Answer:
its 1,800,000
because it the answer
The stock of Cooper Corporation is 70% owned by Carole and 30% owned by Carole's brother, Chris. During 2017, Chris transferred property (basis of $100,000 and FMV of $120,000) as a contribution to the capital of Cooper. During February 2018, Cooper adopted a plan of liquidation and subsequently made a pro rata distribution of the property back to Carole and Chris. At the time of the liquidation, the property had an FMV of $80,000. What amount of loss can be recognized by Cooper on the distribution of property?
Answer:
$0
Explanation:
Since 100% of Cooper Corporation's stock were owned by Carole and Chris (who are siblings), then no one can recognize any loss or gain from the contribution of property (nor the distribution of property). Under section 351, no gain or loss can be recognized for the contribution of property in exchange for stocks in a controlled corporation.
Since the contribution was made through a carryover basis transaction less than 5 years before the liquidation, the distribution is carried out in the same way.
c. Assume that neither country experiences population growth or technological progress and that 6 percent of capital depreciates each year. Assume further that country A saves 15 percent of output each year and country B saves 23 percent of output each year. Using your answer from part b and the steady-state condition that investment equals depreciation, find the steady-state level of capital per worker (k∗) , income per worker (y∗) , and consumption per worker (c∗) for each country.
Answer:
Check Explanation.
Explanation:
Note that the production function of bother country = Y=F(K,L) = K L c : k^1/2 L^1/2.
Thus Y/L = b; b = k^1/2 L^1/2/ L.
b = k^1/2.
From the question we are given that L = 6% = 0.06.
Country A saves 15% = 15/100 = 0.15 and country B saves 23% = 23/100 = 0.23.
For country A,
(a). the steady state;
∆k = 0 = y - dk.
0 = 0.15 × k^1/2 - 0.06k.
K^1/2 = 2.5, k* = 6.25
(b). y = K^1/2 = (6.25)^1/2.
y* = 2.5
(c). C = 2.5 - (0.15 × 2.5) = 2.5 - 0.375.
C* = 2.125.
Then, for COUNTRY B.
(a). ∆k = 0 = y - dk.
0 = 0.25 × k^1/2 - 0.06k.
K^1/2 = 4.167, k* = 17.36
(b). y = K^1/2 = (17.36)^1/2.
y* = 4.167.
(c). C = 4.167 - (0.25 × 4.167) = 2.5 - 0.375.
C* = 3.127.
C* = 2.125.
On December 31, 2019, Irey Co. has $3,000,000 of short-term notes payable due on February 14, 2020. On February 8, 2020, Irey borrowed $1,200,000 (long-term loan) from County Bank and used $1,000,000 additional cash to liquidate $2,200,000 of the short-term notes payable. The amount of the short-term notes payable that should be reported as current liabilities on the December 31, 2019 balance sheet which is issued on March 5, 2020 is
Answer:
$1,800,000
Explanation:
Given short term notes payable = $3,000,000
Total amount used to liquidate short term notes = $2,200,000
Balance = $3,000,000 - $2,200,000 = $800,000
The additional $1,200,000 which is borrowed from Country Bank will not increase the short term notes payable because it's a long term credit
The additional $1,000,000 cash used will now be added to the balance amount
Amount to be reported as current liabilities = $1,000,000 + $800,000
= $1,800,000
Therefore the amount of the short-term notes payable that should be reported as current liabilities on the December 31, 2019 balance sheet which is issued on March 5, 2020 is $1,800,000
On March 15, American Eagle declares a quarterly cash dividend of $0.045 per share payable on April 13 to all stockholders of record on March 30.
Required:
Record American Eagle's declaration and payment of cash dividends for its 226 million shares. (If no entry is required for a particular transaction/event, select "No Journal Entry Required" in the first account field. Enter your answers in dollars, not in millions (i.e. $5.5 should be entered as 5,500,000).)
