A mortgage is paid off in 30 years with a total of $124,000. It had a 2% interest rate that compounded monthly. What was the principal

Answer:

audit trails

Explanation:

Reports that trace the entry of and changes to critical data values are called audit trails and are essential in every system.

Answer:

60

Explanation:

price-earnings ratio = price / earnings per share

earnings per share = net income / shares outstanding = $150 / 300 = $0.50

$30 / $0.50 = 60

Answer:

The correct answer is the option A: Margin of safety ratio.

Explanation:

To begin with, the name of "Margin of Safety", in the field of business and accounting, is refered to a ratio whose main purpose is to establish the point in where the company knows that it has to sale obligately due to the fact that at that point the company can be sure that they have covered the fixed costs of it and after that point every sale will became a profit for the company. So that is why that this ratio indicates the percentage of each sales dollar that is available to cover those costs.

Explanation:

a. What were some good and/or poor examples of communication?

Intercultural communication in the workplace can generate some significant difficulties, in an intercultural work team, there may be behaviors of certain members that differ from the rest of the group, which can mean lack of integration of the team due to lack of respect and interest to the cultural values ​​of a particular member.

b. Discuss any examples or interpretation of cultural differences as described in Hoftstede's Cultural Values chart on p. 46 of your text (i.e. individualism, time orientation, formality, etc.).

Formality can be interpreted differently according to different cultures. In a more flexible culture like the American one, for example, formality may not be so expressed through the use of formal language and dress, whereas in a less flexible culture, this can be seen as a disrespect, as they can establish a more serious and formal communication in the workplace.

c. Is there anything that could have been done to make the communication more effective?

To make intercultural communication more effective, it is necessary above all to respect the individual values ​​of an individual that exist in certain ways in some situations. The ideal is that people are open to learn and exchange experiences, willing to help the individual to integrate into the group, and above all to act in an ethical and respectful way always.

Answer:

The required rate of return is r = 0.1475 or 14.75%

Explanation:

The required rate of return is the minimum return that investors demand/expect on a stock based on the systematic risk of the stock as given by the beta. The expected or required rate of return on a stock can be calculated using the CAPM equation.

The equation is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

r = 0.06 + 1.25 * (0.13 - 0.06)

r = 0.1475 or 14.75%

Answer:

(a)

Dr Unrealized Holding Gain or Loss -Equity $1,410

Cr Fair Value Adjustment $1,410

(b)

Dr Cash $9,410

Dr Loss on Sale of Investment $590

Cr Equity Investment $10,000

(c)

Dr Fair Value Adjustment $1,120

Cr Unrealized Holding Gain or Loss-Equity $1,120

Explanation:

(a) Preparation of the adjusting journal entry needed on December 31, 2017.

Dr Unrealized Holding Gain or Loss -Equity $1,410

Cr Fair Value Adjustment $1,410

(To Adjust to Fair Value for 2017)

(b) Preparation of the journal entry to record the sale of the Colorado Co. stock during 2018.

Dr Cash $9,410

Dr Loss on Sale of Investment $590

(20,200- 20,790)

Cr Equity Investment $10,000

($9,410+$590)

(To Record Sale of Stock)

(c)Preparation of the adjusting journal entry needed on December 31, 2018.

Dr Fair Value Adjustment $1,120

Cr Unrealized Holding Gain or Loss-Equity $1,120

(To Adjust to Fair Value for 2018)

Investments Amortized Costs, Fair Value , Unrealized Gain (Loss)

Clemson Corp. stock

$20,200 $19,410 ($790)

Buffaloes Co. stock

$20,200 $20,700 $500

$40,400 $40,110 ($290)

Previous Fair Value Adjustment (Credit)

$1,410

Fair Value Adjustment (Debit)$1,120

Answer:

a. To have $66,000 in four years with an annual interest rate of 9%, the present value is:

PV = $66,000 x discount factor

= $66,000 x (1.09)^4

= $66,000 x 0.708

= $46,728

b. To have $18,500 in two years with an interest rate of 8% yearly, the present value is:

PV = $18,500 x discount factor

= $18,500 x (1.08)^2

= $18,500 x 0.857

= $15,854.50

c. The future value of an investment of $787 for ten years earning an interest of 9% is:

FV = $787 x FV factor

= $787 x (1.09)^10

= $787 x 2.367

= $1,862.83

Explanation:

The present values for options A and B are calculated by discounting the future values with their discount factors.  The present values show the amounts that need to be invested today at prevailing interest rates to yield the future values after the indicated periods of time.

