A woman was told in 2020 that she had exactly 15 years to live. If she travels away from the Earth at 0.8 c and then returns at the same speed, the last New Year's Day the doctors expect her to celebrate is:

Answer:

N2 = ¼N1

Explanation:

First of all, let's define the terms;

N1 = number of electric field lines going through the sphere of radius R

N2 = number of electric field lines going through the sphere of radius 2R

Q = the charge enclosed at the centre of concentric spheres

ε_o = a constant known as "permittivity of the free space"

E1 = Electric field in the sphere of radius R.

E2 = Electric field in the sphere of radius 2R.

A1 = Area of sphere of radius R.

A2 = Area of sphere of radius 2R

Now, from Gauss's law, the electric flux through the sphere of radius R is given by;

Φ = Q/ε_o

We also know that;

Φ = EA

Thus;

E1 × A1 = Q/ε_o

E1 = Q/(ε_o × A1)

Where A1 = 4πR²

E1 = Q/(ε_o × 4πR²)

Similarly, for the sphere of radius 2R,we have;

E2 = Q/(ε_o × 4π(2R)²)

Factorizing out to get;

E2 = ¼Q/(ε_o × 4πR²)

Comparing E2 with E1, we arrive at;

E2 = ¼E1

Now, due to the number of lines is proportional to the electric field in the each spheres, we can now write;

N2 = ¼N1

Answer

76200meters

Explanation:

we know that 1km=1000meters

to convert km into meters we we divide km by meters

=76.2/1000

=76200meters

Answer:

they must be affordable because they have to pay for it or they wont get the stuff they are bying.

Explanation:

need a brainliest please.

Answer: B, they must be affordable.

Explanation:

Answer:

129900

Explanation:

Given that

Mass of the particle, m = 1 g = 1*10^-3 kg

Speed of the particle, u = ½c

Speed of light, c = 3*10^8

To solve this, we will use the formula

p = ymu, where

y = √[1 - (u²/c²)]

Let's solve for y, first. We have

y = √[1 - (1.5*10^8²/3*10^8²)]

y = √(1 - ½²)

y = √(1 - ¼)

y = √0.75

y = 0.8660, using our newly gotten y, we use it to solve the final equation

p = ymu

p = 0.866 * 1*10^-3 * 1.5*10^8

p = 129900 kgm/s

thus, we have found that the momentum of the particle is 129900 kgm/s

Answer:

10%

Explanation:

Efficiency = work done / energy used

e = (10 m × 100 N) / (10,000 J)

e = 0.1

The efficiency is 0.1, or 10%.

Answer:

292 nm

Explanation:

The work function of gallium ∅ = 94.25 eV = 6.81 x 10^-19 J

at maximum wavelength, the energy of the photons is equal to its work function

Energy of the electron = hf

but hf = hc/λ

where h is the planck's constant = 6.63 × 10-34 m^2 kg/s

c is the speed of light = 3 x 10^8 m/s

λ is the wavelength that this occurs, which is the maximum wavelength

Equating, we have

hc/λ =  ∅

substituting, we have

(6.63 × 10-34 x 3 x 10^8)/λ = 6.81 x 10^-19

(1.989 x 10^-25)/(6.81 x 10^-19) = λ

λ = 292.07 x 10^-9 = 292 nm

Answer:

Explanation:

Christian Huygens

Light Is a Wave!

Then, in 1678, Dutch physicist Christian Huygens (1629 to 1695) established the wave theory of light and announced the Huygens' principle.

Answer:

2500 kg/m³

Explanation:

P = P

ρgh = ρgh

ρh = ρh

(1000 kg/m³) (8.9 cm) = ρ (3.5 cm)

ρ ≈ 2500 kg/m³

Answer: μ = 0.8885

Explanation: Force due to friction is calculated as: [tex]F_{f} = \mu.N[/tex]

At an inclined plane, normal force (N) is: N = mgcosθ, in which θ=32.51.

Power associated with work done by friction is [tex]P=F_{f}.x[/tex]. The variable x is displacement the object "spent its energy".

Power associated with work done by gravitational force is P = mghcosθ, where h is height.

The decline forms with horizontal plane a triangle as draw in the picture.

