Answer:
hurt, benefit
Explanation:
The basis in a future contract is defined as the difference between the spot price of the asset in the cash market and the price of the same assets future contract.
A short hedge is an investment strategy that is used to protect hedge, against the risk of future decline in asset price or basically to hedge against potential losses by selling at a determined rate. This means that when one is in possession of a commodity and in order to protect against a decline, in the market, you sell (go short) the future contract , while long hedge is when you anticipate a need for the underlying commodity in the future. It means that to protect against an increase in the market price, you buy (go long) the future contract. Then when you are ready to buy the commodity, any increase in the market price is offset by your gain on the future contract.
The above means that where an asset and a contract are liquidated before due dates , there would be basis risk hence both the future and spot price need not move in lockstep before delivery date. This means that a decrease in the basis will benefit the short hedger and hurt the long hedger.
TB MC Qu. 8-187 The Charade Corporation is preparing its ... The Charade Corporation is preparing its Manufacturing Overhead budget for the fourth quarter of the year. The budgeted variable manufacturing overhead is $5 per direct labor-hour; the budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead is $95,000 per month, of which $17,000 is factory depreciation. If the budgeted direct labor time for November is 9,000 hours, then the total budgeted manufacturing overhead for November is:
Answer:
Allocated MOH= 140,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The budgeted variable manufacturing overhead is $5 per direct labor-hour
The budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead is $95,000 per mont
The budgeted direct labor time for November is 9,000 hours
To allocate overhead, we need to use the following formula:
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= (5*9,000) + 95,000
Allocated MOH= 140,000
In a(n) _____ decision, there may be several "right" answers, and there is no precise way to get a right answer. A. recurring B. ad hoc C. nonstructured D. structured
Answer:
C. nonstructured
Explanation:
-Recurring decision refers to a decision that has to be made regularly.
-Ad hoc decision refers to a decision made for a specific situation.
-Nonstructured decision is a decision that can have multiple solutions that are correct and you don't have a form to define which one is the right option.
-Structured decision is when you make a decision using a process that has been established to manage a specific situation.
According to this, the answer is that in a(n) nonstructured decision, there may be several "right" answers, and there is no precise way to get a right answer.
Bramble Corp. purchased equipment for $48800. Sales tax on the purchase was $2928. Other costs incurred were freight charges of $732, repairs of $427 for damage during installation, and installation costs of $813. What is the cost of the equipment
Answer:
Cost of equipment = $52,887
Explanation:
According to International Accounting Standards (IAS) 16, property plants and equipment, the cost of land includes all of the cost necessary to bring and make it ready for the intended use.
These costs include purchase cost, fees and commission associated with the purchase transaction.
Here in this question the installation cost, sales taxes and repairs slab all fall within the definition of IAS 16
Hence cost of the equipment
48,800 + 2,928 + 732 + 427 = $52,887
Cost of equipment = $52,887
assume the following information about the market and JumpMaster's stock. JumpMaster's beta = 1.50, the risk free rate 2%, the market risk premium is 10.0%. Using CAPM, what is the expected return for JumpMaster's stock?
Answer:
Expected market return = 17%
Explanation:
Given the Jump master’s beta = 1.50
Risk free rate = 2%
Market risk premium = 10%
To find the expected return we have to use the below formula.
Expected market return = Riskfree rate + Beta × Market risk premium
Now insert all the values in order to get the expected market return.
Expected market return = 2 + 1.50 × 10
Expected market return = 17%
true or false: a supply curve describes how much a producer of services are willing to sell at different prices
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The supply curve is a graph showing the quantities of a good or service a supplier is willing and able to supply at differnt prices.
According to the law of supply. the higher the price, the higher the quantity supplied and the lower the price, the lower the quantity supplied.
the supply curve is upward sloping
In the context of early advertising, the invention of the _____ made advertising via posters, handbills, and signs possible.
Answer:
The printing press.
Explanation:
The printing press and its form of works are known to be an early age form that have been used and still in use for advertising. Advertisements of this form are seen in form of newspapers or magazines and are sometimes included as brochures or fliers. Write ups used in the print media to grab the attention of the specific target audience comes under the purview of print advertising.
