Answer: 10%
Explanation: The 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends limiting calories from added sugars to no more than 10% each day.
healthy people 2020 includes a goal of increasing the proportion of adolescents who engage in vigorous physical activity that promotes cardiorespiratory fitness. disabled adolescents may not have access to exercise programs adapted for their needs or programs in which they feel comfortable exercising. the parish nurse can provide an accepting environment in which disabled adolescents can safely exercise and share time with their peers. studies have shown that faith communities have been successful in targeting specific national health objectives dealing with nutrition; physical activity; use of alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs; immunization status; environmental health; and injury and violence. faith communities are effective settings in which to address health promotion related to overweight, obesity, and sedentary lifestyles. an example of this is developing exercise programs for working community. group of answer choices true false
In the context of Healthy People 2020 initiatives, the most appropriate intervention for adolescent congregants with disabilities is Exercise program integrating movements from a sitting or standing position.
One of the goals of Healthy People 2020 is to increase the proportion of adolescents who engage in vigorous physical activity that promotes cardiorespiratory fitness. Adolescents with disabilities may not have access to exercise programs that are tailored to their needs or programs in which they feel comfortable exercising. The parish nurse can provide a welcoming environment in which disabled adolescents can safely exercise and socialize.
According to studies, faith communities have been successful in focusing on specific national health objectives such as nutrition, physical activity, alcohol, tobacco, and other drug use, immunization status, environmental health, and injury and violence. Faith communities are effective settings for addressing health promotion issues such as obesity, overweight, and sedentary lifestyles.
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on the first postoperative day. the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. previously he was oriented to person place and time on admission. which intervention should the nurse implement first? assess the client for pain.
The nurse should review with the client that he is in the hospital.
Postoperative care is the treatment you receive following a surgical procedure. The type of postoperative care you require is determined by the type of surgery you had as well as your medical history. Pain management and wound care are frequently included. Postoperative care begins immediately after surgery.
Postoperative fever, atelectasis, wound infection, embolism, and deep vein thrombosis are all common general postoperative complications (DVT). Postoperative complications are most common between one and three days after surgery. Proper hydration is crucial for adequate wound healing. Dehydration can contribute to poor oxygen perfusion and prevent necessary nutrients from reaching the wound. Furthermore, staying hydrated can help to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
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according to hospital protocol, after a client is restrained, the staff meet and discuss the restraint situation. in addition to sharing feelings and offering support, what should the nurse identify as the long-term goal for the debriefing?
The nurse should consider improving the staff's use of restraint procedures. That is option D.
Who is a restrained client?A restrained client is the client that is placed in a confined environment that limits their movement without being supervised. Some of the client's that may require being restrained include the following:
when the patient is exhibiting a harmful behaviourduring a surgical procedurewhen a patient is agitating beyond controla psychotic patient that is uncooperative.The long-term goal of the debriefing after restraining a client is to improve aggression management procedures so that prevention of aggression improves and the frequency of restraint use decreases.
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Complete question:
According to hospital protocol, after a client is restrained, the staff meet and discuss the restraint situation. In addition to sharing feelings and offering support, what should the nurse identify as the long-term goal for the debriefing?
a) deciding when to release the client from restraints
b) comparing the perceptions of the various staff members
c) providing feedback to each other on how procedures were handled
d) improving the staff's use of restraint procedures
A patient with BLANK a in place does not want any emergency procedure including BLANK
A patient with cardiac arrest, a in place does not want any emergency procedure including surgery.
What is emergency?Emergency is an unpredictable event that requires immediate action to protect lives or property. It can be a natural disaster such as an earthquake, flood, or tornado, or a man-made disaster such as a building fire or hazardous material accident. In an emergency, quick and effective response is essential. That's why it's important to have an emergency plan in place and to be aware of ways to protect yourself and your family. Emergency preparedness includes having a plan in place and the necessary supplies on hand to respond to and recover from an emergency. It also includes staying informed about potential dangers and knowing what to do when an emergency arises.
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the health care provider prescribed digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, for the client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. which is the scientific rationale for administering this medication?
.A nurse should assess the apical pulse for a full minute before administering digoxin due to its positive inotropic action (it increases contractility, stroke volume, and, thus, cardiac output), negative chronotropic action (it decreases heart rate), and negative dromotropic action (it decreases electrical conduction .
The most frequent side effects of cardiac glycosides include unusual tiredness and fatigue, anxiety, and hallucinations. In addition, symptoms of toxicity can include visual disturbances, nausea or vomiting, and cardiac arrhythmias.In patients with heart failure, digoxin exerts its positive inotropic effect by inhibiting sodium-potassium adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase). Inhibition of this enzyme in cardiac cells results in an increase in the contractile state of the heartIncreased cardiac output (positive inotropic effect) and slowing of the heart rate (negative chronotropic effect).Digoxin induces an increase in intracellular sodium that will drive an influx of calcium in the heart and cause an increase in contractility. Cardiac output increases with a subsequent decrease in ventricular filling pressures.Cardiac glycosides are medicines for treating heart failure and certain irregular heartbeats. They are one of several classes of drugs used to treat the heart and related conditions. These medicines are a common cause of poisoning
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Which of the following is MOST significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs?O ImmunityO ExposureO AcceptanceO Booster
Answer: A) Immunity
Explanation: For an infection to occur, germs must enter a susceptible person's body and invade tissues, multiply, and cause a reaction. If the person/you have a good immunity system, the less likely the germs/infection will cause harm and make the person/you become sick, as your body would fight off the germs.
