a patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis asks the nurse why oral medications must be given in the clinic. the nurse will tell the patient that medications are given in the clinic so that:

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Answer 1

The nurse will tell the patient that medications are given in the clinic so that clinic staff can observe adherence to drug regimens.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacterium that causes tuberculosis (TB). TB bacteria typically attack the lungs, but they can attack any part of the body, including the kidney, spine, and brain. Not everyone infected with tuberculosis becomes ill. Tuberculosis bacteria spread from person to person via tiny droplets released into the air by coughs and sneezes.

When an infected person coughs or sneezes, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis spread. The majority of people who are infected with the bacteria that cause tuberculosis do not have symptoms. When symptoms do appear, they are typically accompanied by a cough, weight loss, night sweats, and fever. Those who are asymptomatic do not always require treatment. Patients experiencing active symptoms will require a lengthy course of antibiotics.

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the client is prescribed the beta-blocker, metoprolo| (lopressor). which assessment data would make the nurse question administering this medication?

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The client is prescribed the beta-blocker, metoprolo| (lopressor). The assessment data would make the nurse question administering this medication is the client's apical pulse is 56.

Cardiovascular illnesses and other conditions are the main conditions that beta-blockers, a class of medications, are used to treat. For the treatment of tachycardia, hypertension, myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias, hyperthyroidism, essential tremor, aortic dissection, portal hypertension, glaucoma, migraine prophylaxis, and other disorders, beta-blockers are recommended and have FDA approval. Additionally, they are employed in the management of uncommonr diseases such long QT syndrome and hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy.

Both musicians and athletes may use beta-blockers for their anxiolytic and sympathetic nervous system-inhibiting effects. They have a strong anxiolytic impact even though they are not FDA approved for the treatment of anxiety-related diseases. They might result in better stage performance when combined with a decrease in tremors. Propranolol is an illustration of a beta blocker that is frequently used for anxiety or stage fright; it may lessen some peripheral signs of anxiety, such as tachycardia, perspiration, and general tension.

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a positive tinel's test can be used to assess carpal tunnel syndrome. what other tests can be used to assess for this?

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A positive tinel's test can be used to assess carpal tunnel syndrome and the other tests which can be used to assess for this are cubital tunnel syndrome, or radial neuropathy.

Radial neuropathy happens once the nerve is broken or pinched thanks to trauma, sure prolonged repetitive motions, or different conditions . To treat a nerve injury, your doctor could recommend a splint or over-the-counter pain drugs. In some cases, you'll want physiotherapy or a nerve block, an injection to reduce the pain.

Cubital tunnel syndrome happens once the nervus ulnaris, that passes through the ginglymoid joint tunnel (a tunnel of muscle, ligament, and bone) on the within of the elbow, is disjointed and becomes inflamed, swollen, and irritated.

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which action by a nurse indicates application of the critical thinking model to make the best clinical decisions?

Answers

Answer:

Using the nursing process

Explanation:

A nurse is preparing to administer blood to a client the unit of blood on hand is type O negative and the client is type a positive blood. Which of the following action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the blood as ordered
B. Contact the provider for further orders
C. Notify the blood bank
D. Complete an incident report

Answers

The following action should the nurse take Administer the blood as ordered. Option A.

The nurse first reviews the physician's instructions regarding blood transfusions and ensures that the client has been informed of the procedure and has signed an informed consent form. Once this is done, the nurse should ensure that at least an 18 or 19-gauge IV needle is inserted into the patient.

For emergency transfusions, O-negative blood is the blood type with the lowest risk of causing serious reactions in most transfusion recipients. For this reason, it is sometimes called the universal blood donor type. To give blood a healthcare practitioner inserts a thin needle usually into a vein in the arm or hand.

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Which of the following describes the most effective method to instruct an older adult in a new exercise?
A. Provide a list of written instructions, including what not to do.
B. Allow the individual time to look at the sign posted on the exercise machine.
C. Verbally explain the exercise, including adequate detail and a clear health objective.
D. Perform the exercise while explaining the objective and technique.

Answers

D. Perform the exercise while explaining the objective and technique is describes the most effective method to instruct an older adult in a new exercise.