Answer and Explanation:
The journal entries are shown below:
On March 15
Dividend Dr $10,170,000 (226 million shares × $0.045 per share)
To Dividend payable $10,170,000
(Being the dividend is declared)
For recording this we debited the dividend as it increased the balance of dividend and credited the dividend payable as it increased the liabilities
On March 30
No journal entry is required for recording of dividend
On April 13
Dividend payable $10,170,000
To cash $10,170,000
For recording this we debited the dividend payable as it decreased the liabilities and credited the cash as it reduced the assets
(Being the dividend payable is recorded)
The following units of an item were available for sale during the year: Beginning inventory 8,100 units at $180 Sale 5,300 units at $300 First purchase 15,000 units at $185 Sale 13,000 units at $300 Second purchase 16,000 units at $192 Sale 14,000 units at $300 The firm uses the perpetual inventory system, and there are 6,800 units of the item on hand at the end of the year. a. What is the total cost of the ending inventory according to FIFO? $ b. What is the total cost of the ending inventory according to LIFO?
Answer:
a. $1,305,600
b. $1,258,000
Explanation:
FIFO - Assumes that the first goods received by the business will be first ones to be delivered to the final customer
FIFO Inventory = 6,800 units × $ 192 = $1,305,600
LIFO - Assumes that the last goods purchased are the first ones to be issued to the final customer
LIFO Inventory = 2,800 units × $180 = $ 504,000
2,000 units × $185 = $ 370,000
2,000 units × $ 192 = $ 384,000
Total = $1,258,000
To encourage employee ownership of the company's common shares, KL Corp. permits any of its employees to buy shares directly from the company through payroll deduction. There are no brokerage fees and shares can be purchased at a 12% discount. During May, employees purchased 10,000 shares at a time when the market price of the shares on the New York Stock Exchange was $12 per share. KL will record compensation expense associated with the May purchases of:
Answer:
Dr Cash 105,600
Dr Compensation Expense 14,400
Cr Common Stock 10,000
Cr Paid-In Capital – Excess of Par 110,000
Explanation:
KL Corp Journal entry
Dr Cash 105,600
Dr Compensation Expense 14,400 (10,000*12*12%)
Cr Common Stock 10,000 (10,000*1)
Cr Paid-In Capital – Excess of Par 110,000
(10,000*(12-1))
Galla Inc. needs to determine a price for a new product. Galla desires a 25% markup on the total cost of the product. Galla expects to sell 6420 units. Additional information is as follows: Variable product cost per unit $ 23 Variable administrative cost per unit 25 Total fixed overhead 46,500 Total fixed administrative 30,540 Using the total cost method what price should Galla charge?
Answer:
The price Galla should charge is $75
Explanation:
Solution
Now
The total cost = variable product cost + variable administrative cost + fixed overhead + fixed administrative
= ($23 * 6,420) + ($25 * 6,420) + $46,500 + $30,540
= $147,660 + $160,500 + $46,500 + $30,540
= $385,200
Thus,
The total cost per unit = Total cost / units
= $385,200 / 6,420 units
= $60
Hence
The selling price should charge = Cost per unit * 1.25
= $60 * 1.25
= $75
• Why has the stock market declined so much?
We need a passage or something. not just the question
Southern Rim Parts estimates its manufacturing overhead to be $318,000 and its direct labor costs to be $1,060,000 for year 1. The first three jobs that Southern Rim worked on had actual direct labor costs of $65,000 for Job 301, $90,000 for Job 302, and $175,000 for Job 303. For the year, actual manufacturing overhead was $399,000 and total direct labor cost was $834,000. Manufacturing overhead is applied to jobs on the basis of direct labor costs using predetermined rates.Required:a. How much overhead was assigned to each of the three jobs, 301, 302, and 303?b. What was the over- or underapplied manufacturing overhead for year 1?
