A nurse is discussing the benefits of breastfeeding with a postpartum client: _________

Answers

Answer 1

Reduced risk of otitis media is one of the advantages of breastfeeding with a postpartum patient.

Does breastfeeding lower the chance of developing otitis media?One of the most prevalent infectious disorders that affects children is acute otitis media (AOM). A decreased risk of AOM in the first three years of life has been associated with breastfeeding.These include avoiding tobacco use, breastfeeding, taking regular, low-dose antibiotics (referred to as prophylaxis), and/or having tubes surgically placed in the ears.(See "Patient education: Vaccines for infants and children age 0 to 6 years (Beyond the Basics)" and "Acute otitis media in children: Prevention of recurrence.")The eustachian tube may become blocked due to neoplasm, enlarged adenoids, inflammatory factors, or sinusitis, all of which result in fluid accumulation in the middle ear, making it one of the main causes of otitis media.

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Related Questions

What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in sleep? a. It induces REM sleep every 90 minutes. b. It causes the pineal gland to increase the production of melatonin. c. It causes the pituitary gland to increase the release of human growth hormone. d. It causes the pituitary gland to decrease the release of human growth hormone. e. It causes the pineal gland to decrease the production of melatonin.

Answers

Suprachiasmatic nucleus causes the pineal gland to decrease the production of melatonin in sleep.

What is Suprachiasmatic nucleus?

By controlling daily oscillations of the internal milieu and synchronizing them to the varying cycles of day and night and of body state, the small suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus plays a crucial role in the daily programming of organismic activities.

When exposed to light, SCN neurons have a prolonged response, which persists even after the light source has been offset. Previous light exposures had little impact on these slow responses. Neurons also react quickly and excitatorily while ON and frequently when OFF, which can be either excitatory or inhibitory.

Therefore, Option E is correct.

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Which is a factor that acts as a barrier to making healthy decisions about relationships and sexual health?

a lack of knowledge
many structured activities
having a lot of information
no need for parental consent to receive some medical services

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

stay up on your health mind body and soul. self love read research

Answer: A

Explanation:

Which of the following viral illnesses has become less frequent in the United States because of immunization?
Multiple Choice
hepatitis C
mono
measles
HSV type 1

Answers

Measles is a kind of viral illnesses which has become less frequent in the United States because of immunization.

What do you mean by Immunization ?

A procedure via which a person receives immunization protection against a disease. This phrase is frequently used synonymously with the words vaccination or inoculation.

Millions of lives are saved annually thanks to vaccination, which is a success story in global health and development. In order to create immunity, vaccines act in conjunction with your body's natural defenses. Your immune system reacts when you receive a vaccination.

Immunizations prevent death. The best approach to prevent you or your child from contracting certain illnesses that can spread to other people is to use them (infectious diseases). And these illnesses frequently have no available medical remedies.

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thurstone proposed that there are a few stable and independent mental abilities that he referred to as mental abilities.

Answers

Answer:

Thurstone proposed that there are a few stable and independent mental abilities that he referred to as: primary mental abilities.

Explanation:

what does the advent of behavioral modernity refer to

Answers

Answer: The biological transition is when hominids became hominins.

Explanation: A period when early anatomically modern humans became fully human in symbolic thought and elaboration in cultural creativity.

The advent of behavioral modernity refer to biological transition.

What do you mean by biological transition?

The biological transition include the intrauterine and neonatal periods; puberty, including both adrenarche and gonadarche; pregnancy and the postpartum period; and the perimenopausal and menopausal periods.

The stages are shock, anger, acceptance and commitment. People's initial reaction to the change will likely be shock or denial as they refuse to accept that change is happening. Once the reality sinks in and people accept the change is happening, they tend to react negatively.

Transitions signal relationships between ideas—relationships such as: “Another example coming up—stay alert!” or “Here's an exception to my previous statement” or “Although this idea appears to be true, here's the real story.”

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A nurse is preparing to administer dabigatran to a client who has atrial fibrillation. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this medication is which of the following?
a. to convert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
b. to dissolve clots in the bloodstream
c. to slow the response of the ventricles to the fast atrial impulses
d. to reduce the risk of stroke in clients who have atrial fibrillation.