To determine force due to friction:

[tex]F_{f}.x=mghcos(\theta)[/tex]

[tex]F_{f}=\frac{mghcos(\theta)}{x}[/tex]

Replacing force:

[tex]\frac{m.g.h.cos(\theta)}{x} = \mu.m.g.cos(\theta)[/tex]

[tex]\mu=\frac{h}{x}[/tex]

Calculating h using trigonometric relations:

[tex]sin(32.51) = \frac{h}{1}[/tex]

h = sin(32.51)

Coefficient of Kinetic friction is

[tex]\mu=\frac{sin(32.51)}{1}[/tex]

μ = 0.8885

For these conditions, coefficient of kinetic friction is μ = 0.8885.

Answer:

21.8°

Explanation:

Let's call θ the angle between BC and the horizontal.

Draw a free body diagram for each block.

There are 4 forces acting on block D:

Weight force P pulling down,

Normal force N₁ pushing perpendicular to AB,

Friction force N₁μ pushing parallel up AB,

and tension force T pushing parallel up AB.

There are 4 forces acting on block E:

Weight force P pulling down,

Normal force N₂ pushing perpendicular to BC,

Friction force N₂μ pushing parallel to BC,

and tension force T pulling parallel to BC.

Sum of forces on D in the perpendicular direction:

∑F = ma

N₁ − P sin θ = 0

N₁ = P sin θ

Sum of forces on D in the parallel direction:

∑F = ma

T + N₁μ − P cos θ = 0

T = P cos θ − N₁μ

T = P cos θ − P sin θ μ

T = P (cos θ − sin θ μ)

Sum of forces on E in the perpendicular direction:

∑F = ma

N₂ − P cos θ = 0

N₂ = P cos θ

Sum of forces on E in the parallel direction:

∑F = ma

N₂μ + P sin θ − T = 0

T = N₂μ + P sin θ

T = P cos θ μ + P sin θ

T = P (cos θ μ + sin θ)

Set equal:

P (cos θ − sin θ μ) = P (cos θ μ + sin θ)

cos θ − sin θ μ = cos θ μ + sin θ

1 − tan θ μ = μ + tan θ

1 − μ = tan θ μ + tan θ

1 − μ = tan θ (μ + 1)

tan θ = (1 − μ) / (1 + μ)

Plug in values:

tan θ = (1 − 0.4) / (1 + 0.4)

θ = 23.2°

∠BCA = 45°, so the angle of AC relative to the horizontal is 45° − 23.2° = 21.8°.

Answer:

B = 1.33 10⁻⁸ T , the magnetic field must be in the y + direction

Explanation:

In an electromagnetic wave the electric and magnetic fields are in phase

         c = E / B

         B = E / c

let's calculate

          B = 4.00 / 3 10⁸

          B = 1.33 10⁻⁸ T

To determine the direction we use that the electric and magnetic fields and the speed of the wave are perpendicular.

 If the wave advances in the + Z direction and the electric field is in the + x direction, the magnetic field must be in the y + direction

Answer:

y is doubled

Explanation:

If x is halved, that means the value is doubled. Here is an exmaple:

y=1/2. If the denominater is doubled, y would equal y=1/1. So, the value of y has doubled from 0.5 to 1. Therefore, if the denominator is halved, the solution will be doubled.

Answer:

Option (c)

Explanation:

In a Series circuit, as the components are connected end-to-end ,the current can flow through only one path from start to finish.

(C.) is the only correct statement in the list of choices.

In a series circuit, the current can flow through only one path from start to finish.

Answer:

Explanation:

Current produced by the solar cells of the pocket calculator is expressed using the formula I = Q/t where;

Q is the charge (in Columbs)

t is the time (in seconds)

Given parameters

Q = 4.2C

t = 2.7 hrs

t = 2.7*60*60

t = 9720 seconds

Required

Current produced by the solar cell I

Substituting the given values into the formula;

I = 4.2/9720

I = 0.000432A

I = 0.432mA

Hence, the current in milliamperes produced by the solar cells of a pocket calculator is 0.432mA

Answer:

The discharge rate is [tex]Q = 0.0192 \ m^3 /s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  diameter is  [tex]d = 60 \ mm = 0.06 \ m[/tex]

    The  head is  [tex]h = 6 \ m[/tex]

     The  coefficient of contraction is  [tex]Cc = 0.68[/tex]

     The  coefficient of  velocity is  [tex]Cv = 0.92[/tex]