Exercise is a physical activity for the body that improves or maintains physical fitness as well as general health and wellness.A number of goals are pursued, including fostering strength and growth, developing the cardiovascular system and muscles, honing sports skills, enhancing health, losing or maintaining weight, and even just for enjoyment.

They maintain the condition of your heart, lungs, and circulatory system and enhance your general fitness.  Biking, swimming, jogging, and brisk walking are among examples.Exercises that focus on building muscle strength are known as resistance training. Weightlifting and the use of a resistance band are a couple of examples.

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which information should the nurse include in the teaching session when preparing a client for arthrocentesis? select all that apply.

Answers

Answer:

"A local anesthetic agent may be injected into the joint site for your comfort."

"A syringe and needle will be used to withdraw fluid from your joint."

"You will need to wear a compression bandage for several days after the procedure."

Explanation:

which of following process will reduce the fatigue effect on the life of a boat made of aluminum alloy to be used in the west coast if atlantic ocean? i. applying extra cold work on the alloy ii. heating the alloy to high temperature and quench it iii. drilling a hole to remove the water inside to boat iv. making all the outer surfaces shiny and smooth

Answers

ii. Heating the alloy to high temperature and quench it.  This may reduce the  fatigue effect of alloys. The alloys' fatigue impact might be lessened as a result.

Approximately one-third of an alloy's tensile strength is reserved for fatigue resistance. When employing high strength Al alloys in applications where fatigue is a limiting feature, engineers are required to create solutions that work around this restriction. The fatigue strength of aluminium alloys has improved, but not by nearly as much as it would for steel despite the materials scientists' best attempts to change their microstructure.

A specific fatigue limit exists for some metals, including ferrous and titanium alloys. The maximum amount of entirely reversed bending stress that a material can bear for a certain number of cycles without breaking is what is referred to as the fatigue strength in materials that do not have a clear limit.

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Nikki has a disease that interferes with the production of lipase in her pancreas. Based on this information, a sign of this disease is
O lack of saliva in the mouth.
O low C-reactive protein in blood.
O high amounts of fat in the stools.
O ulcer formation in the stomach.

Answers

low reactive protein in blood

Answer:

High amounts of fat in the stools.

Explanation:

Based on the information provided, a sign of Nikki's disease is high amounts of fat in the stools. Lipase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas that helps to digest fats in the body. If the production of lipase is impaired, this can lead to undigested fats being present in the stools. This can be observed through the presence of fatty or greasy stools, which may have a pale or light-colored appearance. The other options listed, such as lack of saliva in the mouth, low C-reactive protein in blood, and ulcer formation in the stomach, are not directly related to the impaired production of lipase in the pancreas.

a 14-year-old boy presents with headache, fever, and altered mental status. he was recently seen and evaluated for sinusitis 1 week ago but was not given antibiotic treatment at that time. a ct scan of the head is performed. what management is indicated?

Answers

Ceftriaxone, metronidazole and neurosurgery consultation is indicated.

This patient presents with signs, symptoms and imaging consistent with an intracranial abscess. Immediate treatment includes the administration of antibiotics against the most likely pathogens as well as neurosurgical consultation. CNS abscess is unusual in immunocompetent hosts but can result from direct spread from other infections. Dental infections, otitis media, and sinus infections are the most common direct spread causes. Patients who have multiple abscesses should be evaluated for endocarditis.

The most common causative agents are Streptococcus species and anaerobic bacteria. Patients with a history of trauma or intracranial surgery are also at risk for MRSA. CT scan is the diagnostic modality of choice and typically is followed by a lumbar puncture (unless there are signs of increased intracranial pressure), which aids in determining the etiologic agent.

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a parent reports that the 6-year-old daughter recently began wetting the bed and running a low-grade fever. a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (uti) was made following a urinalysis that came back positive for bacteria and protein. antibiotics have been prescribed for the child. what are appropriate nursing interventions? select all that apply.

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A diagnosis of urinary tract infection (uti) was made following a urinalysis that came back positive for bacteria and protein and antibiotics have been prescribed for the child therefore the appropriate nursing interventions include the following below which is option A and B:

Assess the parent's understanding of UTI and its causes. Instruct the parent to administer the antibiotic as prescribed, even if the symptoms diminish.