Answers

The purpose of dagigatran is to dissolve clots in the bloodstream

B. to dissolve clots in the bloodstream

What is dabigatran?

Dabigatran, or Pradaxa , is an anticoagulant used to treat and prevent stroke and blood clots to prevent  in people with atrial fibrillation. Specifically it is used to prevent blood clots following hip. It is used  to warfarin and does not require monitoring by blood tests. It is taken by mouth.

Common side effects is bleeding and gastritis. Other side effects may include bleeding around the allergic reaction and spine such as anaphylaxis. In cases of severe bleeding, it can be reversed with the antidote, idarucizumab. Use is not recommended breastfeeding or during pregnancy. Compared to warfarin it has fewer interactions with other medications. It is a direct thrombin inhibitor.

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A busy schedule can be a barrier to eating healthier foods.

Answers

Answer:

There are a few ways to manage this.

1. Meal prepping: By planning out your meals for the week, you can save time by having pre-made meals and snacks available. This will also help you to plan for healthier options.

2. Planning ahead: Try to plan your meals for the week and make a grocery list before you go to the store. This will help you to stick to healthy items and keep unhealthy snacks out of your grocery cart.

3. Stock up on healthy snacks: If you have healthy snacks like cut-up vegetables, nuts, and fruit readily available, you can grab them quickly when you’re in a hurry.

4. Bring lunch: If you know you won’t have time to make a healthy lunch, prepare it the night before and bring it. This will ensure you eat a healthy meal and do not resort to fast food.

5. Eat out smarter: If you find yourself eating out, opt for healthier options such as salads and grilled proteins.

Explanation:

Which statement is true about people with bulimia nervosa?

a) they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging
b) they show signs of extreme weight loss
c) they live in a state of semistarvation
d) they experience bone loss and amenorrhea

Answers

The statement that is true about people with bulimia nervosa is that they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging.

So option A is correct.

What is bulimia nervosa?

Bulimia nervosa is described as an emotional disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an obsessive desire to lose weight, in which bouts of extreme overeating are followed by fasting or self-induced vomiting or purging.

So from the description of bulimia nervosa, we can conclude from the options given that the correct statement is Option A ( they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging).

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nurse manager is reviewing isolation guidelines with a newly licensed nurse which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indiates understanding of isolation guidelines?

Answers

"I will wear a cover gown when caring for a client who has herpes simplex" statement by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of isolation guidelines.

Lack of social interaction is referred to as isolation and can cause loneliness. It is a state of social isolation that can be brought on by things like lack of mobility, unemployment, or health problems. Isolation might include spending a lot of time alone at home, not having access to resources or participating in the community, and having little to no contact with friends, family, and acquaintances.

Any of these things may make it difficult to create and maintain social networks, which can result in isolation and loneliness.

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which of the characteristics of the malaria parasite plasmodium listed reflect the evolution of mechanisms to evade the immune system? select all that apply.

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The malaria parasite's cell surface proteins display antigenic diversity. The malaria parasite expresses a sticky protein in its plasma membrane, which accounts for the fact that infected cells stay in blood arteries and away from the spleen.

An obligate parasite of insects and vertebrates, Plasmodium is a genus of unicellular eukaryotes. In the course of their life cycles, Plasmodium species develop in blood-feeding insect hosts before injecting parasites into vertebrate hosts during a blood meal.

An infectious disease that affects the entire planet, malaria continues to be the greatest cause of morbidity and mortality in the impoverished countries. Plasmodium falciparum is mostly responsible for severe and deadly malaria.

Plasmodium parasites, which individuals contract through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes, are the source of the acute fever sickness known as malaria. Two of the five parasite species that cause malaria in humans are.

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Karl, a 45-year-old barber, had worked in the same shop his entire life. Last year he disappeared and was found working as a car mechanic known as "K" 300 miles away, saying he had no memory of his former life. Karl's clinical diagnosis would most likely be a. schizophrenia. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. a fugue state. d. a conversion disorder. e. dissociative identity disorder.