Newspapers readers and also other publications methods have a tendency to browse the print ads that they come across. Moves to purchase these products could possibly not be instantaneous, but it does settle down in their subconscious mind. Next time they see the product in the market, they are tempted to buy it.
Charlie hopes to accumulate $83,000 in a savings account in 10 years. If he wishes to make a single deposit today and the bank pays 3 percent compounded annually on deposits of this size, how much should Charlie deposit in the account
Answer:
PV= $61,759.80
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Future value (FV)= $83,000
Number of years (n)= 10 years
Interest rate (i)= 3% compounded annually
To calculate the initial deposit, we need to use the following formula:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 83,000 / (1.03^10)
PV= $61,759.80
As an American investor, you are trying to calculate the present value of a £25 million cash flow that will occur one year in the future. You know that the spot exchange rate is S= $1.9397/ £ and one-year forward rate is F= $1.9581/ £. You also know that the appropriate dollar cost of capital for this cash flow is 6.25% and that the appropriate pound cost of capital for this cash flow is 5.25%. a) What is the present value of the £25 million cash flow from the standpoint of a British investor, and what is the dollar equivalent of this amount? b) What is the present value of the £25 million cash flow from the standpoint of a U.S. investor who first converts the £25 million into dollars and then applies the dollar discount rate?
Answer:
1. Present value in pound=$23,752,969
Dollar equivalent=$46,073,634
2.Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$48,952,500
Present value in pound=$46,072,918
Explanation:
1a.Calculation for present value of the £25 million cash flow
Using this formula
Present value in pound =cash flow*(1/1+Cash flow cost of capital)^ One year in the future
Let plug in the formula
Present value in pound=$25,000,000*(1/1+0.0525)^1
Present value in pound=$25,000,000*(1/1.0525)^1
Present value in pound=$25,000,000*0.950119
Present value in pound=$23,752,969
1b.Calculation for the dollar equivalent of this amount
Using this formula
Dollar equivalent=Present value in pound*Spot exchange rate
Let plug in the formula
Dollar equivalent=$23,752,969*$1.9397
Dollar equivalent=$46,073,634
2a. Calculation for the Dollar equivalent for U.S investors
Using this formula
Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=Cash flow*one-year forward rate
Let plug in the formula
Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$25,000,000*$1.9581
Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$48,952,500
2b. Calculation for the present value of the £25 million cash flow from the standpoint of a U.S. investor .
Using this formula
Present value in pound =Cash flow*(1/1+Cash flow cost of capital)^ One year in the future
Let plug in the formula
Present value in pound=$48,952,500*(1/1.0625)^1
Present value in pound=$48,952,500*0.941176
Present value in pound=$46,072,918
Therefore the Present value in pound for question 1 is $23,752,969 while the Dollar equivalent is $46,073,634.
The Dollar equivalent for U.S investors in question 2 is $48,952,500 while the Present value in pound is $46,072,918
Identify at least two challenges that Salesforce faces and explain why these are important challenges to Salesforce.
Answer:
Two challenges that Salesforce may face today:
1. Competitions
2. Cash Flows
Explanation:
1. Salesforce has been the global Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) provider for Customer Relationship Management (CRM) system. However, they are challenged by new market joiners such as Hubspot. There are also new startups offering free and simple cloud-based CRM systems that targetting small businesses. The entry of the new competitors seriously threatens the leading market share of Salesforce.
2. The current pandemic affected negatively to all enterprises, including Salesforce's outstanding customers. They should expect a drop in their total number of fee payers while the cost to maintain their high product standard is still the same as before. It may give them a lot of working capital headaches.
A company reported that its bonds with a par value of $50,000 and a carrying value of $57,500 are retired for $60,600 cash, resulting in a loss of $3,100. The amount to be reported under cash flows from financing activities is:
Answer:
The amount this company would report under cash flows from financing activities is $60,600.
Explanation:
These cash flows of $60,600 represent the actual cash outflows, an amount that bondholders would receive from the company in retirement of the bonds. The statement of cash flows records the actual cash inflows and outflows of a company transactions during a particular accounting period. Every item is adjusted to reflect the actual cash flows. It is strictly based on the Cash Basis of accounting instead of the accrual basis.