The radius is mathematically evaluated as

         [tex]r = \frac{d}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]r = \frac{ 0.06 }{2}[/tex]

        [tex]r = 0.03 \ m[/tex]

The  area is mathematically represented as

      [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]A = 3.142 * (0.03)^2[/tex]

      [tex]A = 0.00283 \ m^2[/tex]

 The  discharge rate is mathematically represented as

        [tex]Q = Cv *Cc * A * \sqrt{ 2 * g * h}[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]Q = 0.68 * 0.92* 0.00283 * \sqrt{ 2 * 9.8 * 6}[/tex]

       [tex]Q = 0.0192 \ m^3 /s[/tex]

Answer:

Therefore, we need an invert, and a rectifier, along with the transformer to do the job.

Explanation:

A transformer, alone, can not be used to convert a DC voltage to another DC voltage. If we apply a DC voltage to the primary coil of the transformer, it will act as short circuit due to low resistance. It will cause overflow of current through winding, resulting in overheating pf the transformer.

Hence, the transformer only take AC voltage as an input, and converts it to another AC voltage. So, the output voltage of a transformer is also AC voltage.

So, in order to convert a 6 V DC to 1.5 V DC we need an inverter to convert 6 V DC to AC, then a step down transformer to convert it to 1.5 V AC, and finally a rectifier to convert 1.5 V AC to 1.5 V DC.

Therefore, we need an invert, and a rectifier, along with the transformer to do the job.

Answer:

The hoop

Explanation:

Because it has a smaller calculated inertia of 2/3mr² compares to the disc

Answer:

Mass of the car is independent of gravity

Explanation:

Here, we want to state the reason why even though we have the acceleration due to gravity absent on the moon, it is still difficult to accelerate a car on a level horizontal level on the moon.

The answer to this is that the mass of the car that we want to accelerate is independent of gravity.

Had it been that gravity has an effect on the mass of the said car, then we might conclude that it will not be difficult to accelerate the car on a horizontal surface on the moon.

But due to the fact that gravity has no effect on the mass of the car to be accelerated, then the problem we have on earth with accelerating the car is the same problem we will have on the moon if we try to accelerate the car on a horizontal level surface.

Answer:

-z axis

Explanation:

According to the left hand rule for an electron in a magnetic field, hold the thumb of the left hand at a right angle to the rest of the fingers, and the rest of the fingers parallel to one another. If the thumb represents the motion of the electron, and the other fingers represent the direction of the field, then the palm will push in the direction of the force on the electron. In this case, the left hand will be held out with the thumb pointing to the right (+x axis), and the palm facing your body (-y axis). The magnetic field indicated by the other fingers will point down in the the -z axis.

Answer:

1. Elastic collision

2. Inelastic collision    

Explanation:

Elastic collision: collision is said to be elastic if total kinetic energy is not conserved and if there is a rebound after collision

the collision is described by the equation bellow

[tex]m1U1+ m2U2= m1V1+m2V2[/tex]

Inelastic collision: this type of collision occurs when the total kinetic energy of a body is conserved or when the bodies sticks together and move with a common velocity

the collision is described by the equation bellow

[tex]m1U1+ m2U2= V(m1+m2)[/tex]

Answer:

t = 23.6 min

Explanation:

First we need to find the mass of air in the room:

m = ρV

where,

m = mass of air in the room = ?

ρ = density of air at room temperature = 1.2041 kg/m³

V = Volume of room = 16 m x 16.5 m x 12.3 m = 3247.2 m³

Therefore,

m = (1.2041 kg/m³)(3247.2 m³)

m = 3909.95 kg

Now, we find the amount of energy consumed to heat the room:

E = m C ΔT

where,

E = Energy consumed = ?

C = Specific Heat of air at room temperature = 1 KJ/kg.⁰C

ΔT = Change in temperature = 21 °C - 13.5 °C = 7.5 °C

Therefore,

E = (3909.95 kg)(1 KJ/kg.°C)(7.5 °C)

E = 29324.62 KJ

Now, the time period can be calculated as:

P = E/t

t = E/P

where,

t = Time needed = ?

