A fortnight is 1/26 of a year. What part of a year is 8 fortnights?

Since there is two negative signs in the original equation, you need two negative signs in the equivalent one as well.

Because one of the negatives if before the fraction, it doesn't matter if the second negative is on the 13 or on the 12.

The answer is A.

Answer:

A =189 cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a parallelogram is found by

A = bh where b is the base and h is the height

A = 9 * 21

A =189 cm^2

Answer:

37.3

Step-by-step explanation:

If you want to solve it.

Cylineder Formula: Volume = π(radius)²(height)

Isolate height by diving πr² on both sides.

height = (volume/πr²)

height = (300/π(1.6^2))

Answer:

h = 36.2 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

lets make it short and simple

vol of cylinder + volume of hemisphere = 300 cu.cm.

Vc + Vh = 300  --- eq.1

cylinder radius = 1.6 cm.

since it says NOT TO SCALE

let the radius of hemisphere is the same as cylinder.

vol of cylinder = πr²h

vol of hemisphere = 2/3 πr³

using eq.1

πr²h + 2/3 πr³ = 300

π (1.6²) h + 2/3 π (1.6³) = 300

h = 36.2 cm

check:

Vc + Vh = 300

π (1.6²) 36.2 +  2/3 π (1.6³) = 300

300 cu.cm = 300 cu.cm.  ----OK

Answer:

The probability that a 57-year-old was involved in an accident is 0.0656.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the data for the drivers involved in an accident of different age groups.

And we have to find the probability that a 57-year-old was involved in an accident.

From the table given to us, it clear that a 57-year-old driver will lie in the age group of 55 - 64.

Now, the number of licensed drivers in the age group of 55 - 64 are 30,355 (in thousands).

The point to be noted here is that the data given of drivers in accidents (thousands) will include the data of drivers in fatal accidents.

So, the number of 57-year-old drivers involved in accidents are 1990 (in thousands).

The probability that a 57-year-old was involved in an accident is given by;

                        = [tex]\frac{1990}{30,355}[/tex]

                        = [tex]\frac{398}{6071}[/tex] = 0.0656 or 6.56%

Answer:

The first one

Step-by-step explanation:

This line is the best fit for the scatter plot because it touches a lot more points than the second

Answer:

The first line

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there!

Well the first lie is a positive slope just like the dots whereas,

the second line is a negative slope.

Therefore, the first line is the line of best fit.

Hope this helps :)

Your function is: [tex]f(x)=\frac{1}{2}\cos \Big( \frac{1}{4x}\Big) -1[/tex]

Domain: $(-\infty, +\infty)-\{ 0 \}$ or $R-\{ 0 \}$

Range: $[-\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{1}{2}]$

Midline: $y=-1$

Answer:

3 uhhh i have to write 20 letters so aha nice

Answer:

[tex]93\frac{1}{3}[/tex] [tex]yd^{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a pyramid is:

[tex]V=\frac{lwh}{3}[/tex] (basically saying that you multiply the length, width, and the height together and then you divide that by 3)

Now, let's do the first part.

8 × 5 × 7 = 280

Now, let's divide.

280 ÷ 3 = 93 1/3

That's your answer!

Hope that helps and maybe earns a brainliest!

Have a great day! :)

Answer:

17 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

We can break this figure into two smaller and easier figures:

The top figure (which has side lengths of 3 and 5), and the bottom figure (with sides of 1 and 2.)

Let's find the area of the top figure first. The width is 4 and the length is 5 so:

[tex]3\cdot5=15[/tex] in².

The bottom figure has a length of 2 and a width of 1. So:

[tex]2\cdot1=2[/tex] in².

Now we add these two:

[tex]15+2=17[/tex] in².

Hope this helped!

Answer:

17 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

We cut the shape in to two bits to make it easier.

5 x 3 = 15 inches

2 x 1 = 2 inches

Now we add these together:

17 square inches.

I know I answered wrong in my first attempt but now I understand the question.

Hope this helps :D

Answer:

$17

Step-by-step explanation:

If each ticket is $7 and there are 48 student multiply 7 and 48 to see how much the tickets were in total (336)

Now subtract 353 and 336 to see how much money is left (17)

Answer: -17?

Step-by-step explanation:

because 7*48= 336

then you would do 336-353= -17

which gave me the answer of -17

Answer:

  $86.81

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the given formula, we want to compute A for ...

  P = 4750

  r = 0.2279

  n = 365 . . . . . assuming "exact" interest

  t = 1 or 30

For 1 day late:

  A = 4750(1 +0.2279/365)^(365·(1/365)) = 4752.97

For 30 days late:

  A = 4750(1 +0.2279/365)^(365·(30/365)) = 4839.78

The difference in these payment amounts is ...

