A train is travelling at 50 m s−1 when the driver applies the brakes and gives the train a constant deceleration of magnitude 0.50 m s−2 for 100 s. Describe what happens to the train. Calculate the distance travelled

Answer:

[tex]{ \bf{false}}[/tex]

Explanation:

Because it breaks the law of moments.

Answer:

Finding time period of SHM from equation of displacement

Explanation:

0

Say for example I've got the equation of a SHM as:

x=Acos(ωt+ϕ)

where A is the amplitude.

How do I find the time period of this motion?

I tried by finding the second order differential of the given equation.

a=d2xdt2=−Aω2cos(ωt+ϕ)

Comparing it with the general equation for acceleration a=−ω2x, we can find ω from here.

But that is where the problem is coming. It makes no sense if I write ω=ωA−−√.

What is the correct method to find the time period of the SHM? What am I missing?

There is a very simple mistake in your math. Notice A is part of x, it is factored so you'll get to ω=ω again. If you want to find a meaning to ωT=2π, consider the fact that cos (or sin) are periodic functions with period 2π. Hence, every time you have a time difference such that ω(t1−t2)=2π you are back at the same point. Hence the period is given by ωT=2π.

Answer:

Distancia, D = 170,000 metros

Explanation:

Dados los siguientes datos;

Para encontrar la distancia recorrida, en metros;

Matemáticamente, la distancia recorrida por un objeto se calcula mediante la fórmula;

Distancia = velocidad * tiempo

Sustituyendo los valores en la fórmula, tenemos;

Distancia = 85 * 2

Distancia = 170 kilómetros

A continuación, convertiríamos el valor en kilómetros a metros;

Conversión:

1 kilómetros = 1000 metros

170 kilómetros = D metros

Multiplicación cruzada, tenemos;

D = 170 * 1000

D = 170,000 metros

Por lo tanto, habría viajado 170,000 metros después de 2 horas.

Answer:

Given information:-

[tex]\clubsuit[/tex]The displacement of the cyclist will be shortest distance from his initial to final positions which is nothing but diameter of the circle = 2r

We know that,

[tex] \underline{ \boxed{ \sf{Speed = \frac{Distance \: covered }{Time \: taken}}}}[/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \sf{\frac{636 \times 3.14 m}{90s}} \\ \\ \longrightarrow \sf22.18 m/s[/tex]

[tex]\sf{Velocity = \frac{Displacement }{ Time} }[/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \sf{ \frac{2 \times 636m}{90s} } \\ \\ \longrightarrow \sf{14.13 \: m/s}[/tex]

Thank You :)

Work = force x distance

Work = 5500 x 1.8

Work = 9900 N

The work measure of energy transfer that occurs when an object is moved over a distance by an external force at least part of which is applied in the direction of the displacement.

Work = force x distance

Work = 5500 x 1.8

Work = 9900 N

therefore, work does 9900 N

Work is force applied over distance. Examples of work include lifting an object against the Earth's gravitation, driving a car up a hill, and pulling down a captive helium balloon. Work is a mechanical manifestation of energy. The standard unit of work is the joule (J), equivalent to a newton - meter (N · m).

Work is defined as transferring energy into an object so that there is some displacement. Energy is defined as the ability to do work. Work done is always the same. Energy can be of different types such as kinetic and potential energy.

To learn more about work, refer

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Answer:

3.14*1²

3.14 cm²

I hope this will help

Answer:

3.14 cm squared

Explanation:

I hope this will help.

The distance, to the nearest tenth, is 314.9 light-years.

The given data is:

A recently discovered planet is located 1.85*10^5 miles from Earth.

Now we want to transform this distance to light-years.

Remember that a light-year is defined as "the distance that the light would travel in one year".

using the relation:

distance = speed*time

The speed of light is:

speed = 6.706*10^8 mi/h

And in one year has 8760 hours, then we have:

time = 8760 h

replacing these in the equation we get:

distance = speed*time

distance = (6.706*10^8 mi/h)*(8760 h)  = 5,874,456,000,000 miles

Son one light-year is equivalent to 5,874,456,000,000 miles

1 light-year = 5,874,456,000,000 miles

So to transform a distance in miles to light-years, we just need to divide that distance by 5,874,456,000,000 miles:

The distance between the new planet and Earth was:

D = 1.85*10^15 mi = ( 1.85*10^15)/(5,874,456,000,000) = 314.9 light-years.

if you want to learn more about this, you can read:

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Answer:

H + H ------> He + energy. He + He -----> H + H + He.

