Answer:
The correct option b. $2,567.
Explanation:
Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:
A company bought a piece of equipment for $49,200 and expects to use it for eight years. The company then plans to sell it for $4,000. The company has already recorded depreciation of $42,632.60. Using the double-declining-balance method, what is the company's annual depreciation expense for the upcoming year? (Round your answer to the nearest whole dollar amount.)
a. $11,300.
b. $2,567.
c. $19,200.
d. $1,642.
The explanation to the answer is now given as follows:
Note: See the attached excel file for the calculation of the annual depreciation expenses.
Double declining depreciation method is an accelerated depreciation technique due to the fact the depreciation expenses are charged faster under it than under straight-line depreciation method.
The depreciation of double declining method is calculated by by multiplying the rate of straight-line depreciation method by 2.
From the question, the already recorded depreciation of $42,632.60 is the accumulated depreciation expenses for the 7th year.
Since the upcoming year is the 8th year which is the last year, the depreciation expense for it can be calculated as by adjusting for the residual value of $4,000 follows:
Equipment cost = $49,200
Accumulated Depreciation = $42,632.60
Residual value = $4,000
Estimated useful life = 8 years
Therefore, we have:
Straight line method depreciation rate = 1 / Estimated useful life = 1 / 8 = 0.125, or 12.50%
Double declining depreciation rate = Straight line method depreciation rate * 2 = 12.50% * 2 = 25%
Beginning book value of the equipment in the upcoming year or in the 8th year = Equipment cost - Accumulated Depreciation = $49,200 - $42,632.60 = $6,567.40
Annual depreciation expense for the upcoming year or for the 8th year = Beginning book value of the equipment - Residual value = $6,567.40 - $4,000 = $2,567
Therefore, the correct option b. $2,567.
"Your customer has been declared legally incompetent and his daughter has presented the proper legal papers appointing her as the guardian. Which statement is TRUE?"
Answer: B. Trading instructions can be accepted only from the daughter
Explanation:
The customer has been declared legally incompetent which means that he should not be making decisions that have to do with something as serious as trading instructions as he will not be able to comprehend them.
The only person that should therefore take over such roles would be his daughter who is a legal guardian. As she is not his guardian, she is able to take such decisions for him and so the trading instructions should be accepted only from the daughter.
A cash equivalent is: Multiple Choice Another name for cash. Close to its maturity date but its market value may still be affected by interest rate changes.
Complete Question:
A cash equivalent is:
Group of answer choices
a) Generally is within 12 months of its maturity date.
b) Another name for cash.
c) An investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
d) Is not considered highly liquid.
e) Close to its maturity date but its market value may still be affected by interest rate
changes
Answer:
c) An investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
Explanation:
In Financial accounting, cash equivalents can be defined as any short term and highly liquid investments which can be easily converted or transformed to a known and standard amounts of cash and as such are subjective to little or no risk of changes in value.
This ultimately implies that, a cash equivalent is an investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
Under the statements of cash flow, cash equivalents can be classified broadly into three (3) categories and these are;
1. Operating activities.
2. Financing activities.
3. Investing activities.
Answer:
money
Explanation:
A portfolio to the right of the market portfolio on the CML is: Group of answer choices a lending portfolio. an inefficient portfolio. a borrowing portfolio.
Answer:
a borrowing portfolio.
Explanation:
A borrowing portfolio is a portfolio to the right of the market portfolio. It is on the right half of the line. It shows that an investor can purchase the market portfolio and still borrow money so as to purchase more.
CML is known as the the capital market line. It shows the most advantageous portfolios that are a combination of risk and return.
Answer:
a borrowing portfolio.
Explanation:
A borrowing portfolio is a portfolio to the right of the market portfolio. It is on the right half of the line. It shows that an investor can purchase the market portfolio and still borrow money so as to purchase more.
CML is known as the the capital market line. It shows the most advantageous portfolios that are a combination of risk and return.
Explanation:
ROI, Residual Income, and EVA with Different Bases Envision Company has a target return on capital of 12 percent. The following financial information is available for October ($ thousands):
Software Division . Consulting Division Venture Capital Division
(Value Base) (Value Base) (Value Base)
Book Current Book Current Book Current
Sales $100,000 $100,000 $200,000 $200,000 $800,000 $800,000
Income 12,250 11,700 16,400 20,020 56,730 51,920
Assets 70,000 90,000 100,000 110,000 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000 14,000 14,000 40,000 40,000
Required
a. Compute the return on investment using both book and current values for each division. Round answers to three decimal places.