Assume MIX Inc. has sales volume of $1,198,000 for two products with May sales and contribution margin ratios as follows:
Product A: Sales $466,000; Contribution Margin Ratio 30%
Product B: Sales $732,000; Contribution Margin Ratio 60%
Required: Assume MIX's fixed expenses are $302,000. Calculate the May total contribution margin, operating income, average contribution margin ratio, and breakeven sales volume. (Round "Average contribution margin ratio" answer to 2 decimal places. Round up "Breakeven sales volume" answer to nearest whole dollar.)
Total contribution margin
Operating income
Average contribution margin ratio
Breakeven sales volume
Answer:
total contribution margin = $579,000
operating income = $277,000
average contribution margin ratio = 48.33%
break even sales volume = $624,870.68
Explanation:
Product A: Sales $466,000; Contribution Margin Ratio 30%
Product B: Sales $732,000; Contribution Margin Ratio 60%
Mix's fixed expenses are $302,000
total contribution margin = ($466,000 x 30%) + ($732,000 x 60%) = $139,800 + $439,200 = $579,000
weighted contribution margin = (466/1198 x 30%) + (732/1198 x 60%) = 11.67% + 36.66% = 48.33%
break even sales volume = $302,000 / 48.33% = $624,870.68
operating income = $579,000 - $302,000 = $277,000
The Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) is a mathematical approach to understanding market concentration that provides a single concentration indicator. What is the HHI for an industry characterized by the below noted data?Firm 1 has a market share of 40%Firm 2 has a market share of 20%Firm 3 has a market share of 15%Firm 4 has a market share of 15%Firm 5 has a market share of 10%HHI=___
Answer:
2550
Explanation:
The HHI is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm in the industry.
40² + 20² + 15² + 15² + 10² = 1600 + 400 + 225 + 225 + 100 = 2550
King Company issued bonds with a face amount of $1,600,000 in 2015. As of January 1, 2020, the balance in Discount on Bonds Payable is $4,800. At that time, King redeemed the bonds at 102.Required:Assuming that no interest is payable, make the entry to record the redemption.
Answer:
January 1, 2020
Bonds Payable 1600000 Dr
Loss on Redemption of bonds 36800 Cr
Discount on Bonds Payable 4800 Cr
Cash 1632000 Cr
Explanation:
The redemption of bonds before the maturity usually requires a payment for redemption which is a certain percentage of its face value. It is usually higher than the face value. The above bonds are redeemed at 102 which means at 102% of the face value of the bonds. Thus, the cash paid to redeem the bonds is,
Cash = 1600000 * 102% = 1632000
The bonds have a carrying value, which is the face value less discount or add premium, of,
Carrying value = 1600000 - 4800 = $1595200
If they are redeemed for an amount in excess of the carrying value, they are redeemed at a loss.
The loss on redemption is,
Loss = 1595200 - 1632000 = $36800
ZZZ-Best, Inc. recently issued $65 par value preferred stock that pays an annual dividend of $17. If the stock is currently selling for $76, what is the expected return of this preferred stock?
Answer:
r = 0.22368 or 22.368% rounded off to 22.37%
Explanation:
The expected or required rate of return on a preferred stock is the return provided by the stock in terms of dividend as a proportion of the current market price. The expected return on a preferred stock can be calculated as follows,
r = Dividend / current market price
r = 17 / 76
r = 0.22368 or 22.368% rounded off to 22.37%
Compromising is most likely the best approach to conflict management when opponents with equal power are committed to mutually exclusive goals.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
true
Explanation:
when two opponents with equal power are committed to mutually exclusive goals then they have to reach a compromise.in a compromise, either of these two parties having a conflict would be willing to give up something to reach an agreement. The needs of both sides would be balanced, as both sides would have to make sacrifices. This makes it a lose-lose approach to conflict resolution for either parties involved. A compromise has to be reached for important goals to be achieved.
A firm has net working capital of $2,715, net fixed assets of $22,407, sales of $31,350, and current liabilities of $3,908. How many dollars' worth of sales are generated from every $1 in total assets
Answer:
So, from every $1 of total assets, $1.08 worth of sales are generated.
Explanation:
To calculate how many dollars worth of sales are generated by $1 of total assets, we use the total assets turnover ratio. It is an accounting measure that measures the efficiency of the company's assets in generating sales. It calculates the dollar values of sales generated by each $1 of total assets. The formula for total assets turnover is,
Total Assets Turnover = Sales / Average Total Assets
We already know the level of sales. We need to determine the value of total assets first.