Explanation:

Hydrogen having one proton and no neutron fuse with hydrogen having one proton and one neutron forming helium atom with the release of photon. After that two helium atoms combine together forming two hydrogen atoms having one proton each whereas one helium atom having two protons and two neutrons present in their nucleus so the end product of this reaction is hydrogen atoms and helium.

Answer:

24J

Explanation:

The energy output will be the 20% it lost in efficiency:

120-80% = 24J

Let F₁ and F₂ denote the two forces, and R the resultant force.

F₁ and F₂ point perpendicularly to one another, so their dot product is

F₁ • F₂ = 0

We're given that one of these vectors, say F₁, makes an angle with R of 30°, so that

F₁ • R = ||F₁|| ||R|| cos(30°)

But we also have

F₁ • R = F₁ • (F₁ + F₂) = (F₁ • F₁) + (F₁ • F₂) = F₁ • F₁ = ||F₁||²

So, knowing that ||R|| = 100 N, we get that

(100 N) ||F₁|| cos(30°) = ||F₁||²

(100 N) cos(30°) = ||F₁||

||F₁|| ≈ 86.6 N

(And the same would be true for F₂.)

Answer:

he will be in profit

Explanation:

Himalayan region are high above the sea level so the gravity will be less there compared to the Terai region

Terai lies way below he Himalayan region so the pull of gravity will be more compared to Himalayan region

that's why he will be in profit but not loss

Answer:

4 d

Explanation:

because the spring is balanced with t

Answer:

asdiieiwihebebwiwo3o2iwjw3

Answer:

displacement=specific distance

*Velocity=∆displacement/time

*acceleration=∆velocity/time

Answer:

Obeying to weights & measurement regulations in both national and international metrology legislation, standards and test procedures is a requirement to participate in any market because it's aimed to safeguard the consumers and promote fair competition, which provides efficiency and saves unnecessary costs to U.S. businesses and stakeholders.

Explanation:

In the U.S., the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) has an Office of Weights and Measures (OWM) that represents the country in the International Organization of Legal Metrology (OIML)

Answer:

[tex] \green{ \sf \: \: 1.6 \: m {s}^{ - 2} \: \: \: is \: the \: correct \: answer}[/tex]

Explanation:

[tex] \sf \: \huge{g } _{ \small{moon}} = \frac{ {\huge{g}}_{earth}}{6} \\ \\ \sf \implies \: \sf \: \huge{g } _{ \small{moon}} = \frac{ 9.8}{6} = 1.6 \: \: m {s}^{ - 2} [/tex]

Answer:

smoke particles move in brownian motion (zig -zag motion ) .

Explanation:

this is because air molecules collide against smoke particles hence they attain kinetic energy which keeps them in continuous motion .

The motion of the smoke particles is Brownian motion that is the zigzag motion of the particles that particles move in a random direction.

In chemistry, the term "Brownian Movement" refers to the random zigzagging motion of a particle that is typically seen under a high power ultra-microscope. The term "Brownian movement" refers to the exact motion of pollen grains in water, as described by Robert Brown.

More crucially, Albert Einstein eventually clarified the Brownian movement in his study by claiming that water molecules were responsible for moving the pollen. This discovery provided compelling proof that atoms and molecules exist.

According to the question, the reason is that air molecules collide against smoke particles, hence the particles get kinetic energy which keeps them in continuous motion or in zigzag motion.

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The shape is connected in parallel so;

5.1) Ans;

[tex] \frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{R1} + \frac{1}{R2} \\ \frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} \\ \frac{1}{R} = \frac{3 + 2}{6} = \frac{5}{6} \\ R = \frac{6}{5} = 1.2 \: \: ohm[/tex]

5.2) Ans;

[tex] \frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{R1} + \frac{1}{R2} \\ \frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{10} \\ \frac{1}{R} = \frac{5 + 4}{40} = \frac{9}{40} \\ R = \frac{40}{9} = 4.4 \: \: ohm[/tex]

I hope I helped you^_^

Answer:

Explanation:

Answer:

It was created during the French Revolution in 1799 and has enabled for the international exchange of scientific and technical information. Calculating with SI units is also a lot easier than using the English system.