Book Value Current Value
Software Answer ? Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
b. Compute the residual income for both book and current values for each division. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate.
Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer 3,850 $Answer 900
Consulting Answer 4,400 . Answer 6,820
Venture Capital Answer (16,470) Answer (1,880)
c. Compute the economic value added income for both book and current values for each division if the tax rate is 30 percent and the weighted average cost of capital is 10 percent. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate. Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer ? $Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
Answer:
a. ROI = income / Assets
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 0.175 0.13
Consulting Division 0.164 0.182
Venture Capital Division 0.093 0.088
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250/70,000=0.175
Consulting Division = 16,400/100,000=0.164
Venture Capital Division = 56,730/610,000 =0.093
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700/90,000=0.13
Consulting Division = 20,020/110,000=0.182
Venture Capital Division= 51,920/ 590,000=0.088
b. Residual income = Income - {Asset x Return on capital 12% }
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 3850 900
Consulting Division 4400 6820
Venture Capital Division -16470 -18880
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250-(70,000*12%)=3850
Consulting Division = 16,400-(100,000*12%)=4400
Venture Capital Division = 56,730-(610,000*12%) =-16470
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700-(90,000*12%)=900
Consulting Division = 20,020-(110,000*12%)=6820
Venture Capital Division= 51,920-(590,000*12%)=-18880
c. Economic Value Added ( EVA ) = Net Income After Tax - ( Amount of Capital x Weighted Average Cost of Capital [WACC] )
C. Software Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 100,000 100,000
Income 12,250 11,700
Assets 70,000 90,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000
Capital invested 60,000 80,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 3675 3510
Income after Tax 8,575 8,190
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 6,000 8,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,575 190
Consulting Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 200,000 200,000
Income 16,400 20,020
Assets 100,000 110,000
Liabilities 14,000 14,000
Capital invested 86,000 96,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 4920 6006
Income after Tax 11,480 14,014
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 8,600 9,600
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,880 4,414
Venture Capital Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 800,000 800,000
Income 56,730 51,920
Assets 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 40,000 40,000
Capital invested 570,000 550,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 17019 15576
Income after Tax 39,711 36,344
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 57,000 55,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) -17,289 -18,656
On March 15, a fire destroyed Sheridan Company's entire retail inventory. The inventory on hand as of January 1 totaled $5900000. From January 1 through the time of the fire, the company made purchases of $2032000, incurred freight-in of $242000, and had sales of $4140000. Assuming the rate of gross profit to selling price is 20%, what is the approximate value of the inventory that was destroyed
Answer:
the approximate value of the inventory that was destroyed is $4,862,000.
Explanation:
Use the Gross Profit percentage to find the value of the inventory that was destroyed.
Sales $4,140,000
Less Cost of Goods Sold
Opening Inventory $5,900,000
Add Purchases $2,032,000
Add Freight In $242,000
Available $8,174,000
Less Inventory Lost ($4,862,000)
Cost of Sales (3,312,000)
Gross Profit at 20% $828,000
Conclusion :
The Value of inventory that was destroyed is $4,862,000.
Suppose that we have the following information concerning the government's finances and the macroeconomy for a given year: Government Debt: $12 trillion Inflation: 10% Nominal Deficit: $1.5 trillion What is the real deficit for the year
Answer: $300 billion
Explanation:
The real deficit that a Government has is one that has been adjusted for inflationary effects. It is calculated by subtracting the inflation rate times the total debt from the nominal deficit.
= Nominal deficit - (Inflation rate * Total debt)
= 1.5 trillion - ( 10% * 12 trillion)
= 1.5 trillion - 1.2 trillion
= $300 billion
according to the nist the process of identifying risk, assessing risk, and taking steps to reduce risk to an
Answer: Risk management
Explanation:
According to the nist, the process of identifying risk, assessing risk, and taking steps to reduce risk to an acceptable level is referred to as the risk management.
Risk management simply has to do with the identification of risks before they occur. In such scenarios, the business owners can either avoid the risk or minimize the impact of the risk.