The future value for option C is calculated by multiplying the present value of the investment with its future value factor.  These present and future values show that there is a time value of money.  This concept means that money received today is not equal in value to the same amount received some time later.  Based on this difference, interest rates are charged to equate the values of money received today and money received in a year's time.  The interest rates also consider the inflation rate and must always be above the inflation rate in order to retain future value.

Answer:

b. $19,020

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided in the attached pdf file before answering the question. Please, see the attached file for the full question.

Also note that the "1. Option A 2. Option B 3. Option C" are not actually part of the question.

The explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

Note: This is an example of annuity. An annuity can be described as a series of payments made or income received at equal intervals.

Therefore, the relevant table in the question is the second table, i.e. table for the present value of an annuity of $1 at compound interest.

To calculate the present value (PV), the following for formula is used:

PV = ACI * PVA10% ............................ (1)

PV = Present value = ?

ACI = Annual cash inflows = $6,000

PVA = Present value of annuity of $1 at 10% for 4 years = 3.170

Note that the PVA is obtained for year 4 at 10% from the second table as already explained above.

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

PV = $6,000 * 3.170

PV = $19,020

Therefore, the correct option is option b. $19,020.

Answer:

Year    NCF Processing Mill     NCF Processing Mill     NCF Electric Shovel

0          -$750,000                        -$750,000                      -$750,000      

1           $310,000                          $310,000                        $330,000

2          $260,000                         $260,000                       $325,000

3          $260,000                         $260,000                       $325,000

4          $260,000                         $540,000                       $320,000

5          $180,000

6          $130,000

7          $120,000

8          $120,000

discount rate = 15%

NPV Processing Mill (8 years) = -$750,000 + ($310,000 x .87) + ($260,000 x .756) + ($260,000 x .658) + ($260,000 x .572) + ($180,000 x .497) + ($130,000 x .432) + ($120,000 x .376) + ($120,000 x .327) = -$750,000 + $267,700 + $196,560 + $171,080 + $148,720 + $89,460 + $56,160 + $45,120 + $39,240 = -$750,000 + $1,014,040 = $264,040 HIGHEST NPV, SO THIS PROJECT SHOULD BE SELECTED

NPV Processing Mill (4 years) = -$750,000 + ($310,000 x .87) + ($260,000 x .756) + ($260,000 x .658) + ($540,000 x .572) = -$750,000 + $267,700 + $196,560 + $171,080 + $308,880 = -$750,000 + $944,220 = $194,220

NPV Electric Shovel (4 years) = -$750,000 + ($330,000 x .87) + ($325,000 x .756) + ($325,000 x .658) + ($320,000 x .572) = -$750,000 + $287,100 + $245,700 + $213,850 + $183,040 = -$750,000 + $929,690 = $179,690

Complete Question:

Time Warner shares have a market capitalization of $50 billion. The company is expected to pay a dividend of $0.30 per share and each share trades for $30. The growth rate in dividends is expected to be 7% per year. Also, Time Warner has $15 billion of debt that trades with a yield to maturity of 8%. If the firm's tax rate is 30%, what is the WACC?

Answer:

7.5%

Explanation:

We can calculate WACC using the following formula:

WACC = Ke * MV of Equity / (MV of Equity  + MV of Debt)    +   Kd * MV of Debt / (MV of Equity  + MV of Debt)

Here:

Market Value of Equity is $50 billion

Market Value of Debt is $15 billion

Ke is % (Step 1)

Kd is 8%

By putting values, we have:

WACC =  8.07% * $50 Billion / ($50 Billion + $15 Billion)     +  8% * $50 Billion / ($50 Billion + $15 Billion)

WACC = 7.5%

Step 1: Calculate Ke

We can calculate Ke using the following formula:

Ke = Do * (1 + g) / P               + g

Here

Do is the dividend per share which is $0.3

g is the growth rate which is 7%

And

P is the market value of share which is $30 per share.