  $4839.78 -4752.97 = $86.81

You would save $86.81 in interest charges by paying only 1 day late.

_____

Comment on the question

It would be a poor choice of credit card to use one that compounds interest daily. Most do so on a monthly basis.

Answer:

The correct answer is;

ΔANT ≅ ΔFLE by the SIde-Side-Side (SSS) rule of congruency

Step-by-step explanation:

The given information are;

Segment TN is congruent ts segment EL

Segment TA is congruent ts segment EF

Segment AN is congruent ts segment FL

Therefore, triangle ΔANT is congruent to ΔFLE by the Side-Side-Side (SSS) rule of congruency

One of the rule used to serve as proof that two or more triangles are congruent, is the Side-Side-Side (SSS) rule of congruency. The Side-Side-Side rule of congruency states that if the dimensions of the three sides of one triangle are equal to the dimensions of the three sides of another triangle, the two triangles are congruent.

Therefore, the correct option is ΔANT ≅ ΔFLE by the Side-Side-Side (SSS) rule of congruency

Answer: cannot be determined

Step-by-step explanation:

there isnt a rule SSS

Answer:  see proof below

Step-by-step explanation:

You will need the following identities to prove this:

[tex]\tan\ (\alpha-\beta)=\dfrac{\tan \alpha-\tan \beta}{1+\tan \alpha\cdot \tan \beta}[/tex]

[tex]\cos\ 2\alpha=\cos^2 \alpha-\sin^2\alpha[/tex]

LHS → RHS

[tex]\dfrac{2\tan\ (45^o-A)}{1+\tan^2\ (45^o-A)}\\\\\\=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{\tan\ 45^o-\tan\ A}{1+\tan\ 45^o\cdot \tan\ A}\bigg)}{1+\bigg(\dfrac{\tan\ 45^o-\tan\ A}{1+\tan\ 45^o\cdot \tan\ A}\bigg)^2}\\\\\\=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan\ A}{1+\tan\ A}\bigg)}{1+\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan\ A}{1+\tan\ A}\bigg)^2}\\\\\\=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}\bigg)}{1+\bigg(\dfrac{1-2\tan\A+\tan^2 A}{1+2\tan A+\tan^2A}\bigg)}\\[/tex]

[tex]=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}\bigg)}{\dfrac{(1+2\tan A+\tan^2A)+(1-2\tan A+\tan^2 A)}{1+2\tan A+\tan^2A}}\\\\\\=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}\bigg)}{\dfrac{2+2\tan^2A}{1+2\tan A+\tan^2A}}\\\\\\=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}\bigg)}{2\bigg(\dfrac{1+\tan^2A}{(1+\tan A)^2}\bigg)}\\\\\\=\dfrac{\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}\bigg)}{\bigg(\dfrac{1+\tan^2A}{(1+\tan A)^2}\bigg)}[/tex]

[tex]=\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}}\times \dfrac{(1+\tan A)^2}{1+\tan^2A}\\\\\\=\dfrac{1-\tan^2 A}{1+\tan^2 A}\\\\\\=\dfrac{1-\dfrac{\sin^2 A}{\cos^2 A}}{1+\dfrac{\sin^2 A}{\cos^2 A}}\\\\\\=\dfrac{\bigg(\dfrac{\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A}{\cos^2 A}\bigg)}{\bigg(\dfrac{\cos^2 A+\sin^2 A}{\cos^2 A}\bigg)}\\\\\\=\dfrac{\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A}{\cos^2 A+\sin^2 A}\\\\\\=\dfrac{\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A}{1}\\\\\\=\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A\\\\\\=\cos 2A[/tex]

cos 2A = cos 2A   [tex]\checkmark[/tex]

Answer:

the answer is d

Step-by-step explanation:

cause its d

Answer:

x = 180 - [(180 - 3x) + (180 - 2x)]

Step-by-step explanation:

Start off by finding the angles of the triangle

Angle F = 180 - 3x

The angle across from I (which I will call I) = 180 - 2x

Angle G = 180 - (F + I)

Now that we know what G is, we know what x is because the Alternate Exterior Angles Theorem states that if a pair of parallel lines are cut by a transversal, then the alternate exterior angles are congruent. So pretty much X = G

Therefore x =  180 - (F + I) or otherwise said as:

x = 180 - [(180 - 3x) + (180 - 2x)]

I hope this is helpful :)

Answer:

  m∠F = 66°

  m∠D = 57°

Step-by-step explanation:

It looks like you have ...

  ∠D = ∠E = (4x +1)°

  ∠F = (5x -4)°

The sum of the angles in the triangle is 180°, so we have ...

  2(4x +1) +(5x -4) = 180

  13x -2 = 180

  x = 182/13 = 14

Then the angle measures are ...