P = Power of heater = 20.7 KW

Therefore,

t = 29324.62 KJ/20.7 KW

t = (1416.65 s)(1 min/60 s)

t = 23.6 min

Answer:

 v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s

Explanation:

This is an exercise of conservation of the momentum, for this we must define a system formed by the two balls, so that the forces during the collision have internal and the momentum is conserved

initial. Before the crash

      p₀ = m v₁₀

final. After the crash

      [tex]p_{f}[/tex] = m [tex]v_{1f}[/tex] + m v_{2f}

Recall that velocities are a vector so it has x and y components

       p₀ = p_{f}

we write this equation for each axis

X axis

       m v₁₀ = m v_{1fx} + m v_{2fx}

Y Axis  

       0 = -m v_{1fy} + m v_{2fy}

the exercise tells us the initial velocity v₁₀ = 1.83 m / s, the final velocity v_{2f} = 1.15, let's use trigonometry to find its components

      sin 23.3 = v_{2fy} / v_{2f}

      cos 23.3 = v_{2fx} / v_{2f}

      v_{2fy} = v_{2f} sin 23.3

      v_{2fx} = v_{2f} cos 23.3

we substitute in the momentum conservation equation

       m v₁₀ = m v_{1f} cos θ + m v_{2f} cos 23.3

       0 = - m v_{1f} sin θ + m v_{2f} sin 23.3

      1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.15 cos 23.3

       0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 1.15 sin 23.3

      1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.0562

        0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 0.4549

     v_{1f} sin θ = 0.4549

     v_{1f}  cos θ = -0.7738

we divide these two equations

      tan θ = - 0.5878

      θ = tan-1 (-0.5878)

       θ = -30.45º

we substitute in one of the two and find the final velocity of the incident ball

        v_{1f} cos (-30.45) = - 0.7738

        v_{1f} = -0.7738 / cos 30.45

        v_{1f} = -0.8976 m / s

the component and this speed is

       v_{1fy} = v1f sin θ

       v_{1fy} = 0.8976 sin (30.45)

       v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s

Answer:

Explanation:

grating element or slit width a = 1 x 10⁻² / 5000

= 2 x 10⁻⁶ m

angular width of first order spectral line of wavelength λ

= λ / a

for blue line angular width

= 434 x 10⁻⁹ / 2 x 10⁻⁶ radian

= 217 x 10⁻³ radian

for red line angular width

= 656 x 10⁻⁹ / 2 x 10⁻⁶ radian

= 328 x 10⁻³ radian

difference of their angular width

= 328 x 10⁻³  - 217 x 10⁻³

= 111 x 10⁻³ radian

Ans .

Answer:

The projectile strikes the tower at a height of 354.824 meters.

Explanation:

The projectile experiments a parabolic motion, which consist of a horizontal motion at constant speed and a vertical uniformly accelerated motion due to gravity. The equations of motion are, respectively:

Horizontal motion

[tex]x = x_{o}+v_{o}\cdot t \cdot \cos \theta[/tex]

Vertical motion

[tex]y = y_{o} + v_{o}\cdot t \cdot \sin \theta +\frac{1}{2} \cdot g \cdot t^{2}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]x_{o}[/tex], [tex]x[/tex] - Initial and current horizontal position, measured in meters.

[tex]y_{o}[/tex], [tex]y[/tex] - Initial and current vertical position, measured in meters.

[tex]v_{o}[/tex] - Initial speed, measured in meters per second.

[tex]g[/tex] - Gravitational acceleration, measured in meters per square second.

[tex]t[/tex] - Time, measured in seconds.

The time spent for the projectile to strike the tower is obtained from first equation:

[tex]t = \frac{x-x_{o}}{v_{o}\cdot \cos \theta}[/tex]

If [tex]x = 600\,m[/tex], [tex]x_{o} = 0\,m[/tex], [tex]v_{o} = 120\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex] and [tex]\theta = \frac{\pi}{4}[/tex], then:

[tex]t = \frac{600\,m-0\,m}{\left(120\,\frac{m}{s} \right)\cdot \cos \frac{\pi}{4} }[/tex]

[tex]t \approx 7.071\,s[/tex]

Now, the height at which the projectile strikes the tower is: ([tex]y_{o} = 0\,m[/tex], [tex]t \approx 7.071\,s[/tex], [tex]v_{o} = 120\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex] and [tex]g = -9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex])

[tex]y = 0\,m + \left(120\,\frac{m}{s} \right)\cdot (7.071\,s)\cdot \sin \frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{1}{2}\cdot \left(-9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right) \cdot (7.071\,s)^{2}[/tex]

[tex]y \approx 354.824\,m[/tex]

The projectile strikes the tower at a height of 354.824 meters.