Q3) Creative Sports Design (CSD) manufactures a standard-size racket and an oversize racket. The firm’s rackets are extremely light due to the use of a magnesium-graphite alloy that was invented by the firm’s founder. Each standard-size racket uses 0.125 kilograms of the alloy and each oversize racket uses 0.4 kilograms; over the next two-week production period only 80 kilograms of the alloy are available. Each standard-size racket uses 10 minutes of manufacturing time and each oversize racket uses 12 minutes. The profit contributions are $10 for each standard-size racket and $15 for each oversize racket, and 40 hours of manufacturing time are available each week. Management specified that at least 20% of the total production must be the standard-size racket. How many rackets of each type should CSD manufacture over the next two weeks to maximize the total profit contribution? Assume that because of the unique nature of their products, CSD can sell as many rackets as they can produce.
Answer:
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total profit contribution = (165 x $15) + (42 x $10) = $2,895
Explanation:
materials machine hours profit
standard size 0.125 kg 1/6 $10
oversize 0.4 kg 1/5 $15
constraints 80 kilograms of materials
40 hours of manufacturing
profit per machine hour:
standard size $10 x 6 = $60 x 40 hours = $2,400 (total possible production = 240 rackets)
oversize $15 x 5 = $75 x 40 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
profit per kilogram of alloy:
standard size $10 / 0.125 = $80 x 80 kgs = $6,400 (total possible production = 480 rackets)
oversize $15 / .4 = $37.50 x 80 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
since the most important constraint is the manufacturing hours available, the company should try to produce the products that yield the highest contribution margin per machine hour. In this case, at least 20% of total production must be standard size rackets, so the remaining 80% should be oversize rackets that yield a higher profit.
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total manufacturing time = 40 hours
if we produce 166 oversize rackets and 41 standard size rackets, total manufacturing time will exceed 40 hours (40.03 hours exactly).
Burke's Corner currently sells blue jeans and T-shirts. Management is considering adding fleece tops to its inventory to provide a cooler weather option. The tops would sell for $53 each with expected sales of 4,300 tops annually. By adding the fleece tops, management feels the firm will sell an additional 285 pairs of jeans at $65 a pair and 420 fewer T-shirts at $26 each. The variable cost per unit is $36 on the jeans, $16 on the T-shirts, and $31 on the fleece tops. With the new item, the depreciation expense is $33,000 a year and the fixed costs are $76,000 annually. The tax rate is 35 percent. What is the project's operating cash flow?
Answer: $26,282.25
Explanation:
The operating cash-flow will be the amount of cash the company got from sales less the amount they would have to pay on taxes.
Cash from tops
= (Sales price - Variable costs) * quantity
= ( 53 - 31) * 4,300
= $94,600
Cash from jeans
= ( 65 - 36) * 285
= $8,265
Cash from jeans
= (26 - 16) * -420
= -$4,200
As this deals with cash, a tax adjusted depreciation will need to be added back because it is a non cash expense and fixed costs will have to be deducted.
Pre-tax operating cash-flow = 94,600 + 8,265 - 4,200 - 76,000
= $22,665
Post-tax Project Operating cash-flow
= $22,665 * ( 1 - 0.35) + (depreciation * tax)
= $22,665 * ( 1 - 0.35) + (33,000 * 0.35)
= $14,732.25 + 11,550
= $26,282.25
An investment adviser representative's friend provides him with a list of 10 prospective clients. The representative agrees to pay his friend a referral fee for each person on the list that opens an account with the adviser. Which statement is TRUE
Answer: C. The arrangement is permitted only if it is in writing between the investment adviser and the friend and the arrangement is disclosed in writing to any customer opening an account
Explanation:
The friend in this case will be ruled to be a Solicitor under SEC Rules as they are referring clients to the Investment Adviser for a fee.
As such this business relationship between the friend and the Investment Adviser representative will fall under SEC Rule 206(4)-3 Cash payments for client solicitations. This rule makes it clear amongst other things that the investment adviser will have to prepare a written disclosure document which will inform any customer opening an account of the agreement between the adviser and his friend.