Answer:
a. Job 301 = $19,500
Job 302 = $27,000
Job 303 = $52,500
b. Overhead applied for the year = $250,200
Under-applied overhead = $148,800
Explanation:
a. The computation of overhead was assigned to each of the three jobs, 301, 302, and 303 is shown below:-
Overhead application rate = Budgeted Overhead ÷ Application Base
Application base = Budgeted Overhead ÷ Budgeted Direct Labor costs
= $318,000 ÷ $1,060,000
= 0.3
Overhead assignment to jobs = Budgeted rate × Labor Cost
Job 301
= 0.3 × $65,000
= $19,500
Job 302
= 0.3 × $90,000
= $27,000
Job 303
= 0.3 × $175,000
= $52,500
b. The computation of over- or underapplied manufacturing overhead for year 1 is shown below:-
Overhead applied for the year = Total direct labor cost × Overhead rate
= $834,000 × 0.3
= $250,200
Under-applied overhead = Actual overhead - Applied overhead
= $399,000 - $250,200
= $148,800
Wayne Industries is building a new prototype riding lawnmower especially for women. The marketing strategy for the product has been developed and presented. The lawnmower is now being tested rigorously. This step will ensure that the product meets all the CPSC product specifications and leaves little chance for any product liability issues. Which step int he new product development process is this?
A) After this stage, no changes can be made in any aspect of the product design, features, or composition.
B) At this stage, the functional features and the intended psychological characteristics are combined.
C) The new product at this stage can be distributed through a full-scale roll-out immediately.
D) The new lawnmower is at the introductory stage of the lifecycle.
E) The new-product idea is at the last stage of the development process.
Answer:
The answer is option E) The new-product idea is at the last stage of the development process.
Explanation:
The are several stages in the development of a new product idea. Beginning with initial idea generation all the way to the final evaluation stage.
The new prototype riding lawnmower especially for women designed by Wayne Industries is at the last stage of the development process.
The last stage of the development process also known as the Evaluation phase is characterized by:
Presenting the marketing strategy developed for the product.ensuring that the product meets all the CPSC product specifications and leaves little chance for any product liability issues.On December 12, 2021, an investment in equity securities costing $77,000 was sold for $94,000. The total of the sale proceeds was credited to the investment in equity securities account. Required: 1. Prepare the journal entry to correct the error, assuming it is discovered before the books are adjusted or closed in 2021. (Ignore income taxes.) 2. Prepare the journal entry to correct the error assuming it is not discovered until early 2022. (Ignore income taxes.)
Answer:
1.
Dr. Investment Account $17,000
Cr. Gain on Sale $17,000
2.
Dr. retained Earning $17,000
Cr. Gain on Sale $17,000
Explanation:
1.
If an assets is sold more than the book value, then there is a gain on the sales of asset.
Gain on Sale = Sales Proceeds - Book value of Investment = $94,000 - $77,000 = $17,000
As sales proceeds of $94,000 are credited in the Investment account, which needs to be credited by $77,000 only. The excessive amount of $17,000 should be recorded in the Gain on sale account.
2.
Error is not discovered until 2022 and earning for 2021 was transferred to retained earning. So, adjustment should me made in the retained earnings to eliminate the effect.
Samco signed a 5-year note payable on January 1, 2018, of $ 475 comma 000. The note requires annual principal payments each December 31 of $ 95 comma 000 plus interest at 9%. The entry to record the annual payment on December 31, 2021, includes A. a debit to Interest Expense for $ 17 comma 100. B. a debit to Interest Expense for $ 42 comma 750. C. a credit to Cash of $ 137 comma 750. D. a credit to Notes Payable for $ 95 comma 000.
Answer:
Option A, a debit to Interest Expense for $ 17 comma 100 is correct
Explanation:
The principal amount on 1st January 2021 needs to be established since that would be the amount left after 2018,2019,2020 principals have been repaid
Principal at 1st January 2021=$475,000-($95,000*3)=$190000
Interest on principal in 2021=$190000 *9%=$17100
Total repayment in 2021=principal plus interest=$95,000+$17,100=$ 112,100.00
The $95,000 would be a debit to notes payable not credit hence option is wrong.
Only option A,a debit of $17,100 to interest expense is correct
Consider the following estimates from the early 2010s of shares of income to each group. Country Poorest 40% Next 30% Richest 30% Bolivia 10 25 65 Chile 10 20 70 Uruguay 20 30 50 1.) Using the 4-point curved line drawing tool, plot the Lorenz curve for Bolivia. Properly label your curve. 2.) Using the 4-point curved line drawing tool, plot the Lorenz curve for Uruguay. Properly label your curve. Carefully follow the instructions above, and only draw the required objects. Which country has the most nearly equal income distribution? ▼ Chile Uruguay Bolivia .