Ke = $30 * (1 + 7%) / $30     +  7%   =  8.07%

Answer and Explanation:

The Preparation of horizontal analysis for 2022 using 2021 as the base year is prepared with the help of a spreadsheet.

Horizontal analysis is a method for the analysis of financial statements that indicates fluctuations in the amount of the related products over a period of time. It is a valuable instrument for determining trend situations.

So, with the help of the spreadsheet, we will be able to find the net income by using the formulas.

The horizontal analysis of the Income Statement is the analytical form of preparing the income statement to determine the accurate amount and percentage of changes in each item of the income statement.

The horizontal income statement is attached below.

The horizontal analysis determines the change in the amounts of each account. The percentage change is the division of a change in amount by the base amount of the base year.

In this case, the base year was 2021.

Therefore, the change in amounts will be determined based upon the figures of the base year.

To know more about horizontal analysis, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/14698328

Answer:

c. The Berne Convention Implementation Act of 1988.

Explanation:

This was put into force in the United States of America in the year 1988 even though its laws were been vehemently upheld from the next year. This was a law put in place to be a guide to a lot of United States citizens who are known to ply their trades in the literary and also artistic sphere. It was seen as a protection agency to writers and artists in literary world. Their work at this early stages may have been performed only pursuant to appropriate domestic law. Also, in a bid to make this law a better one, it was said to be amended together with the law as it exists on the date of the enactment of this law been amended, satisfy the obligations to the citizens of the US.

Answer:

Current price of stock = $130.76(Approx).

Explanation:

Given:

Dividend paid = $4.25

Required return of return = 10%

Growth rate = 6.75%

Find:

Current price of stock = ?

Computation:

Current price of stock = D1 / (Required return of return - Growth rate)

Current price of stock = 4.25 / (0.1 - 0.0675)

Current price of stock = 4.25 / 0.0325

Current price of stock = $130.76(Approx).

Answer:

20,000

Explanation:

Outstanding shares =  Issued shares - Treasury shares

32,000 - 12,000 = 20,000

Shares is a method through which firms raise capital.

Authorised shares are the maximum number of shares a company can issue to investors

Outstanding shares are the total number of shares sold to investors

Treasury shares are shares that have been issued and later repurchased by the company

Issued shares are the shares that a company issues

Answer:

Zero, because the selling of fixed asset is reported as cash inflow under investing activity.

Explanation:

Cash flow from investing activities includes all the investments in the long term assets and sale of investments or individual assets. The investment items may include Property, Plant and Equipment.

So this means that it will not be included in the Cash from Operating Activities because it is a Cash from Investing Activities.

Answer: D. 15%

Explanation:

Beta is given as 1.6 but is calculable by the formula;

Beta = Correlation Coefficient of stock with market returns * [tex]\frac{Standard Deviation of stock returns}{Standard Deviation of market returns}[/tex]

1.6 = 0.8 * 30%/Sdm

30% /Sdm = 1.6/0.8

30% / Sdm = 2

Sdm * 2 =30%

Sdm = 30%/2

Sdm = 15%

Answer:

True

Explanation:

A flexible budget is a budget in which you modify the activity levels to reflect changes in sales to help the company adjusts to different circumstances that may occcur. Also, in this budget the fixed costs remain constant and the variable costs change with the activity levels. According to this, the answer is that the statement that says that a flexible budget reporting sales volumes at three different levels will have the same fixed costs is true.

It is true that a flexible budget presenting sales volumes at three levels would have the same fixed expenses.

A flexible budget is one in which activity levels are adjusted to reflect sales performance, allowing the organization to respond to unforeseen events.