Geese Company utilizes the LIFO retail inventory method. Its cost-to-retail percentage is 60% based on beginning inventory and 64% based on current-period purchases. The company determined that beginning inventory at retail was $200,000 and that during the current period a new layer was added with retail value of $50,000. The cost of ending inventory should be
Answer:
$152,000
Explanation:
Calculation for the cost of the ending inventory
First step is to calculate the cost-to-retail percentage of the beginning inventory amount
Using this formula
Beginning Inventory =Cost-to-retail percentage*Beginning inventory at retail
Let plug in the formula
Beginning Inventory =60%*$200,000
Beginning Inventory =$120,000
Second step is to calculate current-period purchases percentage of the new layer amount
Using this formula
Current period purchases= Purchases percentage* New layer
Let plug in the formula
Current period purchases=64%*50,000
Current period purchases=$32,000
The last step is to find the cost of the ending inventory using this formula
Ending inventory cost=Beginning Inventory+Current period purchases
Let plug in the formula
Ending inventory cost=$120,000+$32,000
Ending inventory cost=$152,000
Therefore the cost of the ending inventory will be $152,000
how will a new front desk manager address a problem of lateness in a hotel.
Answer:
They will have a system like a lot book where they would take in the visitors details and then Mark in or out and time of arrival and leaving
Hope this helps :)
Explanation:
Say the marginal tax rate is 30 percent and that government expenditures do not change with output. Say also that the economy is at potential output and that the deficit is $200 billion.Required:a. What is the size of the cyclical deficit?b. What is the size of the structural deficit?c. How would your answers to a and b change if the deficit was still $200 billion but output was $200 billion below potential?d. How would your answers to a and b change if the deficit was still $200 billion but output was $100 billion above potential?
Answer:
a. The Cyclical deficit refers to the deficit arising from the difference between the potential output and the actual output.
The question assumes that the economy is producing at potential which means actual output equals potential output.
Cyclical Deficit = Tax rate * ( Potential Output - Actual Output)
Cyclical Deficit = 0.3 * 0
Cyclical Deficit = $0
b. Structural deficit occurs even when the economy is at potential because it refers to Government deficits that happen when the economy is experiencing normal activity.
Structural Deficit = Actual deficit - Cyclical deficit
Structural Deficit = 200 billion - 0
Structural Deficit = $200 billion
c. Output is $200 billion below potential
Cyclical Deficit = Tax rate * ( Potential Output - Actual Output)
Cyclical Deficit = 0.3 * 200
Cyclical Deficit = $60 billion
Structural Deficit = Actual deficit - Cyclical deficit
Structural Deficit = 200 billion - 60
Structural Deficit = $140 billion
d. Output is $100 billion above potential
Cyclical Deficit = Tax rate * ( Potential Output - Actual Output)
Cyclical Deficit = 0.3 * -100 as actual is above potential
Cyclical Deficit = -$30 billion
Structural Deficit = Actual deficit - Cyclical deficit
Structural Deficit = 200 billion - (-30)
Structural Deficit = $230 billion
Company expects to sell units of finished product in and units in . The company has units on hand on 1 and desires to have an ending inventory equal to % of the next month's sales. sales are expected to be units. Prepare 's production budget for and .
Complete Question:
Yasmin Company expects to sell 1,900 units of finished product in January and 2,250 units in February. The company has 270 units on hand on 1st January and desires to have an ending inventory equal to 20% of the next month's sales. March sales are expected to be 2,350 units. Prepare Yasmin's production budget for January and February.
Answer:
680 Units for January and 250 units for February.
Explanation:
Production Budget can be calculated using the following formula:
Production Budget = Expected Sales + Desired Ending Inventory Units - Opening Inventory
The formula is reflected in a tabular form below:
Production Budget For Yasmin Incorporation
January February
Expected Future Sales (Unit) 900 250
Add: Desired Ending Inventory Units 50 70
Less: Openning Inventory Units 270 70
Production Units 680 250
Consider a hypothetical closed economy in which households spend $0.65 of each additional dollar they earn and save the remaining $0.35. The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) for this economy is , and the spending multiplier for this economy is .
Answer:
Marginal propensity to consume or MPC = 0.65
Multiplier or k = 2.85714 rounded off to 2.86
Explanation:
The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is the proportion of increased disposable income that consumers spend. It is a metric to quantify the induced consumption and how an increase in consumer spending occurs as a result of increase in income.