Answers

Karl's clinical diagnosis would most likely be a fugue state, which is a temporary amnesia state (Option c).

What is a fugue temporary amnesia state?

A fugue temporary amnesia state is a condition in which the individual loses memory during a short period of time, which is generally accompanied by the recovery of the normal state.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that a fugue temporary amnesia state is a condition in which the individual suffering from this problem is unable to remember for a short period of time.

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the placebo effect is the disappearance of symptoms without any apparent reason or treatment.

Answers

False: The placebo effect does not cause symptoms to go away for no discernible cause or benefit from a given medication.

The placebo effect is what, exactly?

A person's expectation that an activity will be helpful leads to the placebo effect, a positive health consequence. Independent of every specific treatment, the way a healthcare professional engages with a patient may also result in a favorable reaction.

Give an illustration of the placebo effect.

Participants who take the medication see a rise in blood pressure and heart rate as well as faster reaction times. However, when the exact same individuals are given the identical drug and informed that it will help people relax and sleep, most report feeling relaxation instead.

I understand the question you are looking for is

True or False: The placebo effect is the disappearance of symptoms without any apparent reason or treatment.

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1. Which of the following is the FIFTH step of CPR?

Call 9-1-1
Check for breathing
Open the victim's airway
Provide mouth-to-mouth breathing
2. Which of the following are the common causes of choking?

Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating slowly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing after eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and not drinking before or during meals
3. Which of the following is the correct order when you witness a victim needing CPR?

Check the scene, check the victim, call 911, and start compressions immediately
Check the scene, call 911, check the victim, and start compressions immediately
Call 911, check the scene, check the victim, and start compressions immediately
Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately
4. What is the main function of the circulatory system?

Carbon dioxide leaving the body
Moving blood between the heart and lungs
Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood
Filtering the air as it enters the body
5. Which of the following is the 4th leading cause of injury related deaths?

Car accident
Plane crash
Choking
Falling
6. Which of the following is the SIXTH step of using an AED?

Press the shock button
Attach the AED pads
Open the victim's shirt and wipe the chest dry
Tell everyone to "stand clear"
7. To administer back blows, what position should the person be in?

Bent forward at the waist
Standing straight up
Bent forward at the knees
Laying down
8. Which part of your hand should be used to administer back blows?

Fist
Heel
Palm
Wrist
9. At what rate per minute should compressions be administered?

100
150
200
250
10. Which of the following makes up 1 CPR Cycle?

30 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths
30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
100 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
100 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths
11. Which of the following is the lower respiratory system responsible for?

Secreting a mucus that filters, warms, and cleanses the air
Heart getting blood out to every cell in the body
Getting oxygen to the cells of the body
Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood
12. When using an AED, after the shock is delivered when should CPR resume?

Wait 30 seconds
Wait 1 minutes
Immediately
Do not continue CPR
13. Which of the following are considered to be signs of a heart attack?

Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the jaw, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the abdomen, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the abdomen, and pain when swallowing
14. When possible, what is the preferred method of CPR?

Compression-only
Single-person
Two-person
Rescue-breath-only
15. Compression-only CPR should only be used on which of the following types of victims?

Under the age of 8
Victims you witness collapse
Victims you do not witness collapse
Collapsed from choking

Answers

This prompt has to do with the biological systems related to Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

1) The FIFTH step of CPR is: Open the victim's airway (Option 3)

2) The common causes of choking are: "eating too quickly" and "laughing while eating" (Option B and C)

3) The correct order when you witness a person who needs CPR is "Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately" (Option D)

4) The main function of the circulatory system is: "Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood" (Option C)

5) The 4th leading cause of injury-related deaths is falling (Option D)

6) The SIXTH step of using an AED is: "Tell everyone to "stand clear" (Option D)

7) To administer back blows, the position the person should  be in is:  " Standing straight up" (Option B)

8) The part of your hand should be used to administer back blows is: "palm" (Option C)

9) The rate per minute at which compressions be administered is: 100 compressions minute (Option A)