Furthermore, in this budget, fixed expenditures stay constant while variable costs vary according to activity levels. The assumption that a flexible budget reporting sales volumes at three distinct levels will have the same fixed expenses.

Find out more information about 'Flexible budget'.

https://brainly.com/question/25353134?referrer=searchResults

Answer: Form 8-K

Explanation:

An 8-K is a report the corporate changes that happens at an organization. The information given in form 8-K is important to the shareholders of the organization and also to the Securities and Exchange Commission.

Events such as bankruptcy, acquisitions, resignation of directors can all be seen in the report.

Answer:

According to the kinked demand curve theory, this behavior creates a demand curve that is more elastic at prices above the cartel price and more inelastic at prices below the cartel price.

Explanation:

Oligopoly is a market structure with a small number of firms, none of which can keep the from from having significant influence in the same specialization they indulge in.

The kinked demand curve theory means that the response to a price increase is less than the response to a price decrease of the Olipolist in the market

Answer: E. Only the implied warranty of assignability arises automatically under common law

Explanation:

Implied warranty is a term that is used in common law to refer to assurance that are given to a a product that the said product is fit and in good condition for the purpose it'll be used for.

Of all the options that are given, the one that is true regarding warranties under common law is that only the implied warranty of assignability arises automatically under common law.

Answer:

Amount = (Total periodic pay / Number days in period) * Number days for current period

Amount = ($10,000/5) * 4

Amount = $8,000

Therefore, the amount to be recorded for adjusting entry is $8,000.

                                          Journal Entry

 Date          Description                               Debit       Credit

31 Dec     Payroll expenses                        $8,000

                    Payroll expenses payable                     $8,000

                (Being Payroll expenses recorded)

Answer:

There are many alternative suppliers

Explanation:

Bargaining power of suppliers is one of Porters Five Forces. It refers to the extent to which a supplier can exert influence over buyers.

If there are many suppliers and a supplier raises price, consumer can easily change suppliers. But if the cost of changing suppliers is high (Switching costs), consumers would have less incentive to change suppliers. Thus, the bargaining power of suppliers would be high.

If there are few substitutes, there are few alternatives to the product offered by the supplier. so, the bargaining power of the supplier is high because consumers have little alternatives to the suppliers product.

Answer:

x = $16,078.46

Explanation:

$100,000 = 1.0101x + 1.0204x + 1.0309x + 1.0417x + 1.0526x + 1.0638x

$100,000 = 6.2195x

x = $100,000 / 6.2195 = $16,078.46

month               investment              value at end of month 6

1                         $16,078.46                    $17,104.74

2                        $16,078.46                    $16,924.68

3                        $16,078.46                    $16,748.39

4                        $16,078.46                    $16,575.73

5                        $16,078.46                    $16,406.59

6                        $16,078.46                    $16,240.87

total                  $96,470.76                     $100,001*

*the extra $1 is due to rounding errors.

Answer:

balanced scorecard

Explanation:

The term that is being mentioned in this question is known as a balanced scorecard. This is a strategic management performance metric that is used to measure and provide feedback to a company's management by identifying and improving different internal business functions and their outcomes, usually in regards to the employees themselves. An example of a balanced scorecard can be seen in the attached photo.

Answer:

Guillermo's Oil and Lube Company

Calculating the Direct Labor Rate Variance and the Direct Labor Efficiency Variance

a1. Direct labor rate variance (LRV) = Actual Labor Rate minus Standard Labor Rate multiplied by Actual hours worked

= $16 - $15 x 291

= $291 U

a2. Direct labor efficiency variance (LEV) = Standard hours minus Actual hours x Standard hourly rate

= 297 - 291 x $15

= $90 F

b1. Direct labor rate variance (LRV) = the difference between the actual wages paid and the standard wages

= (Actual labour rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours)

= ($16 x 291) - ($15 x 291)

= $4,656 - $4,365

= $291 U

b2. Direct labor efficiency variance = the difference between the actual number of direct labor hours worked and budgeted direct labor hours that should have been worked based on the standards

(291 x $15) - (297 x $15)