What is UTI?

This is known as urinary tract infection and it is an infection of the urinary system which mostly affects the bladder and urethra. It is caused by bacteria and is treated using antibiotics in which the dosage must be completed even if symptoms diminish

The  parent's understanding of UTI and its cause should also be assessed so as to prevent any form of reoccurrence.

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The options are:

Assess the parent's understanding of UTI and its causes. Instruct the parent to administer the antibiotic as prescribed, even if the symptoms diminish.Discontinue treatment as as soon as symptoms disappear.

helga is in her fifth month of a healthy pregnancy and sometimes she can feel the fetus moving, a common experience called

Answers

This feutus moving experience is called quickening. Although some women may experience it earlier or later, quickening typically occurs between 16 and 20 weeks of pregnancy.

Quickening is the term for when a pregnant woman begins to feel the movement of her unborn child (womb). It resembles flutters, bubbles, or little pulses. Pregnancy quickening is when you detect your unborn child's initial movements. The first time you feel your baby move within your uterus (womb), it could seem unusual. When you begin to notice these minute "quickening" movements, it might be comforting to know that your developing baby (foetus) is healthy and developing. It might strengthen the connection and bond you have with your unborn child to feel their movements.

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the nurse is admitting an older adult to a skilled nursing facility. what assessment parameters will the nurse expect to find with the musculoskeletal assessment? select all that apply.

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The assessment parameters that the nurse expects to find with the musculoskeletal assessment are:

decreased endurancejoint stiffnessdecreased range of motion

The musculoskeletal exam assists in identifying the functional anatomy associated with clinical conditions, thereby differentiating the underlying system involved and potentially pointing to the condition, assisting in early diagnosis and intervention.

Inspection, palpation, and observing the range of motion of the joints are techniques for assessing the musculoskeletal system. The musculoskeletal exam assists in identifying the functional anatomy associated with clinical conditions, thereby differentiating the underlying system involved and potentially pointing to the condition, assisting in early diagnosis and intervention. The 5 P's acronym is used systematically in a neurovascular assessment to determine the presence of compartment syndrome. The letters P stand for pain, pallor, pulse, paresthesia, and paralysis.

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a nurse is assessing a patient's risk for pressure ulcers using the braden scale. which area would the nurse address?

Answers

Answer:

Moisture

Explanation:

the nurse teaches the client that the presence of crystals in the synovial fluid obtained from arthrocentesis confirms which disease process?

Answers

the nurse teaches the client that the presence of crystals in the synovial fluid obtained from arthrocentesis confirms Gout disease process.

Your joints are filled with a viscous fluid called synovial fluid, also referred to as joint fluid. In order to avoid friction when moving your joints, the fluid cushions the ends of the bones. A series of tests known as a synovial fluid analysis look for joint diseases. In the cavities of synovial joints, there is a viscous non-Newtonian fluid known as synovial fluid, commonly known as synovia. Synovial fluid's main function is to lessen friction between the articular cartilage of synovial joints during motion due to its consistency, which is similar to egg white. The drying of synovial fluid can also be brought on by some chronic illnesses including diabetes, hypertension, or arthritic conditions like gout or rheumatism.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line. When assessing the client, the nurse notes that the client's arm seems swollen above the PICC insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?A. Measure the circumference of both upper arms.B. Notify the provider who inserted the PICC line.C. Remove the PICC line.D. Apply a cold pack to the client's upper arm.

Answers

The actions that the nurse should take first is to measure the circumference of both upper arms. That is option A.

What is total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is defined as the process by which an individual that is incapable of taking in food through the mouth into the gastrointestinal tract is fed through a parenteral route.

The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) must include the following to provide an adequate diet for the affected individual:

protein, carbohydrates (in the form of glucose), glucose, fat, vitamins, and minerals.

One of the ways to achieve the total parenteral nutrition is feeding through the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line.

It is one of the responsibility of a nurse in duty to monitor the insertion site of the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line.

If the site is swollen, the first action the nurse should take is to measure the circumference of both upper arms.

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a school-aged child is being admitted for probable viral meningitis. what arrangement does the nurse need to make in order to prepare for this client?

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The arrangement the nurse needs to make in order to prepare for this client Needs standard precautions only.

Viral meningitis is caused by a group of enteroviruses, such as those that also cause mumps or measles. School-aged clients generally fare better than very young children or infants. The Centers for Disease has determined that standard precautions are adequate for older children and adults.

Deep breathing can be used as a relaxation strategy to reduce perceived pain. For example, a doctor can tell a child to take a deep breath and breathe out slowly practice the technique with the child and use prompts to help with the procedure. increase.

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a nurse is caring for a client in the first 4 weeks of pregnancy. the nurse should expect to collect which assessment findings?

Answers

Answer:

Breast sensitivity

Explanation:

at a very large incident, the ____ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls.

Answers

At a very large incident, the operations section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls.

Emergency Medical Service (EMS) is a branch of emergency services dedicated to providing out-of-hospital acute medical aid and/or transport to definitive care, to patients with diseases and injuries that the patient, or the caregiver, believes constitutes a medical emergency.

The purpose of the Operations Section is to hold out the response activities delineate within the Incident. Action arrange. Operations Section objectives include: to offer disease info to responders, clinicians, the public, and other. They support the event of the Incident Action decide to guarantee it accurately reflects current operations.

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a client with increased intracranial pressure has a cerebral perfusion pressure (cpp) of 40 mm hg. how should the nurse interpret the cpp value?

Answers

The nurse should closely monitor the client's vital signs and neurological status and report any changes to the healthcare provider.

What is CPP value?

A client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is at risk for decreased cerebral perfusion, which is the flow of blood to the brain. The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is a measure of the perfusion of blood to the brain and is calculated by subtracting the ICP from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). A normal CPP is around 70-100 mm Hg.

A CPP of 40 mm Hg in a client with increased ICP is a cause for concern, as it indicates a potentially insufficient perfusion of blood to the brain. The nurse should closely monitor the client's vital signs and neurological status and report any changes to the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider may need to take measures to increase the CPP, such as administering medications to lower the ICP or increasing the MAP through the use of fluids or vasopressor drugs.

It is important to maintain an adequate CPP in clients with increased ICP to ensure sufficient blood flow to the brain and prevent further damage to the brain tissue. The nurse should follow the healthcare provider's orders and closely monitor the client's CPP to ensure that it remains within the normal range.

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on the patient's rhythm strip, you note there are pacemaker spikes that are not followed by a p wave or a qrs. what type of pacemaker malfunction is this called?

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On the patient's rhythm strip, you note there are pacemaker spikes that are not followed by a p wave or a qrs. This malfunction is called asynchronous pacing.

Failure to capture is the term used when the pacemaker produces an electrical impulse (pacer spike) but no depolarization is seen. An atrial pacemaker spike is seen on the ECG, however it is not followed by a P wave or a QRS complex (ventricular pacemaker). This is not how a pacemaker normally works. When the pacemaker fails to start an electrical stimulus when it should, this is known as failure to pace or fire. Absence of pacer spikes on the rhythm strip indicates a problem. Failure to perceive is the term used when a pacemaker initiates an electrical impulse despite not sensing the patient's own heart rhythm. Pacer spikes that fall too near to the patient's own rhythm and earlier than normal are signs of failure to perceive.

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a client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (fosamax), and the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication administration. which morning schedule would indicate to the nurse that the client teaching has been effective?

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A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (fosamax), and the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication administration. The indication that proves that the nurse that the client teaching has been effective is he takes medication, go for a 30 minute morning walk, then eat breakfast.

Because of osteoporosis, bones become weak and brittle, making fractures possible even from little pressures like coughing or bending over. The hip, wrist, and spine are the most typical sites for osteoporosis-related fractures. The living tissue that makes up bones is continually being destroyed and rebuilt.

Women who have experienced menopause may use alendronate to both prevent and treat osteoporosis (bone weakening). Additionally, this drug can be used to treat and prevent osteoporosis brought on by prolonged corticosteroid usage in both men and women, as well as to improve bone mass in men with osteoporosis (cortisone-like medicine).

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true or false? for diseases with no treatment or with treatment that is expensive and potentially harmful, it is better to have a low threshold for classifying an individual with a borderline test result as having the disease.

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It is false, for diseases with no treatment or with treatment that is expensive and potentially harmful, it is better to have a low threshold for classifying an individual with a borderline test result as having the disease.

There seem to be four main types of disease infectious diseases, deficiency diseases, hereditary diseases , and physiological diseases. Infectious diseases include the flu, measles, HIV, strep throat, COVID-19, and salmonella. Noninfectious diseases include cancer, diabetes, congestive heart failure, and Alzheimer's disease.

There is no specific test for BPD, but a comprehensive psychiatric interview and medical exam can help a healthcare provider make a diagnosis. After that, you can seek appropriate treatment, begin to manage your symptoms more effectively, and move on with your life.

The term borderline intellectual functioning refers to a group of people who function on the cusp of normal intellectual functioning and intellectual disability, with IQs ranging from 70 to 85, or between 1 and 2 standard deviations below the mean on the normal curve of intelligence distribution.

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a patient remains in the labor and delivery unit after a forceps delivery of a 10-lb, 8-oz healthy newborn. thirty minutes after delivery, the patient is reporting severe perineal pain and pressure despite having an epidural. her vital signs are normal except for a heart rate of 122 bpm. what is the first thing the nurse should assess for?

Answers

The first thing the nurse should assess for is Hematoma.

Fundus assessment Approximately 1 hour after delivery the fundus is firm and at the navel level. The fundus continues to descend into the pelvis at a rate of about 1 cm or finger width per day and becomes impalpable at 14 days of age.

The most common cause of PPH is uterine atony. Patients at increased risk for uterine atony include patients with severe uterine dilation with prolonged or rapidly progressing labor use of oxytocin to induce or augment labor and use of magnesium sulfate. A complete assessment of neonatal care should include measurements such as weight length head circumference and vital signs.

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a nurse caring for a client with borderline personality disorder (bpd) consistently informs the client of the length of the relationship and routinely prepares the client for termination and the end of hospitalization. which is the nurse trying to prevent?

Answers

Since the nurse consistently informs the client of the length of the relationship and routinely prepares the client for termination and the end of hospitalization. The thing that the nurse is trying to prevent option D: Maladaptive expression of emotions.

What is issue about about?

It is likely that the nurse is trying to prevent the client from experiencing a sense of abandonment or rejection, which can be common for individuals with borderline personality disorder (BPD). BPD is characterized by instability in relationships, self-image, and mood, as well as impulsive behaviors.

People with BPD often have a strong fear of being abandoned or rejected, and may experience intense emotional reactions to perceived threats to their relationships.

Therefore, By consistently informing the client of the length of the relationship and preparing them for termination and the end of hospitalization, the nurse may be trying to help the client feel more secure and less anxious about the end of the therapeutic relationship.

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See full question below

A nurse caring for a client with borderline personality disorder (BPD) consistently informs the client of the length of the relationship and routinely prepares the client for termination and the end of hospitalization. Which is the nurse trying to prevent?

Mania

Depression

Poor social skills

Maladaptive expression of emotions

Which of the following is most appropriate of the medical assistant in
responding to an emergency situation?
O Act when transportation is available.
O Act quickly and assess the nature of the situation.
O Act after the provider tells you to do so.
O Act only in emergency situations in the medical office.
Question 5
2 pts

Answers

The most appropriate response for a medical assistant in an emergency situation is to act quickly and assess the nature of the situation. In an emergency, it is important to take immediate action to help the affected individual and ensure their safety. It is also important to assess the situation in order to determine the appropriate course of action and provide the necessary medical care. The medical assistant should not wait for transportation or for the provider to tell them what to do, as this could potentially delay crucial medical care.
Take action while waiting for emergency, act quick times of emergency should never be wasted
Act quick and assess the nature of the situation.

a nurse working in a rural setting is documenting care using a paper format. the nurse records the routine care, normal findings, and client problems in a narrative note. the nurse reviews the health care provider's information in the health care provider's progress notes. the nurse is using which method of documentation?

Answers

The nurse is using source-oriented method of documentation for the documentation of the rural setting.

What is the source-oriented method of documentation?

A source-oriented record or the source-oriented method of documentation organizes information of the patients in a hospital based on the recording by members or sources within a healthcare facility. The sources of the documentation are the nurses, physicians, or specific departments involved in the treatment of patients in the hospital.

The primary purpose of the source-oriented documents is to record the data about business activities or the patients health in the healthcare sector. Source documents helps in the standardization of data collection procedures for an organization and provide better control and accuracy of the information.

Source oriented medical record documents are grouped according to their point of origin such as laboratory records together, radiology together, clinical notes, and so on. Thus, the physicians progress notes for a single episode of the patient care are arranged generally in reverse chronological order in this method, and filed together in the MR.

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there is a multiple vehicle collision on the freeway. you arrive after the fire department and law enforcement have closed the freeway and secured the scene. you notice multiple patients that are lying on the ground with massive wounds and blood pooling. a few patients are sitting on the barrier, talking and appear to have minimal injuries. lastly, there are a few patients still in their vehicles, and you notice firefighters working on extricating them. you are the only emergency medical staff available at this moment and are assigned to triage the scene. you decide to give the patients sitting on the barrier a triage priority number of?

Answers

You decide to give the patients sitting on the barrier a triage priority number of 3.

Triage is a practice used in medicine when acute care cannot be provided due to a lack of resources. The process prioritizes care for those who are most in need of it and will benefit the most from it. More broadly, it refers to the prioritization of all medical care. It is most often required in its acute form on the battlefield, during a pandemic, or during peacetime when an accident results in a mass casualty that overwhelms nearby healthcare facilities' capacity.

Triage always adheres to the modern interpretation of the Hippocratic oath, but there is plenty of room for interpretation, leading to more than one concurrent idea of its nature. The best established theories and practical scoring systems used in this article come from the field of acute physical trauma in an emergency room setting; obviously, a broken bone counts for less than uncontrolled arterial bleeding, which is likely to result in death. However, no current principle applies to mental health, reproductive health (including abortion), chronic medical conditions, geriatrics, or palliative care (including euthanasia).

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the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) records a capillary blood glucose of 253 mg/dl (14.04 mmol/l) and the nurse administered insulin for coverage to the client. the uap reports to the nurse that the blood glucose was incorrect. what actions should the nurse take? select all that apply.

Answers

The nurse should take these actions:

Complete an incident report.Obtain a current blood glucose level.Observe the client for hypoglycemia.Report the incident to the healthcare provider.

The nurse should obtain a current blood glucose level to determine whether it is higher or lower than the amount stated, which will help the nurse correct the error. Because the nurse administered insulin to the client, the client's blood glucose level may drop dramatically. Report the incident to the healthcare provider so that an order can be issued, and fill out an incident report detailing what happened. Reprimanding the UAP for the incorrect blood glucose level will not resolve the situation.

Nursing assistant, nursing auxiliary, auxiliary nurse, patient care technician, home health aide/assistant, geriatric aide/assistant, psychiatric aide, nurse aide, and nurse tech are all common titles for UAPs.

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based on the report that the admitting nurse received and a diagnosis of gastroenteritis and dehydration, what is the priority nursing action in caring for matthew? provide a rationale for the priority action.

Answers

The priority nursing action is to initiate IV access. The main objective for a dehydrated client who is dehydrated is rehydration. Due to the client's vomiting, oral replacement is not an option.

What nursing issue is most important for a patient with gastroenteritis?

The main nursing diagnoses are based on the assessment data, and they are Infection risks connected to poor secondary defenses or inadequate knowledge to prevent pathogen exposure. Constantly having diarrheal stools is associated with impaired skin integrity. inadequate fluid intake caused by diarrheal feces.

How can dehydration affect the body?

Your cardiovascular system has to work harder to efficiently pump blood when you lose fluid because your blood is more concentrated. You urinate less as a result of a high blood concentration because it causes your kidneys to retain more water.

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two phenomena that are difficult to demonstrate in evaluative conditioning are occasion-setting and...

Answers

Two phenomena that are difficult to demonstrate in evaluative conditioning are occasion-setting and extinction.

Evaluative conditioning is a term that refers to a change in attitude or behavior when paired with stimuli that (naturally) evoke positive or negative emotions about an object. Some examples of evaluative conditioning are present in:

Marketing and advertisingAssociation with celebrity

There are two forms of stimuli that are hard to demonstrate for evaluative conditioning tests. The first one is occasion setting, which is the ability of a stimulus to modulate the efficacy of association between stimulus(es) or between stimulus and reinforcer. The second one is extinction. It's hard to demonstrate because unintentionally unlearning a behavior and eventually stops doing it altogether is difficult with conscience.

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r(x) = x^2 + 5x + 4 write r(x) in factored form. I would like an explanation as to how you get the answer please! Complete the paragraph with the appropriate forms of the verb ser and the adjectives, as indicated by the words in parentheses. Buenos das! Yo (1. ser) Jacobo y ella (2. ser) Mnica. Nosotros (3. ser) estudiantes en la Universidad Central de Venezuela. Mnica (4. ser) estudiante de literatura, y es muy (5. inteligente) y (6. trabajador) . Las clases (7. ser) muy (8. difcil) , pero los profesores son (9. bueno) y (10. simptico) . (-20, 12)(17, 2)(-11, 8)(17, 8)(11, 2)Is this relation a function? What year was Blanca Oliver the first female candidate of a national party in Paraguay? over the past 30 years, the sample standard deviations of the rates of return for stock x and stock y were 0.20 and 0.12, respectively. the sample covariance between the returns of x and y is 0.0096. the correlation of the rates of return between x and y is the closest to . 9) During a game of bowling, which of the following describe the ball's motion?(SELECT ALL ANSWERS THAT APPLY)A) The ball is accelerated while it is pushed by the student's hand due to anunbalanced force.B) The ball slows down as it rolls because friction exerts an unbalanced force.C) The ball is accelerated while it is held in the student's hand due to balancedForces.D) The ball does not change its motion as it rolls because of the balanced forceprovided by friction.E) The ball does not change its motion while it is held in the student's hand due tobalanced forces. Instructor Celsius looked at her class data from Quiz 3. She recorded the students' amount of study time (in minutes) and quiz score (out of 100) She made scatterplot of her data and saw that it had linear pattern. She computed that r = 0.80.After telling the class about these results one student figures this means that if they study _ very long time they will make very high quiz score: What Is the wrong with this conclusion? The teacher is using the wrong type of plot; thc efore the results are invalid. Since 8 you know the slope will be negative 50 studying long time will give vou a lower score The student is assuming that correlation implics causation and are correct methylhydrazine (ch6n2) is commonly used as a liquid rocket fuel. when 4.00 g of methylhydrazine is combusted in a bomb calorimeter, the temperature of the calorimeter increases from 25.00 oc to 39.05 oc. in a separate experiment the heat capacity of the calorimeter is measured to be 7.794 kj/oc. what is the heat of reaction for the combustion of a mole of ch6n2 in this calorimeter? PLEASE FOLLOW INTRUCTIONS, does not have to be anything specific Some antimicrobials are initially synthesized by a microorganism and then modified by pharmaceutical companies to improve their properties. These would be referred to as a)semisynthetics. b)antibiotics. c)chemosynthetic agents. d)synthetics. four-year-old samer challenges authority, both at home and in preschool. his temperament would be characterized as . the temperature of city changed by total of -12 degrees Celsius over 2 weeks period. the temperature changed by the same amount each week. Part A write an expression to show the average change in the temperature of the city each week. Part B simply the expression and explain, using words, what your answer mean A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the top layer. What are the prime factors that 27 and 36 share?_______ and _______ Prior to the adoption of the Sixteenth Amendment, the national government generated most of its revenue through trade tariffs. The Sixteenth Amendment enabled the national government to levy taxes on...Income Barrett finds himself to be out of a job when Chevrolet starts manufacturing spaceships instead of motor vehicles on their production line. He is among those who would be considered to be - Answer A structurally unemployed B frictionally unemployed C seasonally unemployed D cyclically unemployed What are the advantages and disadvantages of meeting during the war? Due to industrialization, many industries experienced growth rates of over ______ within a few years during the nineteenth century. 10% 50%100%1000% neighbor is currently video recording me and has a camera directly pointed at my bedroom window. what can i do? create five vignettes (short character descriptions) of individuals that have high levels or low levels of one of the big five factors of personality (one vignette per trait).