Answer:

180 J

Explanation:

Mechanical energy = kinetic energy + potential energy

ME = KE + PE

ME = ½ mv² + mgh

ME = ½ (0.430 kg) (25.3 m/s)² + (0.430 kg) (9.8 m/s²) (10.0 m)

ME = 180 J

Mechanical energy is conserved, so it is 180 J at all points of the trajectory.

The baseball's mechanical energy when it is at a height of 8.0m is 180 J.

The mechanical energy is the sum of kinetic energy and the potential energy of an object at any instant of time. Mechanical energy is always conserved.

Mechanical energy = kinetic energy + potential energy

Given is the mass of baseball m= 0.430 kg, height h =10m, speed v= 25.3m/s.

ME = KE + PE

ME = ½ mv² + mgh

Substitute the values, we get

ME = ½ (0.430 kg) (25.3 m/s)² + (0.430 kg) (9.8 m/s²) (10.0 m)

ME = 180 J

Thus, the baseball's mechanical energy when it is at a height of 8.0m is 180 J.

Learn more about mechanical energy.

https://brainly.com/question/13552918

#SPJ2

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that

Effort = 40N

Load = 16ON

M.A = load/effort

M.A= 160N/40N

M.A = 4

Velocity ratio = V.R =radius of the wheel/radius of the axel

= 25cm/5cm

= 5

Efficiency = mechanical advantage/velocity ratio × 100/1

= 4/5 × 100/1

= 0.8×100/1

= 80%

Hence, the mechanical advantage of the machine is 4 while the efficiency is 80%.

Answer:

380 kHz

Explanation:

The speed of sound is taken as 1500 m/s

The length of the fetus is 1.6 cm long

The condition is that the wavelength used must be at most 1/4 of the size of the object that is to be imaged.

For this 1.6 cm baby, the wavelength must not exceed

λ = [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] of 1.6 cm = [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] x 1.6 cm = 0.4 cm =

0.4 cm = 0.004 m   this is the wavelength of the required ultrasonic sound.

we know that

v = λf

where v is the speed of a wave

λ is the wavelength of the wave

f is the frequency of the wave

f = v/λ

substituting values, we have

f = 1500/0.004 = 375000 Hz

==> 375000/1000 = 375 kHz ≅ 380 kHz

Answer:

1. Transformer 3> Transformer 1 and 2 > Transformer 4

2. Transformer 2,3,5 > Transformer 1 > Transformer 4

Explanation:

From;

Vs/Vp = Ns/Np

Where;

Vp= voltage in primary coil

Vs= voltage in secondary coil

Ns= number of turns in secondary coil

Np= number of turns in primary coil.

Vs= Ns×Vp/Np

Vs= 480 ×2000/4000

Vs= 240 V

Vs= 480 ×1000/2000

Vs=240 V

Vs= 120 × 2000/500

Vs= 480 V

Vs= 240 × 500/1000

Vs= 120 V

2. Ns/Np= Ip/Is

Is= Np×Ip/Ns

Is= 1000 × 100/2000

Is= 50 A

Is= 2000 × 100/1000

Is= 200 A

Is= 1000 × 100/500

Is= 200 A

Is= 500 × 100/2000

Is= 25 A

Is= 4000 × 100/2000

Is= 200 A

Answer:

There is no induced current on the coil.

Explanation:

Current is induced in a coil or a circuit, when there is a break of flux linkage. A break in flux linkage is caused by a changing magnetic field, and must be achieved by a relative motion between the coil and the magnet. Holding the magnet above the center of the coil will cause no changing magnetic filed since there is no relative motion between the coil and the magnet.

Answer:

Explanation:

Let B= bead

Q = rod

the electric field at the glass bead pocation is

(Gauss theorem)

E = Q / (2 π d L εo)

the force is

F = q E = q Q / (2 π d L εo)

then

Q = 2 π d L εo F / q

Q = 2*3.14*4x10^-2*10^-1*8.85x10^-12*910x10^-4 / 5x10^-9 = 2.87x10^-8 C = 40.5 nC