  ∠D = ∠E = (4(14) +1)° = 57°

  ∠F = (5(14) -4)° = 66°

__

m∠F = 66°

m∠D = 57°

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

-32=-7n-12+3n

-32=-7n+3n-12

-32=-4n-12

-4n=-32+12

-4n=-20

n=-20/-4

n=5

Answer:

[tex]n=5[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]-32=-7n-12+3n\\\text{Combine Like Terms}\\-32=-7n+3n-12\\-32=-4n-12\\\text{Isolate the Variable}\\-32+12=-4n-12+12\\-20=-4n\\\text{Divide each side by -4}\\n=5[/tex]

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It goes over the goal post by 6 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The football will be at the same x position as the goal when x = 40. When x = 40, y = -0.03 * 40² + 1.6 * 40 = 16. The height of the goal post can be represented by the equation y = 10. Since 16 > 10, the football goes over the goal post by 16 - 10 = 6 feet.

Answer:

Large herbivores, such as elephants and

giraffes, need to eat a lot. = Example

Their service is expedient - I'm amazed

by how fast they are!  Example, explanation

Jane is always very enthusiastic and

never negative or doubtful. = antonym

Carburetors, which feed fuel and air to

engines, are very important. = explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2 × 5

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to split the number 10 into its prime numbers.

A good way to start is divide the number by 2, if it's even. 10 is even, so we can divide by 2.

[tex]10\div2=5[/tex]

So the current factors are 2 and 5. We would keep going if one of these numbers was composite, but 2 and 5 or both prime numbers, so we can end the factorization here.

Therefore, the prime factorization of 10 is 2 × 5.

Hope this helped!

The prime factorization of 10 is 2 x 5.

Prime factorization is when you figure out the prime numbers that you can multiply together  to get a certain number.

To figure out the prime factors of 10, we begin by dividing it by the lowest prime number, which is 2. Because 10 can be divided evenly by 2, we can say that 10 is equal to 2 multiplied by 5.

The numbers 2 and 5 are special because they can only be divided by 1 and themselves. This makes them prime numbers. The prime factorization of 10 is the result of multiplying the prime factors 2 and 5 together.

Read more about  factorization  here:

https://brainly.com/question/25829061

#SPJ6

Answer:

[tex]\huge\boxed{Second\ Number = 42}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the consecutive even numbers be x,x+2,x+4, x+ 6, x+ 8 and x+10

So, the given condition is:

x+x+2+x+4+x+6+x+8+x+10 = 270

6x + 30 = 270

Subtracting both sides by 30

6x = 270 - 30

6x = 240

Dividing both sides by 6

x = 40

So,

First Number = x = 40

Second Number = x+2 = 40+2 = 42

Third Number = x+4 = 40+4 = 44

Fourth Number = x+6 = 40+6 = 46

Fifth Number = x+8 = 40+8 = 48

Sixth Number = x+10 = 40+10 = 50

Answer:

22 I think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

29

Step-by-step explanation:

using pemdas, you first need to solve 3² which is 9. Then you do what's in the parenthesis (4-1) which is 3. you'll first multiply 9 and 3 (27) add the 2 and there's your answer, 29.

Answer:

c) p = 3/q

Step-by-step explanation:

If 3 is divided by a smaller number "q", then it would result in a larger number "p".

Example:

1. Substitute 3 for "q"

3/3 = 1

q = 3

p = 1

2. Substitute 1 for "q"

3/1 = 3

q = 1

p = 3

When "q" decreased, "p" increased.

Step-by-step explanation:

c) p=3/q

i can confirm after 10.30

Answer:

The answer to this is a, b, d, e

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A, B, D, E

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

330 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 300deg

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[2×10*(-3) × (4×10*(4)] = 80

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all 0.002 is 10*(-3) and not 10(-2) , so you can eliminate the first 2 answers.

Second of all, according to the calculator the left equation is correct, while the right one isn't... so there you go

Glad to help :)

Answer:

[tex] 0.7287[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let $534.9=a$

Thus, given:

$\log a=2.7287$

Hence:

$\log \Big( \frac{a}{100}\Big)=\log a- \log 100$

$\implies \log \Big( \frac{a}{100}\Big)=2.7287-2=0.7287$

Answer:

202m

Step-by-step explanation:

Please see attached picture for full solution.

Let x meters be the height of the building.

Answer:

44

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2m-3/4n=16 , m when n=8

1/2m-3/4n=16

1/2m - 3/4(8) = 16

1/2m - (8 x 3)/4 = 16

1/2m - (24/4) = 16

1/2m - 6 = 16

1/2m = 16 + 6

1/2m = 22

m = 22 x 2

m = 44