10)  One CPR cycle is given as "30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths" (Option B)

11) The lower respiratory system is responsible for "Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood" (Option C)

12) When using an AED, after the shock is delivered CPR resume immediately (Option C)

13) The option that is considered to be signs of a heart attack are: "Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain" (Option A)

14) When possible, the preferred method of CPR is: "Compression-only" (Option A)

15) Compression-only CPR should only be used on: "Victims you witness collapse" (Option B)

What is Cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency procedure that combines chest compressions with artificial ventilation in an attempt to manually preserve intact cognitive abilities until further measures are taken to restore sudden blood circulation and breathing in a person who has gone into cardiac arrest.

CPR, especially if given soon after a cardiac arrest, has been shown to increase or triple a person's chances of survival. Approximately 90% of persons who have an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest die.

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a client with a long history of alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital with acities

Answers

The nursing priority should be Institute fall prevention/safety measures

The high ammonia levels contribute to deterioration of mental function and to hepatic encephalopathy and hepatic coma; safety is the priority.

Although client may have dyspnea as a result of ascites, it is not life threatening; safety is priority.

Although measuring abdominal girth daily is done to monitor ascites, it is not priority for a confused client; safety is the priority.

Testing stool specimens for blood is not priority; providing for client safety is the priority.

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depending upon the site use, what times of year should one consider if only two fertilizer applications are to be made annually.

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Depending upon the site use, late summer, late fall, mid to late spring times of year should one consider if only one fertilizer application is to be made annually.

What do you understand by fertilizers?

Any substance, whether of natural or synthetic origin, applied to soil or plant tissues to provide plant nutrients is referred to as a fertilizer. It's possible to distinguish fertilizers from liming agents or other non-nutrient soil additives. There are numerous natural and man-made sources of fertilizer. Fertilization for the majority of contemporary agricultural techniques concentrates on the three macronutrients nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K), with sporadic additions of supplements for micronutrients such rock dust. Farmers can use a variety of methods to apply these fertilizers, including dry, pelletized, or liquid application processes, as well as heavy machinery or hand tools.

Thus from above conclusion we can say that depending upon the site use, late summer, late fall, mid to late spring times of year should one consider if only one fertilizer application is to be made annually.

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what percentage of bone loss might occur in the six to eight-year period following menopause?

Answers

20 percent of bone loss might occur in the six to eight-year period following menopause.

Why is their a loss of bone in 8 year period following menopause ?Preventing bone loss is a major concern for women during the menopause and post-menopausal stages. Menopause accelerates bone loss and raises the risk of osteoporosis. According to research, up to 20% of bone loss can occur throughout these stages, and osteoporosis affects nearly one in every ten women over the age of 60 worldwide.One in every two postmenopausal women will have osteoporosis, and the majority will fracture at some point in their lives. Fractures (broken bones) cause discomfort, reduced mobility, and diminished function. Fractures are linked to a lower quality of life and an increased risk of death.

What is menopause, when does it normally occur, and what causes it?Menopause, also known as the climacteric, is the phase in a woman's life when her menstrual periods stop and she is no longer able to bear children. Menopause is typically experienced between the ages of 47 and 54.Menopause is commonly defined by medical professionals as the absence of menstrual bleeding for a year.

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Dex's addiction to drugs is affecting his job. He has been written up twice, lately, for missing shifts at work. Dex's case illustrates the _____ associated with abnormal behavior.

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Dex's addiction to drugs is affecting his job. He has been written up twice lately, for missing shifts at work. Dex's case illustrates the distress associated with abnormal behavior.

Comorbidity is when two or more mental disorders occur in the same person at the same time. Most psychologists agree that mental health problems are caused by a combination of biology and environment.

I'm trying to explain how to interact with Psychologists who often classify behavior as abnormal using her four Des deviations distress dysfunction and danger. A simple definition of anomaly is difficult because it is relative but the definition has some important characteristics.

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a two-factor study with two levels of factor a and three levels of factor b uses a separate group of n

Answers

The effect of one independent variable depends on the level of the second independent variable. A two-factor study with two-factor A levels and three-factor B levels uses a separate group of n = 5 participants for each treatment condition.