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
Kindly check the attached images below to see the step by step explanation to the question above.
You should meet with your academic adviser at least once a __________.
Group of answer choices
Answer:
Once a Semester
Explanation:
Advisors can help you decide if you want to minor in something, and what the requirements are. They can ensure you're odds of graduating in four years is on track, or give you special permissions to take certain classes.
Scenario 28-1 Suppose that the Bureau of Labor Statistics reports that the entire adult population of Mankiwland can be categorized as follows: 25 million people employed, 3 million people unemployed, 1 million discouraged workers, and 1 million people who are either students, homemakers, retirees, or other people not seeking employment. Refer to Scenario 28-1. What is the unemployment rate?
Answer:
10.7%
Explanation:
Solution:
Recall that:
The Reports from Bureau of labor statistics is shown as follows:
Employed people = 25 million
Unemployed people = 3 million
Discouraged workers = 1 million
Workers or Homemakers or retirees, or students = 1 million
The next step from this scenario is to find out the unemployment rate
Now,
The rate of unemployed = (unemployed x 100 ) / labor force
= 300/28
=10.7%
Assume the following: WIP, beginning 2 comma 500 units (100% complete as to direct materials, 50% complete as to conversion costs) Started 10 comma 500 units during the period Total spoilage is 700 with normal spoilage is calculated to be 550 units Completed and transferred out during the period 6 comma 000 units WIP, ending 6 comma 300 units (100% complete as to direct materials, 60% complete as to conversion costs) Spoiled units 700 and inspection happens when the process is 20% complete All materials are added at the start of the process Under the weighted average method, would would be the equivalent units of work done for the period? A. 9 comma 920 B. 10 comma 190 C. 6 comma 000 D. 6 comma 300
Answer:
B. 10 comma 190
Or none of the given
Explanation:
Particulars Units % of Completion Equivalent Units
Materials Conversion Materials Conversion
Transferred 6000 100 100 6000 6000
+Ending WIP 6300 100 60 6300 3780
+Normal Spoilage 550 100 60 550 330
+Abnormal
Spoilage 150 100 60 150 90
Total 13000 10200
As we see the total weighted Equivalent units for materials are 13000
and for conversion are 10200 . So the correct choice would be 10190 that is choice B which the nearest answer of the choices given to the answer calculated .
Under weighted method the Transferred out units are added to the ending work in process and the normal and abnormal spoilage is also added to find the equivalent units of production.
The other answer would be none of the given choices if exact figures are to be matched.
Bob, Kara, and Mark are partners in the BKM Partnership. Bob is a 40% partner and has a June 30 tax yearminus−end. Kara owns a 40% interest in the partnership and has a September 30 tax yearminus−end, and Mark owns the remaining 20% interest and has an October 31 tax yearminus−end. The partnership does not have a natural business year. What is the required tax yearminus−end for the partnership (if no Sec. 444 election is made)? A. September 30 B. October 31 C. December 31 D. June 30
Answer:
D. June 30
Explanation:
Since no Sec. 444 election is made, the required tax yearmius-end for the partnership will be the tax yearminus−end of a partner with at least 40% interest.
Since Bob is a 40% partner and has a June 30 tax yearminus−end, therefore, the required tax yearminus−end for the partnership is June 30.
Great Adventures Problem
[The following information applies to the questions displayed below.]
Tony and Suzie see the need for a rugged all-terrain vehicle to transport participants and supplies. They decide to purchase a used Suburban on July 1, 2022, for $15,600. They expect to use the Suburban for five years and then sell the vehicle for $6,300. The following expenditures related to the vehicle were also made on July 1, 2022:_________.
1. The company pays $2,700 to GEICO for a one-year insurance policy.
2. The company spends an extra $6,600 to repaint the vehicle, placing the Great Adventures logo on the front hood, back, and both sides. An additional $2,900 is spent on a deluxe roof rack and a trailer hitch.