MPC is calculated as follows,
MPC = Change in consumer spending / change in income
MPC = 0.65 / 1
MPC = 0.65
To calculate the multiplier, we simply use the following formula,
Multiplier or k = 1 / (1 - MPC)
k = 1 / (1 - 0.65)
k = 2.85714 rounded off to 2.86
The marginal propensity to consume is a measure in economics that quantifies induced consumption, or the idea that private expenditure grows in tandem with disposable income.
The spending power is the amount of expendable cash spent on consumption by individuals.
The answers to the questions in the context are:
Marginal propensity to consume or MPC = 0.65
Multiplier or k = 2.85714 rounded off to 2.86
The proportion of extra discretionary income spent by the customer is defined as the level of consumption (MPC).
It's a statistic for measuring induced consumption, or how an increase in consumer spending occurs as a result of an increase in income.
MPC is calculated as follows,
MPC = [tex]\frac{\text{Change in consumer spending}}{\text{change in income}}[/tex]
MPC = 0.65 / 1
MPC = 0.65
To calculate the multiplier:
Multiplier or k = [tex]\frac{1}{1-MPC}[/tex]
k = [tex]\frac{1}{1-0.65}[/tex]
k = 2.85714 rounded off to 2.86
Therefore,
Marginal propensity to consume or MPC = 0.65
Multiplier or k = 2.85714 rounded off to 2.86
To know more about the calculations of the consumptions and the multiplier, refer to the link below:
https://brainly.com/question/13056771
Granger Inc. Comparative Balance Sheets December 31
Assets 2017 2016
Cash $80,800 $48,400
Accounts receivable 87,800 38,000
Inventory 112,500 102,850
Prepaid expenses 28,400 26,000
Long-term investments 138,000 109,000
Plant assets 285,000 242,500
Accumulated depreciation (50,000) (52,000)
Total $682,500 $514,750
Liabilities and Stockholders' Equity
Accounts payable $102,000 $67,300
Accrued expenses payable 16,500 21,000
Bonds payable 110,000 146,000
Common stock 220,000 175,000
Retained earnings 234,000 105,450
Total $682,500 $514,750
Granger Inc. Income Statement Data For the Year Ended December 31, 2017
Sales revenue $388,460
Less:
Cost of goods sold $135,460
Operating expenses, excluding depreciation 12,410
Depreciation expense 46,500
Income tax expense 27,280
Interest expense 4,730
Loss on disposal of plant assets 7,500 233,880
Net income $154,580
Additional information:
1. New plant assets costing $90,000 were purchased for cash during the year.
2. Old plant assets having an original cost of $51,750 and accumulated depreciation of $43,650 were sold for $1,350 cash.
3. Bonds payable matured and were paid off at face value for cash.
4. A cash dividend of $23,427 was declared and paid during the year.
Required:
Prepare a statement of cash flows for Granger Inc. using the direct method.
Answer:
GRANGER INC.
STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWS (USING INDIRECT METHOD)
FOR THE YEAR ENDED DECEMBER 31, 2017
Particulars Amount$
Cash flow from operating activities
Net Income 154,580
Adjustments to reconcile net income to net cash
provided by operating activities
Adjustment for non cash effects
Depreciation expense 46,500
Loss on sale of plant assets 7,500
Change in operating assets & liabilities
Increase in Accounts receivable -49,800
Increase in inventory -9,650
Increase in prepaid expenses -2,400
Increase in accounts payable 34,700
Decrease in accrued expenses payable -4,500
Net cash flow from operating activities (a) 176,930
Cash Flow from Investing activities
Old Plant assets sold 1,350
New plant assets purchased -90,000
Long-term investments purchased -29,000
Net cash Flow from Investing activities (b) -117,650
Cash Flow from Financing activities
Cash dividends paid -23,427
Common stock issued 45,000
Bonds paid -36,000
Net cash Flow from Financing activities (c) -14,427
Net Change in cash c=a+b+c 44,853
Add: Beginning cash balance 48,400
Closing cash balance 93,253
A company has established 7 pounds of Material J at $2 per pound as the standard for the material in its Product Z. The company has just produced 1,000 units of this product, using 7,200 pounds of Material J that cost $13,080. The direct materials quantity variance is:
Answer:
-$400 unfavorable
Explanation:
The computation of direct materials quantity variance is shown below:-
Direct material quantity variance = (Standard Quantity × Standard Price) - (Actual quantity × Standard price)
= (1,000 × 7 × $2) - (7,200 × $2)
= $14,000 - $14,400
= -$400 unfavorable
Therefore for computing the direct material quantity variance we simply applied the above formula.