There is always the possibility of two main effects and one interaction. You can always compare the means of each main effect and interaction. There are key effects or interactions when the appropriate agents are different. They can have different df values, but they all have the same denominator.

The sampled population must be normally or nearly normally distributed. The samples must be independent. The variances of the populations must be equal. If the p-value is less than your significance level you can reject the null hypothesis. The difference between the two variances is statistically significant.

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Put the Following Steps of a Lifeguard Rotation in the Proper Order

Answers

The steps for a Lifeguard Rotation in the Proper Order are:

Incoming Lifeguard (LG1) performs a proactive scan confirming all is clear before taking over the position.LG1 reports to outgoing lifeguard that all is clear before taking over the position.Equipment is exchanged as lifeguards change position.Once the position change is complete, both lifeguards scan the zone.Outgoing lifeguard performs a proactive bottom scan confirming all clear before moving to the next station.What are the steps for a Lifeguard Rotation?

When there is a Lifeguard Rotation to happen, the incoming lifeguard performs a proactive scan to familiarize themselves with the zone and then confirm that all is clear before they take over the position.

Then the incoming guard will report that all is clear (if it is clear) and then takes over position while the equipment between the lifeguards is exchanged.

Once the incoming lifeguard is positioned, then the two lifeguards carry out another scan. Finally, as the outgoing lifeguard leaves, they will perform a bottom scan to ensure that all is clear and then they move to another station.

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Measuring cerebral blood volume is a method used to infer the existence of neurogenesis in humans. Cerebral blood volume in the subiculum significantly increases following an exercise intervention.a. True b. False

Answers

It is true that ceasuring cerebral blood volume is a method used to infer the existence of neurogenesis in humans and cerebral blood volume in the subiculum significantly increases following an exercise intervention.

Neurogenesis is that the formation of neurons First State novo—the hallmark of a developing brain. there's substantial hippocampal growth in adult humans, however humans seem distinctive among mammals therein there's no detectable neural structure growth however continuous addition of recent neurons within the striate body.

The subiculum is a important structure positioned between the hippocampus correct and entorhinal and different cortices, in addition as a spread of neural structure structures. it's an under-investigated region that plays a key role within the mediation of hippocampal-cortical interaction.

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During her hospitalization for pneumonia, the provider orders arterial blood gases for Mona Hernandez. What is the best explanation for why this is ordered?

Answers

Patient has shallow, ineffective breathing. Mona Hernandez's laboratory work indicates an elevated white blood cell count with a left shift in the differential.

which nutrient provides a major source of dietary sulfur?

Answers

Proteins nutrient provides a major source of dietary sulfur.

What are nutrients?

Nutrients are chemical compounds in food that are used by the body to function properly and maintain health. Examples include proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, and minerals.

Minerals, like calcium and iron, are important for growth, development and maintenance of the tissues and cells in our bodies. Vitamins, like vitamin A and vitamin C, are important for growth, development and maintenance of the tissues and cells in our bodies.

People with healthy eating patterns live longer and are at lower risk for serious health problems such as heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and obesity. For people with chronic diseases, healthy eating can help manage these conditions and prevent complications.

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A food worker at a deli spends three and a half hours slicing meats on a deli slicer. She takes a lunch break and returns to the deli. What must she do before using the deli slicer?.

Answers

She must clean and sanitize the slicer with slicer sanitizer when she returns to the deli after the lunch break.

Thermal sanitize uses hot water or steam for a predetermined amount of time and at a predetermined temperature. Use of a recognised chemical sanitizer at a particular concentration and contact period constitutes chemical sanitization. Sanitizing gets rid of dirt and a tiny bit of bacteria. Before being sanitize, some objects and surfaces are cleaned to remove filth.

Deli is a shortened form of the German word "delicatessen," which means "delicacies." It started off being used to describe the establishments selling the cuisine after initially referring to the dish itself. Foods that are prepared and offered as ready-to-eat items at retail delis are referred to as deli goods.