3. The painting, roof rack, and hitch are all expected to increase the future benefits of the vehicle for Great Adventures. In addition, on October 22, 2022, the company pays $2,200 for basic vehicle maintenance related to changing the oil, replacing the windshield wipers, rotating the tires, and inserting a new air filter.
Great Adventures
4. Record the depreciation expense and any other adjustments related to the vehicle on December 31, 2022. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No Journal Entry Required" in the first account field.)
Answer and Explanation:
The Journal entry is shown below:-
Amount should be capitalized for new vehicle = Cost + Painting and new logo cost + Deluxe Roof rack and trailer hitch
= $15,600 + $6,600 + $2,900
= $25,100
We took the cost of painting and deluxe roof and trailer hitch costs into account as they are supposed to increase the vehicle's future benefits.
Depreciation = (Cost - Salvage Value) ÷ Number of Years
= ($25,100 - $6,300) ÷ 5
= $3,760 per year
In the year 2022 vehicle is used only for 6 months (July to Dec), depreciation expense for the year ended December 31, 2022 is
= $3,760 × 6 ÷ 12
= $1,880
So, the Journal entry is
Depreciation expense Dr, $1,880
To Accumulated Depreciation $1,880
(Being depreciation provided for the year 2022 is recorded)
Therefore for recording the depreciation provided for the year 2022 we simply debited the depreciation expenses while we credited the accumulated depreciation.
The journal entry will include a depreciation account as well as accumulated depreciation.
What is depreciation?Depreciation can be defined as the amount deducted from the asset because of the wear and tear of the asset after its use Which will reduce the price of the asset.
Capitalization for a new car should be calculated as follows: Cost + Painting and Logo Cost + Deluxe Roof Rack and Trailer Hitch
= $15,600 + $6,600 + $2,900
= $25,100
We factored in the price of the painting, a luxurious roof, and a trailer hitch because such expenses should raise the car's potential future value.
Depreciation is calculated as (Cost - Salvage Value) x Years.
= ($25,100 - $6,300) ÷ 5
= $3,760 annually
For the year ending December 31, 2022, the depreciation expense for the automobile operated for only 6 months (July to December) is
= $3,760 × 6 ÷ 12
= $1,880
The journal entry is therefore
depreciation costs (dr.) $1,880
accumulated depreciation $1,880
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Oriole Tire Co. just paid an annual dividend of $1.70 on its common shares. If Oriole is expected to increase its annual dividend by 3.10 percent per year into the foreseeable future and the current price of Oriole’s common shares is $19.65, what is the cost of common stock for Oriole? (Round intermediate calculations to 4 decimal places, e.g. 0.1555 and final answer to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25%.)
Answer:
Cost of common stock is 12.02%
Explanation:
The cost of common stock can be computed from share price formula given below:
share price=do*(1+g)/r-g
do is the dividend just paid which is $1.70
g is the expected dividend growth per year which is 3.10%
r is the cost of common stock which is unknown
share price is $19.65
by changing the subject of the formula:
r=do*(1+g)/share price+g
r=1.70*(1+3.10%)/19.65+3.10%
r=1.7527/19.65+3.10%
r=0.0892+3.10%=12.02%
The company's cost of capital which is also the cost of common stock is 12.02%
Cawley Company makes three models of tasers. Information on the three products is given below.Tingler Shocker Stunner Sales $296,000 $504,000 $200,000 Variable expenses 145,000 190,000 135,000 Contribution margin 151,000 314,000 65,000 Fixed expenses 114,840 225,160 92,000 Net income $36,160 $88,840 $(27,000) Fixed expenses consist of $290,000 of common costs allocated to the three products based on relative sales, as well as direct fixed expenses unique to each model of $29,000 (Tingler), $79,000 (Shocker), and $34,000 (Stunner). The common costs will be incurred regardless of how many models are produced. The direct fixed expenses would be eliminated if that model is phased out.James Watt, an executive with the company, feels the Stunner line should be discontinued to increase the company’s net income.
(a) Compute current net income for Cawley Company. Net income $ ______
(b) Compute net income by product line and in total for Cawley Company if the company discontinues the Stunner product line. (Hint: Allocate the $290,000 common costs to the two remaining product lines based on their relative sales.)