Total Assets = Fixed assets + Current Assets
As we know that net working capital = current assets - current liabilities,
So, the current assets are,
2715 = Current assets - 3908
2715 + 3908 = Current assets
Current assets = $6623
Total assets = 6623 + 22407
Total assets = $29030
Total Assets Turnover = 31350 / 29030
Total assets turnover = 1.0799 rounded off to 1.08
So, from every $1 of total assets, $1.08 worth of sales are generated.
A company's Office Supplies account shows a beginning balance of $720 and an ending balance of $640. If office supplies expense for the year is $3,700, what amount of office supplies was purchased during the period
Answer:
Purchases= $3,620
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Beginning inventory= $720
Ending inventory= $640
Purchase= ?
Used in the period= $3,700
To calculate the purchases, we need to use the following formula:
Purchases= used in the period + desired ending inventory - beginning inventory
Purchases= 3,700 + 640 - 720
Purchases= $3,620
Assume that the hourly cost to operate a commercial airplane follows the normal distribution with a mean of $5,793 per hour and a standard deviation of $439. What is the operating cost for the lowest 2% of the airplanes?
Answer:
x1 = 4891.294
Explanation:
given data
mean μ = $5,793
standard deviation σ = $439
solution
we know here that
P(x < x1 ) = 0.02 .................1
so
[tex]P(\frac{x-\mu }{\sigma } < \frac{x1-\mu }{\sigma }) = 0.02[/tex]
so
[tex]P(z < \frac{x1-\mu }{\sigma }) = 0.02[/tex]
[tex]\frac{x1-\mu }{\sigma }[/tex] = invNorm(0.02)
so
x1 = μ + σ × invNorm(0.02) .....................2
we use here table for invNorm(0.02) and put value in eq 2
x1 = 5793 + 439 × (-2.054 )
x1 = 4891.294
On August 1, 2010, a company issues bonds with a par value of $600,000. The bonds mature in 10 years and pay 6% annual interest, payable each February 1 and August 1. The bonds sold at $592,000. The company uses the straight-line method of amortizing bond discounts. The company's year-end is December 31. Prepare the general journal entry to record the interest accrued at December 31, 2010.
Answer:
Dr Discount on BP 8,000
Cr Cash 592,000
Cr Bond payable 600,000
Dr Interest expense 15,333.33
Cr Interest payable 15,000
Cr Discount on BP 333.33
Dr Interest payable 15,000
Dr interest expense 3,066.67
Cr Cash 18,000
Cr Discount on BP 333.33
Explanation:
Preparation of the general journal entry to record the interest accrued at December 31, 2010.
Based on the information given we were told that the company issues bonds with a par value of the amount of $600,000 in which the bonds mature in 10 years with a 6% annual interest and sold at the amount of $592,000 this means that the transaction will be recorded as:
Dr Discount on BP 8,000
(600,000-592,000)
Cr Cash 592,000
Cr Bond payable 600,000
(To record issuance of the bonds)
Dr Interest expense 15,333.33
Cr Interest payable 15,000 (600,000 x 6% x 5/12 )
Cr Discount on BP 333.33
(8,000 / (10years* 2 payment =400*5/6=333.33)
(To record year end adjustment entry)
Dr Interest payable 15,000
(600,000 x 6% x 5/12 )
Dr interest expense 3,066.67
(600,000 x 6% x 1/12=3,000)
(400 - 333.33= 66.67)
(3,000+66.67=3,066.67)
Cr Cash 18,000
(600,000 x 6% x 6/12)
Cr Discount on BP 333.33
(8,000 / (10years* 2 payment =400*5/6=333.33)
(To record first interest payment to bondholders)
Fed is open to changing bond policy Fed policymakers signaled for the first time that they could increase or decrease stimulation of the economy in the future, but not now. Source: Los Angeles Times, May 1, 2013 What are the ripple effects and time lags that the Fed must consider in deciding when to increase or decrease stimulation of the economy?
Answer:
When the Fed raises the federal funds rate, the inflation rate decreases about two years later.