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dietary recommendations for individuals trying to gain weight as muscle include which of the following?

Answers

Individuals must choose nutrient rich foods if they are trying to gain weight as muscle.

What should be the dietary recommendations for muscle weight gain?

It's crucial to keep in mind that weight-gain diets do not call for eating processed foods, foods loaded in fat or sugar, or items like wings, hamburgers, chips, or soda.

The dietary recommendations should be-

Increase the consumption of meats, poultry, and fish (sources of high quality protein), 1% milk instead of 2%, and whole grain foods (pasta, rice, potatoes), to other food exchanges, add fruit (apricots and pineapples are examples of good snacks), fresh vegetables (broccoli and cauliflower), milk is a calorie-dense healthy beverage, and saturated fats should be limited but not entirely avoided. eat three meals that are balanced and two to three snacks each day.

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Approximately how many sexually active teens will contract a STI before graduating from high school
One out of every three
One out of every five
One out of every seven
One out of every ten
O
5 points

Answers

Answer:

Approximately one out of every three sexually active teens will contract an STI before graduating from high school.

Explanation:

.

The nurse is providing education on the prevention of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) to clients. The nurse understands which client is at the highest risk of contracting an STI?
a. A 30-year-old client who consumes alcohol multiple times per week, uses cocaine, and has a history of prostitution.
b. A 20-year-old client who reports having protected sexual intercourse with three others, male and female, over the past five years.
c. A 25-year-old client who refused to receive the human papillomavirus vaccine and whose parents both have HIV.
d. A 17-year-old client who is in a monogamous relationship with a 25-year-old partner and engages in unprotected sex.

Answers

The nurse is educated regarding the transmission of STIs, and she knows that her 30-year-old client consumes alcohol multiple times per week, uses cocaine, and has a history of prostitution. Option A is the correct answer as this person has a high risk of an STI.

What is the STI and what are its consequences?

STIs can infect people who have a genetic history of any STD (sexually transmitted disease) or are in an unprotected physical relationship. Here, the 30-year-old client has a history of prostitution that shows he is at high risk for STIs. The 17-year-old client is monogamous, and nothing is mentioned about the chance of an STI, so this person has a low chance. A 25-year-old client has HIV parents, but it is not clear that both parents are HIV positive, and further, this client has not been in any unsafe physical relationships, so he cannot be infected.

Hence, the answer is option A, which is the 30-year-old client with a history of prostitution.

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A nurse is caring for a client in crisis who has endured a physical assault. The nurse would expect to see which behavior associate with the integration phase of crisis?

Answers

The nurse would expect to see multiple types of behavior. Depending on their circumstances, each person deals with trauma in a unique way.

What integration phase of a crisis?

The acute phase's nightmares and feelings of shock, guilt, dread, shame, impotence, wrath, despair, and fear of being touched may resurface. Many survivors during this stage believe that their emotions indicate major mental disorders or that they are going insane.

During the integration period, the patient may experience depression or anxiety, or they may want to communicate. The nightmares and emotions.

Therefore, the nurse would expect to see a variety of behaviors. Each person responds to trauma in a different way depending on their circumstances.

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True or false? the lungs have an efficient blood supply to take away the oxygenated blood and maintain the concentration gradient.

Answers

It’s true :)))))))))))

why do people drink alcohol?how do they become alcoholic

Answers

The reason why people become alcoholics is that they are simply addicted to the taste. Drinking alcohol can also be a coping mechanism for some people. They may be depressed or have low self-esteem and drinking is a way to escape reality.

A medical student makes a transverse cut of a cadaver's leg. The two resulting sections could be referred to as the superior and inferior sections anterior and posterior sections left and right sections frontal and sagittal sections.

Answers

A medical student makes a transverse cut of a cadaver's leg. The two resulting sections could be referred to as the superior and inferior sections.

A cadaver, also called a corpse, is a deceased person's body that is used by medical professionals, students, and other researchers to study anatomy, locate illness areas, ascertain the causes of death, and provide tissue for repairing defects in living people. In order to further their studies, medical school students study and dissect corpses. Archaeologists and art students are among the other people who study cadavers.