Tingler Net Income $ _______
Shocker Net Income $ _______
Total Net Income $ _______
(c) Should Cawley eliminate the Stunner product line?
Why or why not?
Net income would _____ from $ ______to $ ________.
Answer:
Cawley Company
a) Current Net Income
Tingler Shocker Stunner Total
Sales $296,000 $504,000 $200,000 $1,000,000
Variable Costs 145,000 190,000 135,000 470,000
Contribution 151,000 314,000 65,000 530,000
Fixed Expenses 114,840 225,160 92,000 432,000
Net Income 36,160 88,840 (27,000) 98,000
b) Net Income by product line with Stunner discontinued:
Tingler Shocker Total
Sales $296,000 $504,000 $800,000
Variable Costs 145,000 190,000 335,000
Contribution 151,000 314,000 465,000
Fixed Expenses 136,300 261,700 398,000
Net Income 14,700 52,300 67,000
c1) Cawley should not eliminate the Stunner product line.
c2) Net income would decrease from $98,000 to $67,000 if the Stunner product line is eliminated.
Explanation:
a) The decision to be made is whether to eliminate a product line or not. In making such decisions, the relevant costs to be considered are avoidable costs. Allocated fixed costs are unavoidable and should not be taken into account.
b) Stunner makes a Net Income of $31,000 without the allocated common fixed expenses. This shows that the allocated common fixed expenses is actually causing Stunner to record Net Loss. And when Stunner is eliminated the company is not better off.
c) Allocation of Fixed Expenses based on Sales:
Tingler = 296/800 * $290,000 = $107,300 Plus direct cost of $29,000 = $136,300
Shocker = 504/800 * $290,000 = $182,700 Plus direct of of $79,000 = $261,700
The following information was drawn from the balance sheets of the Kansas and Montana companies: Kansas Montana Current assets $ 59,000 $ 78,000 Current liabilities 40,000 43,000 Required a. Compute the current ratio for each company. b. Which company has the greater likelihood of being able to pay its bills? c. Assume that both companies have the same amount of total assets. Speculate as to which company would produce the higher return-on-assets ratio.
Answer:
a) Current ratio for Kansas company is 1.475
Current ratio for Montana company is 1.814
b) Since the current ratio for the Montana company is more than that of the Kansas company which shows better liquidity, the Montana company has the greater likelihood of being able to pay its bills.
c) Kansas company would produce the higher return-on-assets ratio.
Explanation:
Current Assets Current liabilities
Kansas Company $ 59,000 $ 40,000
Montana Company $ 78,000 $ 43,000
a) To calculate the current ratio of A company
Current ratio = [tex]\frac{Current Assets}{Current Liabilities}[/tex]
Therefore current ratio for Kansas company = $ 59,000 ÷ $ 40,000 = 1.475
Current ratio for Montana company = $ 78,000 ÷ $ 43,000 = 1.814
Who has the comparative advantageLOADING... in producing oil? A. Norway has a comparative advantage producing oil because its opportunity cost of producing oil is lower. B. Neither country has a comparative advantage producing oil because their opportunity costs of producing oil are equal. C. The United Kingdom has a comparative advantage producing oil because its opportunity cost of producing oil is lower. D. Norway has a comparative advantage producing oil because it can produce more oil. E. The United Kingdom has a comparative advantage producing oil because it can produce more oil.
Answer:
The answer is option D) Norway has a comparative advantage producing oil because it can produce more oil.
Explanation:
Norway currently produces 1,398 thousand barrels of crude oil per day. At this capacity, it can produce more oil in comparison to United Kingdom that produces 1000 thousand barrels per day.
This statistics gives Norway a comparative advantage over United Kingdom.
Also comparing the consumption rate for both countries with Norway having a population of 5,421,241 which is far less than 66, 650,000 of the United Kingdom, shows that Norway will have enough to cater for her citizens as well as for exports.
On January 1, Gemstone Company obtained a $165,000, 10-year, 7% installment note from Guarantee Bank. Thenote requires annual payments of $23,492, with the first payment occurring on the last day of the fiscal year. The firstpayment consists of interest of $11,550 and principal repayment of $11,942. The journal entry to record the issuance of the installment note for cash on January 1 would include a:_____
Answer:
Credit to notes payable for $165000
Explanation:
Journal entries for issuance of Note Payable :
Cash Account ..... Debit $165000
7% Note payable Accounts .... Credit $165000
Note:
Note payable is a liability so it is credited as on date of issuance.
Now consider the case in which the manufacturer offers a marginal unit quantity discount for the plywood. The first 20,000 square feet of any order are sold at $1 per square foot, the next 20,000 square feet are sold at $0.98 per square foot, and any quantity larger than 40,000 square feet is sold for $0.96 per square foot. What is the optimal lot size for Prefab given this pricing structure? How much cycle inven
Answer:
Explanation:
We can use the following method to solve the given problem
We are given following
Annual demand,
D = 20000*12
D = 240,000 sqft
Fixed order cost, is given as
S = $ 400
Considering the unit cost, is given as
C = $ 1
Holding cost, H = 1*20% = $ 0.2
EOQ = sqrt(2DS/H)
= √(2*240000*400/0.2)
= 30,984 sq ft
This is higher than 20,000 and less than 40,000 sq ft. For this reason, the applicable price for this quantity is $ 0.98
For C = $ 0.98, holding cost, H = 0.98*20% = $ 0.196
Revised EOQ = sqrt(2*240000*400/0.196) = 31,298 sq ft
Total annual cost of EOQ policy = D*C + H*Q/2 + S*D/Q
= 240000*0.98 + 0.196*31298/2 + 400*240000/31298
= $ 241,334.5
Now consider the next level of price, C = $ 0.96
Holding cost, H = 0.96*20% = $ 0.192
EOQ = sqrt(2*240000*400/0.192)
= 31633 sqft
This amount is will not be feasible for this price, because it requires a minimum order of 40000 sqft.
Therefore, Q = 40,000
Total annual cost = 240000*0.96 + 0.192*40000/2 + 400*240000/40000
Total annual cost = $ 236,640
Total annual cost is lowest for order quantity of 40,000 sq ft.
1) Optimal lot size = 40,000 sq ft.
2) the annual cost of this policy
= $ 236,640
3) the cycle inventory of plywood at Prefab = Q/2 = 40000/2
At prefeb= 20,000 sq ft
4) let's assume the manufacturer sells all plywood at $ 0.96, then
Holding cost, H = 0.96*20%
H= $ 0.192
EOQ = sqrt(2*240000*400/0.192)
EOQ = 31633 sqft
Total annual cost = 240000*0.96 + 0.192*31633/2 + 400*240000/31633
Total annual cost = $ 236,471.6
Difference in total annual cost = 236640 - 236471.6 = $ 168.4
Grab Manufacturing Co. purchased a 10-ton draw press at a cost of $183,000 with terms of 4/15, n/45. Payment was made within the discount period. Shipping costs were $4,300, which included $270 for insurance in transit. Installation costs totaled $12,900, which included $3,700 for taking out a section of a wall and rebuilding it because the press was too large for the doorway. The capitalized cost of the 10-ton draw press is: Multiple Choice $192,880. $190,880. $196,380. $197,880.
Answer:
$192,880
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
Cost of 10-ton draw press is $183,000 and if the cost paid before 15 days, there will be a 4% discount.
Discount Value is
= Cost of Draw Press × Discount Rate
= $183,000 × 4%
= $7,320
Total Capitalized Amount is
= (Total Cost of Draw Press - Discount Value) + Shipping Cost + Installation Cost
= ($183,000 - $7,320) + $4,300 + $12,900
= $175,680 + $4,300 + $12,900
= $192,880
According to the analysis, the capitalized cost of the 10-ton draw press is $192,880.
Because any cost which incurred for using an asset should be capitalized.