Answer:

301.6 N

Explanation:

The length of the wire L₀ = 8 m and its diameter, d = 4 mm = 4 × 10⁻³ m. Since its temperature drops by  10°C, it will have a change in length ΔL = L₀αΔθ where α = linear expansivity of steel, a 12 × 10⁻⁶ /K, and Δθ = temperature change = -10°C = -10 K(negative since it is a drop)

So, the strain, ε = ΔL/L₀ = αΔθ = 12 × 10⁻⁶ /K × 10 K = 12 × 10⁻⁵

Now the Young's modulus of steel, Y = σ/ε where σ = stress = T/A where T = increase in tension in steel wire and A = cross-sectional area of wire = πd²/4 where d = diameter of wire = 4 × 10⁻³ m and ε = strain = 12 × 10⁻⁵

So, σ = Yε

Since Y = 2 × 10¹¹ N/m².

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

σ = Yε

σ = 2 × 10¹¹ N/m² × 12 × 10⁻⁵

σ = 24 × 10⁶ N/m²

Since σ = T/A

T = σA

T = σπd²/4

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

T = σπd²/4

T = 24 × 10⁶ N/m² × π × (4 × 10⁻³ m)²/4

T = 24 × 10⁶ N/m² × π × 16 × 10⁻⁶ m²/4

T = 24 × 10⁶ N/m² × π × 4 × 10⁻⁶ m²

T = 96 N × π

T = 301.59 N

T ≅ 301.6 N

So, the increase in tension in the steel wire is 301.6 N

Answer:

235.6m/s

Explanation:

you have to use one of the kinematic formulas the best that suits the question given in this case you can use v=u+at.since the time, acceleration and initial velocity have been given in the question

v=116+(9.2)13^2

v=116+119.6

=235.6m/s

I hope this helps

Explanation:

FALSE

The first periodic table of elements Mendeleev created contained 63 elements.

Answer:

Velocity is the rate of change of position with respect to time, whereas acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. Both are vector quantities (and so also have a specified direction), but the units of velocity are meters per second while the units of acceleration are meters per second squared.

Answer:

1.12 × 10⁴ m/s

Explanation:

The escape velocity of the object v = √(2GM/R) where G = gravitational constant = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg², M = mass of the Earth = 6 × 10²⁴ kg and R = radius of the Earth = 6.4 × 10⁶ m

Since v = √(2GM/R)

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

v = √(2GM/R)

v = √(2 × 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² × 6 × 10²⁴ kg/6.4 × 10⁶ m)

v = √(13.34 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² × 6 × 10²⁴ kg/6.4 × 10⁶ m)

v = √(80.04 × 10⁻¹¹ × 10²⁴Nm²/kg/6.4 × 10⁶ m)

v = √(80.04 × 10¹³Nm²/kg ÷ 6.4 × 10⁶ m)

v = √(80.04 ÷ 6.4 × 10¹³ ÷ 10⁶Nm/kg)

v = √(12.50625 × 10⁷ Nm/kg)

v = √(125.0625 × 10⁶ Nm/kg)

v = 11.18 × 10³ m/s

v = 1.118 × 10 × 10³ m/s

v = 1.118 × 10⁴ m/s

v ≅ 1.12 × 10⁴ m/s

Answer:

B

Explanation:

the Halogen families have 7 valence electrons

Answer:

The rate of change of distance is called speed it can also be defined as distance travelled per unit time,from these definition you can tell that the formula will be

speed=distance/time

in this question the distance is 900meters and the time is 55seconds therefore the speed will be:

s=900meters/55seconds

=16.36m/s

I hope this helps

Explanation:

st system:the internationak system of measurement which i declared form internationäl convention of scientists held in france in 1960AD is Si system

CGS System:it measure in length in centimeter mass in gram time in second