Assume you have a margin account with a 50% initial margin. You purchase 100 shares of stock at $80 per share. The price increases to $100 per share. What is the net value of your investment (margin) now
Answer:
Net value of the investment (margin) is $6,000
Explanation:
The initial margin = (100 shares * $80) * 50%
The initial margin = $4,000
Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares* ($100-$80)
Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares * $20
Increase in the Margin value =$2,000
Net value of the investment (margin) = $4,000 + $2,000
Net value of the investment (margin) = $6,000
Find the operating cash flow for the year for Harper Brothers, Inc. if it had sales revenue of , cost of goods sold of , sales and administrative costs of , depreciation expense of , and a tax rate of .
Answer:
$101,960,000
Explanation:
For the computation of operating cash flow first we need to follow some steps which are shown below:-
Step 1
EBIT = Sales - Cost of goods sold - Sales and administrative costs - Depreciation
= $302,100,000 - $135,900,000 - $39,600,000 - $65,000,000
= $61,600,000
Step 2
Net income = EBIT - Tax
= $61,600,000 - ($61,600,000 × 40%)
= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000
= $36,960,000
and finally
Operating cash flow = EBIT - Taxes + Depreciation
= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000 + $65,000,000
= $101,960,000
Which of the following methods is appropriate for a business whose inventory consists of a relatively small number of unique, high-cost items?
a. FIFO
b. average
c. LIFO
d. specific identification
Answer: Specific identification
Hope it is correct
A project has estimated annual net cash flows of $56,600. It is estimated to cost $339,600.
Required:
Determine the cash payback period.
Answer:
It will take exactly 6 full years to cover for the initial investment.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $56,600
Initial investment= 339,600
The payback period is the time required for the cash flow to cover the initial investment:
Year 1= 56,600 - 339,600= -283,000
Year 2= 56,600 - 283,000= -226,400
Year 3= 56,600 - 226,400= -169,800
Year 4= 56,600 - 169,800= -113,200
Year 5= 56,600 - 113,200= -56,600
Year 6= 56,600 - 56,600= 0
It will take exactly 6 full years to cover for the initial investment.
A promotion related to the movie Pacific Rim Uprising was seen in Target stores throughout the United States. The sales promotion was designed to maximize the consumer's attention to a DVD release and provide storage for the products. This type of sales promotion is referred to as a
Answer:
This type of sales promotion is referred to as a Dealer Sales Promotion (Trade Promotion).
Explanation:
The Dealer Sales Promotion, otherwise known as Trade Promotion, is aimed at Dealers, designed to maximize the attention of consumers, and provide storage for the products in Target stores throughout the United States. The promoters want Pacific Rim Uprising to be seen by consumers, so that their attention is galvanized, and to get Target stores to create the space for the DVD upon the film's release, through cooperative advertising. It is not aimed directly at consumers or salespersons, but dealers.
Which method of evaluating capital investment proposals uses present value concepts to compute the rate of return from the net cash flows
Answer:
Internal rate of return
Explanation:
The internal rate of return is that return in which the net present value equivalent to zero
i.e.
Net present value = 0
That means
Initial investment = Present value of cash inflows after charging the discounting factor like 10% 12% etc
So as per the given situation, the internal rate of return is the correct answer
Vaughn Manufacturing is constructing a building. Construction began in 2020 and the building was completed 12/31/20. Vaughn made payments to the construction company of $3114000 on 7/1, $6456000 on 9/1, and $5950000 on 12/31. Weighted-average accumulated expenditures were
Answer:
$3,709,000
Explanation:
7/1 Time weighted amount = $3,114,000 * 6/12 = $1,557,000
9/1 Time weighted amount = $6,456,000 * 4/12 = $2,152,000
12/31 Time weighted amount = $5,950,000 * 0/12 = $0
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = 7/1 Time weighted amount + 9/1 Time weighted amount + 12/31 Time weighted amount
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $1,557,000 + $2,152,000 + 0
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $3,709,000
Your client is 40 years old; and she wants to begin saving for retirement, with the first payment to come one year from now. She can save $5,000 per year; and you advise her to invest it in the stock market, which you expect to provide an average return of 9% in the future.