Contribution Margin Variance, Contribution Margin Volume Variance, Market Share Variance, Market Size Variance Sulert, Inc., produces and sells gel-filled ice packs. Sulert’s performance report for April follows: Actual Budgeted Units sold 290,000 300,000 Sales $1,450,000 $1,515,000 Variable costs 652,500 636,300 Contribution margin $ 797,500 $ 878,700 Market size (in units) 1,250,000 1,200,000 Required: 1. Calculate the contribution margin variance and the contribution margin volume variance. In your computations, round the contribution margin per unit to three decimal places. Contribution margin variance $ Unfavorable Contribution margin volume variance $ Unfavorable 2. Calculate the market share variance and the market size variance. In your computations, round the unit contribution margin to three decimal places and round the market share percentage to one decimal place (for example, .8439 would be rounded to 84.4%). Round your final answers to the nearest dollar. (CMA adapted) Market share variance $ Unfavorable Market size variance $ Favorable
Answer:
1. Market share variance= $65,903(Unfavorable)
2. Market size variance= $36,613(favourable)
Check attachment for the table
Margie Company produces a single product and has provided the following data concerning its most recent month of operations: Selling price $ 88 Units in beginning inventory 0 Units produced 5,200 Units sold 4,900 Units in ending inventory 300 Variable costs per unit: Direct materials $ 12 Direct labor $ 23 Variable manufacturing overhead $ 2 Variable selling and administrative expense $ 5 Fixed costs: Fixed manufacturing overhead $ 161,200 Fixed selling and administrative expense $ 63,700 The total contribution margin for the month under variable costing is:
Answer:
$225,400
Explanation:
The computation of total contribution margin under variable costing is shown below:-
Sales (4900 × $88) $431,200
Less:Variable cost
Direct material (4900 × $12) ($58,800)
Direct labor (4900 × 23) ($112,700)
Variable manufacturing overhead
(4900 × 2) ($9,800)
Variable selling and administrative
expenses (4900 × $5) ($24,500)
Total variable expenses ($205,800)
Contribution margin $225,400
Therefore the total contribution margin under variable costing is $225,400
Which of the following is false? Economists who advocate discretionary monetary policy argue that it is more likely to achieve the desired economic results because the monetary authority has the flexibility to shape the best monetary policy to the existing circumstances. Here is an example of zero crowding out: The government spends $100 more and the private sector doesn’t spend any less. Here is an example of complete crowding out: The government spends $100 more and the private sector spends $100 less. Not all economists believe that rule-based monetary policy is preferable to discretionary monetary policy. none of the above
Answer: None of the above
Explanation:
All of the above are correct.
For option A, Economists who advocate discretionary monetary policy do indeed believe that the monetary authority using this policy is more flexible to shape the best monetary policy to the existing circumstances.
Option B is also correct because Crowding out occurs when the government increases investment by borrowing which leaves less money for the private sector to borrow so they spend less. The government spent money here yet the private sector did not spend less so it is Zero Crowing out.
Option C by option B's explanation holds true because the entire amount the Government increased by was denied the private sector.
Option D is also true as not all Economists prefer rule-based monetary policy to discretionary monetary policy.
They are all true.
Managers must chart a company's strategic course by Multiple Choice ensuring excess production capacity and/or inventory. building a bigger dealer network. ensuring that marketing and promotion programs are state-of-the-art. developing a thorough understanding of the company's external and internal environments. competing fiercely for a share in the market.
Answer:
The correct answer is the fourth option: developing a thorough understanding of the company's external and internal environments.
Explanation:
To begin with, in order to understand that a company's strategy must be guided by thorough understanding of its external and internal environments it is necessary to understand that the system proposed is formed by several factors that influence it and therefore that a manager must study carefully those factors and that system in order to guide the company to a successful work and accomplish the goals by using a strategy that compresses all the information about those factors.
Your aunt is about to retire, and she wants to sell some of her stock and buy an annuity that will provide her with income of $53,000 per year for 30 years, beginning a year from today. The going rate on such annuities is 7.25%. How much would it cost her to buy such an annuity today
Answer:
Present Value= $641,494.12
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $53,000 per year
Number of years= 30 years
Interest rate= 7.25%
First, we need to calculate the final value of the annuity:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual flow
FV= {53,000*[(1.0725^30)-1]} / 0.0725
FV= $5,237,351.32
Now, we can determine the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 5,237,351.32/ (1.0725^30)
PV= $641,494.12