When referring to body components that are at one end of the body, the terms superior and inferior sections (cranial and caudal) are employed. The head (cranial) is where superior structures are located, while the feet are where inferior (caudal) structures are located. makes a distinction between the superior (upper) and inferior sections (lower) parts of the body. plane of sagittal. horizontal line that separates the body's right and left sides.

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rodolfo is talking about his family and himself. complete his statements logically to say whether or not each person likes the item in parentheses evaluate the sum of 4.2 and 466.99 How does this illegal e-waste recycling affect the environment? Workplace safety is only the responsibility of the health and safety representative. True false. what is the measure of the base in the triangle below question 7 options 11 45 25 30 A13x + 137x+760B What is the most common format states use to choose their presidential nominees quizlet? SOMEONE PLEASE HELP ME IM STRUGGLING c. Include adjusting entries such as the following:i. Deferral Expenseii. Deferral Revenueiii. Accrued Expenseiv. Accrued Revenued. Prepare an adjusted the trial balance e. Develop the Financial Statements for XYZ company f. Prepare closing entries and postclosing trial balance 2. Why would it be important for the Allies to have a successful invasion of Bougainville? the hudson valley renegades stadium hold a maximum of 4,505 people. During the height of their popularity, they sold out 219 consecutive games. how many tickets were sold during this time? Perky's imagery study (1910) had participants describe images of objects that were dimly projected onto a screen. The significance of Perky's results was thata. screen images interfered with people's ability to form mental images.b. people were influenced by the projected images when forming their mental images, even when they were unaware that the projected images were present.c. the screen images had no effect on people's mental images.d. people "used" the screen images to create their mental images but only when the objects were unfamiliar. In a clothing store, a shirt that sells for $15 is marked 10% off. What is the discount? What is the sale price of the shirt? In a company, 90% of the workers are woman. If 430 people work for the company who arent woman, how many workers are there in all? Use pencil and papare. Show two different ways that you can solve this problem the heritability of intelligence refers to Galt Industries has 50 million shares outstanding and a market capitalization of $1. 25 billion. It also has $750 million in debt outstanding. Galt Industries has decided to delever the firm by issuing new equity and completely repaying all the outstanding debt. Assume perfect capital markets. Suppose you are a shareholder in Galt industries holding 100 shares, and you disagree with this decision to delever the firm. You can undo the effect of this decision byA) borrowing $1500 and buying 60 shares of stock. B) selling 32 shares of stock and lending $800. C) borrowing $1000 and buying 40 shares of stock. D) selling 40 shares of stock and lending $1000 See attached question. The branded operating benchmarking data on p. 7 of each issue of the Footwear Industry Report showing the industry-low, industry-average, and industry-high values for operating profit per branded pair sold in each geographic region o always merit close attention because when these benchmarks reveal that a company's operating profits are negative or unattractively small in one or more geographic regions, managers are well-advised to pursue immediate corrective actions in the upcoming decision round. o are of considerable value to the managers of companies looking for strong evidence that their company needs to cut branded footwear prices in the internet and wholesale segments and/or spend more money on marketing efforts so as to increase branded sales and market share in one or more geographic regions. o are most valuable to the managers of companies whose ROE was well below the reported ROE industry-average benchmark in one or more regions. have little-decision-making value because the benchmarking data do not identify which companies have the lowest/highest operating profit margins per branded pair sold. o have the greatest value to the managers of companies whose market share outcomes were below the reported industry-average benchmark for market share in one or more geographic regions. a child who ate cream od broccoli soup and became ill now feels ill when it is served wo pieces of clay are moving directly toward each other. one piece having mass 300~\text{g}300 g is moving to the right at a speed of 1~\text{m/s}1 m/s. the other piece has mass 600~\text{g}600 g and is moving to the left at a speed of 0.75~\text{m/s}0.75 m/s. when they collide, they stick together and move as one piece. use the mlc map document (it shows all the typical components of a mid-latitude cyclone: the l, fronts, isobars), and your lecture notes and diagrams from meteorology lectures 6 through 13 to answer the questions below.