Answer:
14,000
Explanation:
im smart
1. Noor Patel has had a busy year! She decided to take a cross-country adventure. Along the way, she won a new car on "The Price Is Right" (valued at $15,500) and won $500 on a scratch-off lottery ticket (the first time she ever played). She also signed up for a credit card to start the trip and was given a sign-up bonus of $100. How much will she have to include in her federal taxable income?
2A. What is the amount of taxes for a head of house hold with a taxable income of $57,500 with a rate of 25%?
B. What is the amount of taxes for a single person with a taxable income of $35,000 with a rate of 15%?
C. What is the amount of taxes for a married couple filling jointly with a taxable income of $70,700 with a rate of 15%?
Answer:
1. 16,100
Explanation:
To get how much she would include in her federal taxable income. We would have to add up these values:
The car won on the price is right + scratch off lottery + sign up bonus.
15,500 + 500 + 100
=$16,100
2a.
head of household
0 to 9275 at 10% = 927.5
(37650 - 9275)*15% = 4256.1
(57500 - 37650)*25% = 4962.5
total = 927.5 + 4256.1 + 4962.5
= 10146.1
2b
single person
0 to 9275 at 10% = 927.5
(35000-9275)*10% = 3858.75
total = 927.5 + 3858.75
= 4786.25
2c
for married couple
0 to 18550 at 10% = 1855
(70700-1855)*15% = 7822.5
total = 1855 + 7822.5
=9677.5
Suppose your yearly demand for renting DVDs is Q = 20 − 4P. If there is a rental club that charges $2 per rental plus an annual membership fee, what is the most that you would be willing to pay for the annual membership fee?
Answer:
$12
Explanation:
If P = $2 then the Q will be;
Q = 20 - 4 * 2
Q = 20 - 8
Q = 12
The maximum annual membership fee will be equal to the amount of demand. The annual membership fee cannot be greater than the demand function if so there will be decline in the demand.
All of the following are factors that may complicate capital investment analysis except a.qualitative factors. b.changes in price levels. c.the federal income tax. d.the age of the current fixed assets.
Answer:
Correct Answer:
a.qualitative factors.
Explanation:
Capital investment analysis is the process by which management plans, evaluates, and controls long-term investment decisions involving fixed assets. For example, in a situation where a decision was taken to install new equipment, replace old equipment, and purchase or construct a new building.
Answer:
d.the age of the current fixed assets.
Explanation:
The age of current fixed assets is straight forward since it was set at start of operation based on company`s usage thus within the entity`s control.
However the other factors makes capital investment analysis complex as they are not within the entity`s control.
Jerry deposited $10,000 in a bank account, and 10 years later he closes out the account, which is worth $18,000. The annual rate of interest that Jerry has earned over the 10 years is closest to:
Answer:
r= 6.054% per yearExplanation:
given that
principal P= $10,000
final amount A= $18,000
time t= 10 years
To find the annual rate we will use the formula below and solve for r
[tex]r = [(\frac{A}{P} )^\frac{1}{t} - 1][/tex]
Substituting our data into the expression and solving for r we have
[tex]r = [(\frac{18000}{10000} )^\frac{1}{10} - 1]\\\\r = [(1.8 )^\frac{1}{10} - 1]\\\\r = [(1.8 )^0^.^1 - 1]\\\\r = [(1.8 )^0^.^1 - 1]\\r={1.06054-1}\\\\r= 0.06054[/tex]
Calculate rate of interest in percent
r = 0.06054* 100
r= 6.054% per year
An investment adviser has a soft dollar arrangement with DEF Brokerage Company. An investment adviser representative brings a big new account to the RIA and the account owner tells the IAR to direct 50% of his trades to XYZ Brokerage Company. If execution is not an issue, then the IAR should:
Answer:
The remaining part of the question:
Which statement is TRUE?
A. Because the payment received by the IAR is small, there is no requirement to notify the client of the payment arrangement with the executing broker
B. Because the client has an investment objective of aggressive growth, requiring an active trading strategy, there is no requirement to notify the client of the payment arrangement with the executing broker
C. The IAR must notify the client of the payment arrangement with the executing broker
D. The IAR must notify RIA of the payment arrangement with the executing broker
Correct Answer:
C. The IAR must notify the client of the payment arrangement with the executing broker .
Explanation:
