A snack recipe calls for 5 3/4 cups of cereal and 3 5/12 cups less of raisins. How many total cups of snack mix does the recipe make? Write in simplest form.

Answer:

the missing side is 90 because is a right triangle

Answer:

8/15

Step-by-step explanation:

In a right triangle, where B is an acute angle, the tan B is equal to the measure of the side opposite B divided by the measure of the shorter side at B

tanB = 16/30 = 8/15

Answer:

7(60+3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Distributive property is written: a(b+c)

7 x 63 = (7x60) + (7x3) = 7(60+3)

Answer:

7 x (60 + 3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

i did this pls mark as branlyest

Answer:

I believe the answer is D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3. 7/12

4. 1/3

5.1 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps and have a great day!!!

Answer:

I think it's 4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

I divided the servings by the packages and I got 4.5 for each of them.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

When calculations are repetitive, I like to let a calculator or spreadsheet do them. Here we have used the formula for the base area:

  B = πr² = 3.14×r²

In the second figure, the radius is half the diameter, so is 5 units.

The table in the attachment lists the base area B, the height h (from the figures), and the volume V. These are the values that you need to drag and drop to the boxes in your problem.

  V = 113.04 · 4

  V = 452.16 units³ . . . showing how the numbers are used in the first figure

Answer: 45°

Step-by-step explanation: All the angles of a triangle have to equal 180.

95 + 40 + x = 180

135 + x = 180

180-135 = 45.

Answer:

38/45

Step-by-step explanation:

4/10+4/9 Simplify.

2/5*4/9    Find a common denominator (45).

2/5*9/9=18/45

4/9*5/5=20/45

18/45+20/45=38/45

Hope this helps and have a great day C:

ANSWER

-1,-1 is P

-4, -3 is R

-2,  -3 is Q

I think this is the answer hope it helps :)

Answer:

FNB bank

Step-by-step explanation:

FNB = 18000 * 0.056* 8 = 8064

Nedbank = 18000*0.066* 6 = 7128

Standard = 18000*0.072*5=6480

FNB is the best choice for Steven

Answer:

wx-x=d

wx = d + x

x = d/w + x/w

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = d/(w-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

factor out 'x' as first step:

x(w - 1) = d

now divide by w-1:

x = d/(w-1)

ANSWER

l

Or

Or

EXPLANATION

The given line has slope,

and

We can find the equation in the point slope form, which is given by,

We substitute the point and slope to get,

We can also simplify further to get,

We make y the subject to get,

This is called the slope intercept form.

We could also write in standard form to get

Or

Answer:

3/4 or 75%

Step-by-step explanation:

There are twelve possible outcomes. (4 green for each of the three orange).

The only combinations that add up to six or more are 2&4, 3&3 and 3&4.

That’s 3 out of 12.  So 9 out of 12 combinations will add up to less than 6.

9/12=3/4 or 75%

Answer:

3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D. 6

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]36 {}^{ \frac{1}{2} } = \sqrt{36} = 6[/tex]

Answers,

1. 23

2. 79

3. 53

4. 26

5. 13

6. 11

How I did this,

What I did was subtract 8 from 31 to get ( e ) by itself.

This subject will get harder so I reccomend you focus on school and learn how to do this.

Answer:

D. 203

Step-by-step explanation:

volume= width X height X length

volume= 8 X 7 1/4 X 3 1/2

volume= 203

Answer: hello your question is incomplete below is the complete question

Let X and Y be two independent standard normal random variables, i.e., each follows the distribution N (0, 1). Now, define two new random variables as Z = 11 - X + X²Y, W = 3-Y. find cov ( Z, W )

answer : Cov ( Z, W ) = -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Z = 11 - X + X²Y

w = 3 - Y

Cov ( Z, W ) = Cov ( 11 - x + x^2 Y , 3 - Y )

  = Cov ( 11, 3 ) - Cov ( 11, Y ) - Cov(x,3) + cov (x,y) + cov(x^2y, 3) -cov (x^2y, y )

attached below is the remaining part of the detailed solution

hence

Cov ( Z, W ) = -1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

From the information given:

The probability distribution at the end of 6 months is determined as follows:

After 6 months;

Mean of probability distribution =  value of Initial cash  + [tex]\alpha[/tex]T  

=2.0 +(0.1 × 6)

=2.6

After 6 months;

The probability distribution's standard deviation is estimated by using the following formula:

Standard deviation:

[tex]= b\sqrt{T}[/tex]

[tex]= 0.4 \times \sqrt{6}[/tex]

= 0.9798

Hence, after 6 months;

The company's cash position is supposed to be allocated monthly, with the following expenses.

Mean                            2.6

Standard deviation     0.9798

Variance                      0.96

After 12 months, the probability distribution is as follows:

Mean = value of Initial cash  + [tex]\alpha[/tex]T

= 2.0 +(0.1 × 12)

= 3.2

The standard deviation is:

The standard deviation of probability distribution = [tex]b \sqrt{T}[/tex]

[tex]= 0.4 \times \sqrt{12}[/tex]

= 1.3856

Hence, after 6 months;

The company's cash position is supposed to be allocated monthly, with the following expenses.

Mean                            3.2

Sandard deviation      1.3856

Variance                      1.92

b)  

in 6-month distribution, the probability of the negative value of the cash position is as follows.

Now, for us to find the negative cash distribution;

We need to estimate the z -scores value.

The z-score inform us greatly on the concept of how far a particular data point is from the mean.

For a normal distribution;

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

Here;

the value of x = zero as a result that if it exceeds zero. the cash position will be negative.

∴

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]z = \dfrac{0 - 2.6}{0.9798}[/tex]

[tex]z = -2.6536[/tex]

Using the standard distribution tables, it is now possible to calculate that the likelihood N(-2.65) equals 0.004 or 0.4 percent.

As a result, there's a 0.4 percent chance of getting a negative cash balance after six months.

For 12 months distribution:

The Probability of negative cash position is calculated as follows:

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{0-3.2}{1.3856} \\ \\ z = -2.3094[/tex]

Using the standard distribution tables,

N(-2.31) equals 0.0104 or 1.04 percent.

As a result, there's a 1.04 percent chance of getting a negative cash balance after 1 year  

c) To determine the time period over which the likelihood of achieving a negative cash condition is highest, it's necessary to examine the z-score more closely. Essentially, the z-score measures the difference between a given value(x) and the mean of all potential values [tex](\mu)[/tex], expressed in terms of the total set's standard deviation [tex](\sigma)[/tex]

This suggests that the higher the z-score, the greater the difference occurring between x and [tex]\mu[/tex], and thus the likelihood of receiving x is minimal. As a result, the best chance of finding a certain value is when the z-score is the lowest.

To do so, calculate the derivative of the z-score in relation to the time interval. The point where the derivative is equivalent to zero is where the z-scores are at their lowest.

The first step is to go over the z-score formula in more detail, as seen below.;

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{0-(initial \ value + \alpha T)}{b \sqrt{T}} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{-initial \ value }{b\sqrt{T}}-\dfrac{a \sqrt{T}}{b} \\ \\[/tex]

Now, compute the derivative of this equation with respect to T as follows:

[tex]\dfrac{dz}{dT}= \dfrac{initial \ value \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}}}{2b} - \dfrac{aT^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}}{2b}[/tex]

Now, figure out the value of T at which this derivative is equal to zero by substituting all values as follows:

[tex]0 = \dfrac{2.0 \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}}}{2\times 0.4}- \dfrac{0.1 \times T^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}}{2 \times 0.4} \\ \\ \\ 0.1 \times T^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}= 2.0 \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}} \\ \\ \\T = \dfrac{2}{0.1} \\ \\ \\ T = 20[/tex]

As a result, the time period in which achieving a negative cash condition is = 20 months.

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

it would be a parabola not linear

Answer:

A. 1

Step-by-step explanation:

its A

Answer:

12.8 so about 13

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

4/5 of his age = 16

1/5 of his age = 16/4=4

which means that 5/5 of his age = 16+4 = 20

Answer:

1)

mean - 5

median - 5

mode - 6

range - 7

2)

mean - 444

median - 453

mode - 345

range - 198

3)

mean - 6

median - 6

mode - 8

range - 7

4)

mean - 10

median - 9

mode - 9

range - 17

5)

mean - 5

median - 4

mode - 3

range - 7

6)

mean - 143

median - 148

mode - 157

range - 33

12) 9

13) 10

14) 10, 5

15)

If the price of swimming lessons went up to mean and mode would change.

mean - 9.66666667 (9.6 repeating)

median - 10

mode - 10

range - 13

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  C.  0.25, 1, 2, 4.75

Step-by-step explanation:

The solutions are the x-values of the points where the curves intersect. There are 4 intersection points to the right of the y-axis. Choice C is the only one with four (4) positive values for x.

Answer:

12 students

Step-by-step explanation:

CLEAN THAT IPAD FOR HIM

Answer:

12 students went to the beach fewer than 2 times.

Step-by-step explanation:

Just count the total number of dots that come before 2.

Answer:

[tex]x = \frac{\sqrt{70} }{10}, - \frac{\sqrt{70} }{10}[/tex]