older.
Congregate nutrition service providers must utilize an advanced reservation system to calculate the number of meals required for each day of service and to inform participants of the reservation process.
Providers must only feed eligible walk-in older folks and other unplanned visitors after those with reservations have finished their meals.
In order to ensure consistency in quality and to ensure that the nutritious content of food served is documented, nutrition service providers must ensure that food production is planned and managed using standardized recipes altered to generate the necessary number of servings.
The Older Americans Act, as amended provisions,'s for nutrition services must be followed by all providers.
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which of the following psychological disorder(s) was reported by the most people in the united states within the past year?
Answer:
It is not possible for me to accurately answer your question because I do not have access to current data on the prevalence of psychological disorders in the United States. Additionally, it is important to note that the prevalence of psychological disorders can vary significantly over time and between different populations. It is also worth considering that many people who experience psychological disorders may not seek treatment or be diagnosed, so it is difficult to accurately determine the prevalence of these conditions. It is important to seek help if you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of a psychological disorder, and to consult with a mental health professional for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
the nurse has reinforced teaching with the parents of a 2-day-old, full-term newborn. which of the following statements by a parent would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching
A group of young moms employees are being reinforced in their learning about infant home safety measures by a nurse. Which of the appropriate boxes needs to be included by the nurse? Slats on a crib should be no farther apart than 2.25 inches.
In order to protect the health and wellbeing of individuals as well as the community, safety refers to a condition in which risks and circumstances that could cause bodily, psychological, or economic harm are under control. An environment that is safe and healthy for workers can minimise injury and illness expenses, lower absenteeism and turnover, boost productivity and the quality, and improve employee morale. In those other words, safety benefits the workplace. Additionally, safeguarding employees is the moral thing to do.
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The complete question is:
A group of young moms employees are being reinforced in their learning about infant home safety measures by a nurse. Which of the appropriate boxes needs to be included by the nurse? Slats on a crib should be no farther apart than 2.25 inches. 1. “There are most likely more of these on my newborn’s internal organs.” o 2. “I know that this may continue to get larger until my newborn is 1 year old.” o 3. “My newborn will need to have immediate surgery in order to remove this.” o 4. “This is a result of an injury that my newborn suffered during birth.”
A 60-year-old woman has had headaches and dizziness for the past 5 weeks. She has been taking cimetidine for heartburn and omeprazole for ulcers. On physical examination, she is afebrile and normotensive, and her face has a plethoric to cyanotic appearance. There is mild splenomegaly, but no other abnormal findings. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin, 21.7 g/dL; hematocrit, 65%; platelet count, 400,000/mm3; and WBC count, 30,000/mm3 with 85% polymorphonuclear leukocytes, 10% lymphocytes, and 5% monocytes. The peripheral blood smear shows abnormally large platelets and nucleated RBCs. The serum erythropoietin level is undetectable, but the ferritin level is normal. Which of the following is most characteristic of the natural history of this patient's disease?
(A) Transformation into acute B lymphoblastic leukemia
(B) Marrow fibrosis with extramedullary hematopoiesis
(C) Spontaneous remissions and relapses without treatment
(D) Increase in monoclonal serum immunoglobulin
(E) Development of a gastric non-Hodgkin lymphoma
The statement that represents the most characteristic of the natural history of this patient's disease is the development of a gastric non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Thus, the correct option for this question is E.
What is Mild splenomegaly?Mild splenomegaly may be characterized as a type of circumstance in which there is an enlargement of the spleen observed during the ultrasound. It is an enlarged spleen that usually doesn't cause symptoms. It's often discovered during a routine physical exam. A doctor usually can't feel the spleen in an adult unless it's enlarged.
According to the context of this question, the symptoms that are represented in the passage determined that it is most probably the development of gastric non-Hodgkin lymphoma. This is represented due to intake of omeprazole for ulcers.
Therefore, the correct option for this question is E.
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When the pCO2 of the blood increases, the production of H+ ___ but only ___ is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier to elicit a response by central chemoreceptors.
When the pCO₂ of the blood increases, the production of H⁺ increases but only carbon dioxide is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier to elicit a response by central chemoreceptors.
What is the blood-brain barrier?The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is the specialized system of the brain microvascular endothelial cells. It is a highly semipermeable border of the endothelium cells. This barrier helps in shielding the brain from the entry of toxic substances in the blood, which supplies the brain tissues with nutrients, and also filters harmful compounds from the brain back to the bloodstream and are then excreted.
When the pCO₂ of the blood increases that is the increase in the acidity of the blood, the production of H⁺ increases in the blood but only the carbon dioxide molecules are capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier to elicit a response by the central chemoreceptors. This helps in maintaining the pH of the blood.
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