Explanation:
When trying to stimulate the economy either by increasing or decreasing, policymakers have to take into consideration how it would effect interest rate, amount of money available in the economy, loans that would be acquired by banks and the behavior of interest rate.
Interest rate can be impacted quickly even though the period of time it would take for such action to have a reflection on what quantity of money is available in the economy. Then also a period of 2 years would be taken for this action to take effect on inflation.
Therefore
When the Fed raises the federal funds rate, the inflation rate decreases about two years later.
Brunette Company is contemplating investing in a new piece of manufacturing machinery. The amount to be invested is $180,000. The present value of the future cash flows generated by the project is $163,000. Should they invest in this project?
Answer:
No, as the net present value comes in negative
Explanation:
As we know that
Net present value = Present value of cash inflows - Initial investment
where,
Present value os $163,000
And, the initial investment is $180,000
Now placing these values to the above formula
So, the net present value is
= $163,000 - $180,000
= -$17,000
Therefore the company should not accept the project as net present value is in negative that is -$17,000
Which of the following is an advantage of job specialization? 1 point A. The quality of work increases. B. Jobs can be mastered quickly. C. Employees are more involved with their jobs. D. The work is less repetitive. E. Task specialization has no clear advantages to the organization
Answer: B. Jobs can be mastered quickly.
Explanation:
Job specialization is when the employees in an organization focuses and concentrates on one particular aspect in a organization. Specialization makes employees more efficient and also effective at their role.
Also, jobs can be mastered quickly since the employees typically focuses on one particular aspect in the organization.
Which of the following are recommended ways to learn more about IT careers? Check all of the boxes
that apply.
scheduling an appointment with a career counselor at a school
attending an informational session
applying for an internship
renting a science fiction movie about computer viruses
contacting a professional organization, such as CompTIA
Answer:
scheduling an appointment with a career counselor at a schoolattending an informational sessionapplying for an internshipcontacting a professional organization, such as CompTIAExplanation:
To learn more about IT careers or just carriers in general, one can contact the Career counselor at school. Their job is to help students find out more abut careers so that they know which path they would like to follow.
One can also attend information sessions where they can listen to people speak on IT careers and ask questions they would like answers to as well.
A practical way to find out about IT careers is to intern at an IT firm. This way you get to see first hand what the job entails and if it is the kind of thing you would like to do.
There are also professional organizations that offer certifications in IT such as CompTIA. As they are well versed in the area, they can provide more information on IT careers including the educational background required.
Answer:
1. Scheduling an appointment with a career counselor at school.
2. Attending an informational session.
3. Applying for an internship
5. Contacting a professional organization, such as CompTIA.
Explanation: This is the correct answer on Edge 2021, just did the assignment. Hope this helps ^-^.
Moped, Inc. purchased machinery at a cost of $44,000 on January 1, 2017. The expected useful life is 5 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $4,000. Moped depreciates its assets using the double-declining balance method. What is the firm's depreciation expense for the year ended December 31, 2017?
Answer:
Annual depreciation= $16,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Purchase price= $44,000
Useful life= 5 years
Salvage value= $4,000
To calculate the depreciation expense under the double-declining balance, we need to use the following formula:
Annual depreciation= 2*[(book value)/estimated life (years)]
Annual depreciation= 2*[(44,000 - 4,000) / 5]
Annual depreciation= 16,000
Holiday Laboratories purchased a high-speed industrial centrifuge at a cost of $460,000. Shipping costs totaled $11,000. Foundation work to house the centrifuge cost $7,300. An additional water line had to be run to the equipment at a cost of $3,900. Labor and testing costs totaled $5,400. Materials used up in testing cost $3,200. The capitalized cost is:
Answer:
$490,800
Explanation:
In order to arrive at the capitalized cost, we will sum up all the cost in the above question because those costs were incurred by the company - Holiday Laboratories to getting the assets prepared for use.
Therefore, Capitalized cost
= High speed industrial centrifuge + Shipping cost + Foundation work + Additional equipment cost + Labor and testing cost + Material cost
= $460,000 + $11,000 + $7,300 + $3,900 + $5,400 + $3,200
= $490,800
DPMO stands for:______
a) Defects Per Million Opportunity
b) Defectives Per Million Opportunity
c) Data Per Million Opportunity
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
Answer:
a) Defects Per Million Opportunity
Explanation:
DPMO is an acronym which stands for Defects Per Million Opportunity. Defects per Million Opportunities refers to a standard metric which represents the number of defects in a process per one million opportunities.