4,365 - 4,455

= $90 F

c. Total Direct labor rate variance (LRV) = Actual Wages minus Standard Wages

= (Actual labor rate x Actual hours) - (Standard labor rate x Standard hours)

= ($16 x 291) - ($15 x 297)

= $4,656 - $4,455

= $201 U

d. If actual wage rate paid in June was $14.00:

d1. Direct labor rate variance (LRV) = Actual Labor Rate minus Standard Labor Rate multiplied by Actual hours worked

= $14 - $15 x 291

= $291 F

d2. Direct labor efficiency variance (LEV) = Standard hours minus Actual hours x Standard hourly rate

= 297 - 291 x $15

= $90 F

d3. Total Direct labor rate variance (LRV) = Actual Wages minus Standard Wages

= (Actual labor rate x Actual hours) - (Standard labor rate x Standard hours)

= ($14 x 291) - ($15 x 297)

= $4,074 - $4,455

= $381 F

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations

Actual number of oil changes performed: 990

Standard number of direct labor hours to for 990 oil changes = 990 x 0.3 hours (since 18 minutes = 0.3 hours or 18/60) = 297 hours

Actual number of direct labor hours worked: 291 hours

Actual rate paid per direct labor hour: $16.00

Standard rate per direct labor hour: $15.00

b) The impact on direct labor rate variance if the actual wage rate paid in June was $14 was to turn the unfavorable labor rate variance into a favorable variance of $291 and the total direct labor variance would have been a favorable variance $381 instead of an unfavorable variance of $201.

Answer:

$8,584

Explanation:

Cost of ending inventory can be calculated by multiplying the remaining units of the given month by their purchase cost in the following month

DATA

Total remaining units n ending inventory = 58 units

10 from January at $128

12 from February at $138

14 from May at $148

12 from September at $158

10 from November at $168

Calculation

January  =  10 x $128       = $1,280

February = 12 x $138        = $1,656

May = 14 x $148                = $2,072

September = 12 x $158     = $1,896

November = 10 x $168      = $1,680

Cost of ending inventory = $8,584

Answer:

17.69 years

Explanation:

The formula to calculate the number of periods of time is:

n=ln(FV/PV)/ln(1+r)

n= number of periods of time

FV= future value=$2,500*2=$5,000

PV= present value=$2,500

r=interest rate=0.04

Now, you can replace the values in the formula:

n=ln(5,000/2,500)/ln(1+0.04)

n=ln2/ln1.04

n=0.69/0.039

n=17.69

According to this, the answer is that it will take 17.69 years for your funds to double.

Answer:

Differential cost is $0

Explanation:

A company should process further a product if the additional revenue from the split-off point is greater than than the further processing cost.  

Additional sales revenue = Sales revenue after further processing - sales revenue after split-off point

. A company should process further a product if the additional revenue from the split-off point is greater than than the further processing cost.

Also note that all cost incurred up to the split-off point are irrelevant to the decision to process further .  

                                                                               $

Sales after split off point  (Product C)                  58  

Sales at the split off point (Product B)                 33

Additional sales revenue                                     25

Further processing cost                                        (25)

Differential cost                                                        0

Differential cost is $0

Answer:

The main economic benefit that debt rescheduling has for developing countries is that it changes principal and interest payments to more favorable conditions.

This means that after the reschedule, developing countries will have to put less resources into the payments of public debt, which allows them to have more resources available for other public investments like education, healthcare, and infraestructure.

Answer:

variable costs per unit = $10.57

variable cost per unit for utilities = $0.85

variable cost per unit for maintenance = $0.25

Explanation:

I believe that the question is incomplete: the missing part is that both utilities and maintenance costs are mixed.

Production in units 3,900

Variable production cost s:

Direct materials $9,675  / 3,900 = $2.4808 per unit

Direct labor $27,420  / 3,900 = $6.9846 per unit

Utilities ($3,702 - $387) / 3,900 = $0.85 per unit

Maintenance ($1,233 - $258) / 3,900 = $0.25 per unit

total variable costs per unit = $10.5654 ≈ $10.57