In order to calculate the DPMO, we divide the number of defects by the number of opportunities and then multiply by a million.
Additionally, when a quality characteristics or properties do not tally with a standard or specifications it is generally referred to as a defect.
Hence, in a six sigma approach to quality or level of performance, the defects per million opportunities (DPMO) is 3.4.
Baldwin has negotiated a new labor contract for the next round that will affect the cost for their product Buzz. Labor costs will go from $2.10 to $2.60 per unit. In addition, their material costs have fallen from $6.82 to $5.82. Assume all period costs as reported on Baldwin's Income Statement remain the same. If Baldwin were to pass on half the new costs of labor and half the savings in materials to customers by adjusting the price of their product, how many units of product Buzz would need to be sold next round to break even on the product
Answer:
433 units
Explanation:
Information related to production costs are missing, so I looked for it. I found the following:
current sales price = $17
current fixed costs = $7,242
new labor costs per unit = $2.60, which results in a $0.50 increase
new direct materials cost per unit = $5.82, which results in a $1 decrease
total variable costs per unit = $8.42
Baldwin plans to pass 50% of the changes in costs to its customers:
Increase $0.25 due to higher labor costsdecrease $0.50 due to lower materials costsnet change = -$0.25new sales price = $17 - $0.25 = $16.75
contribution margin per unit = $16.75 - $8.42 = $8.33
break even point in units = total fixed costs / contribution margin per unit = $7,242 / $16.75 = 432.36 = 433 units
What term means managing the entire organization so that it excels on all dimensions of products and services that are important to customers?
Answer:
Total Quality Management
Explanation:
Total Quality Management is an approach in which all the employees of the company work to improve the entire process to offer a good customer experience. According to this, the answer is that the term that means managing the entire organization so that it excels on all dimensions of products and services that are important to customers is Total Quality Management.
Which of the following recognizes the intellectual property licensing of copyrights by all the signatory nations to the act?
a. The Madrid Convention
b. The Export Administration Act of 1985
c. The Berne Convention Implementation Act of 1988
d. The International Emergency Economic Powers Act of 1977
Answer:
c. The Berne Convention Implementation Act of 1988.
Explanation:
This was put into force in the United States of America in the year 1988 even though its laws were been vehemently upheld from the next year. This was a law put in place to be a guide to a lot of United States citizens who are known to ply their trades in the literary and also artistic sphere. It was seen as a protection agency to writers and artists in literary world. Their work at this early stages may have been performed only pursuant to appropriate domestic law. Also, in a bid to make this law a better one, it was said to be amended together with the law as it exists on the date of the enactment of this law been amended, satisfy the obligations to the citizens of the US.
Identify factors that could prevent an older, established company from effecting an enterprise-wide, customer-centric culture.
Answer:
A more established company may find it difficult to implement an enterprise-wide, customer-centric culture due to the following reasons:
A) Existence of a Multi-Product Business Model
A business entity that is well established with a lot of years under its belt will find it a tough challenge to shift from a product-oriented business model to a customer-oriented business model.
To be product-focused simply means that that a company has woven its organisational structure around products. For examples, a company that is into the gaming business may have teams for their Sports Betting Section, another for their online gaming section, game hardware section, gaming apps section etc.
First, for these various teams, their performance metric will largely depend on how functionally efficient their products are.
Second, techy or geeky staff are seldom efficient when it comes to emotional intelligence - a key requirement for being customer efficient.
One way to handle this is to ensure that there is a central Customer Relationship Management team that oversees the customers for each product.
B) Organisational Inflexibility
As direct to the point as it sounds, getting market intelligence for with the intention to use them for decision making is challenging. What is tougher is the ability to implement the insights from such intelligence to effect a turn around in the way customers perceive and respond to a company's offerings.
The ability to quickly take gather market intel, agree on a strategic direction based on same and execute can be referred to organisational agility.
The more bureaucratic and hierarchical an organisation is (this, by the way, characterises older and more established business systems) the less agile it is likely to be.
Cheers!