Answer:
gender
Explanation:
how to detect a fetus? the speed of ultrasound in human body is 1540 m/s. a procedure is performed with a frequency of 2 mhz is used. to monitor the heart rate of a fetus: the maximum speed of a beating heart is 10 cm/s. find the maximum frequency of doppler shift.
The maximum frequency of doppler shift is 4.0002078 Hz.
Frequency is the quantity of occurrences of a repeating event according to unit of time. it's also once in a while known as temporal frequency for clarity, and is wonderful from angular frequency. Frequency is measured in hertz which is identical to at least one occasion per second.
Frequency received by the person from fetus is
V' = (v + v')/(v + v') v
V = (v + 0) +0 (u – 0) 1
Frequency received is
v' = (1540+0.08)/(1540-0.08) 2 = 2.0002078 Hz
So beat frequency will be 4.0002078 Hz
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The focus of________ prevention programs is avoiding additional medical problems; the focus of_______prevention programs is functioning.
The focus of tertiary prevention programs is avoiding additional medical problems; the focus of quaternary prevention programs is functioning.
It is used on patients who are exhibiting symptoms and tries to lessen the intensity of the illness as well as any potential aftereffects. Tertiary prevention aims to lessen the impact of the disease once it has been established in a person, whereas secondary prevention attempts to stop the beginning of illness. tertiary prevention involve efforts to reduce side effects, stop future disease or disorder-related consequences, stop relapse, and restore the best level of physical or psychological functioning possible. Interventions for rehabilitation following illness, injury, or disability are blood flow included in tertiary prevention as well as those for preventing more morbidity, limiting impairment, and avoiding mortality. Primary care is provided by the patients' primary healthcare providers, secondary care is provided by specialists, and tertiary care is more advanced specialised care provided within a hospital.
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when a patient becomes dizzy when attempting to stand, due to changes in blood vessels, what are the most appropriate instructions to give?
when a patient becomes dizzy when attempting to stand, due to changes in blood vessels, you should give instructions of get up slowly.
Veins, capillaries, and arteries are the three different types of blood vessels. Every one of these contributes to the circulation process in a very distinct way. Oxygenated blood leaves the heart through arteries. Although they have a robust exterior, they also have an inside that is smooth and lined with epithelial cells, which allows blood to circulate freely. Blood vessels move waste away from organs and tissues and deliver nutrients to those areas. The vasculature's contribution to the body's oxygenation is one of the system's main goals and most important functions. The inferior vena cava and superior vena cava are the diabetes mellitus two major veins that carry blood from the legs and abdomen to the heart, respectively.
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Decompression diving involves more risk than no-decompression diving, and without the proper precautions can become extremely hazardous.TRUE OR FALSE
he nurse is conducting a cancer risk assessment for a middle-aged client. which risk factor is appropriate for motivational interviewing for this client as an approach to risk reduction?
Motivational interviewing is a technique used to guide clients to make changes in their behavior.
A client's diet and nutritional status can be changed. Gender, family hx of cancer and age are risk factors that cant be changed.
The term "independent" refers to a person who does not work for the government. Individual judgements or assessments of risk may be affected by psychological, ideological, religious or otherwise subjective factors, which impact rationality of the process.
A 2017 systematic review of patients and doctors discovered that overstatement of benefits and understatement of risks occurred more frequently than the opposite.
Risk assessment can also be done on a much larger "systems" scale, such as assessing the risks of a nuclear power plant (a mechanical, electronic, nuclear, and human system that interacts) or a hurricane (a complex meteorological and geographical system).
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a nurse is preparing to suction a patient. the pulse is 65 and pulse oximetry is 94%. which finding will cause the nurse to stop suctioning?
Pulse oximetry reads 94% and the pulse is 65. Which discovery will prompt the nurse to halt suctioning? When oxygen saturation reaches 88%, stop.
A technique called pulse oximetry is performed to determine the blood's oxygen saturation level. It is a simple, painless test to determine how well oxygen is being delivered to the body parts that are farthest from the heart, such the arms and legs.A typical oximetry reading is what?
95% or more oxygen is considered to be a normal level. 90% of patients with sleep apnea or chronic lung illness may have normal levels. The "SpO2" value on a pulse oximeter displays the blood's oxygen content as a percentage. Call your healthcare practitioner if the SpO2 level you take at home is less than 95%.
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A 20-year-old male (Ht.: 5'10" Wt.: 165 lbs.) is a college student who spent part of his summer semester in South America. He was volunteering with an organization that was helping to establish safe drinking water in an area of very poor resources. Residents in the area previous used the local river for all of their water needs (e.g., drinking, cooking, bathing, and washing clothes). During his journey home, he began to feel ill. He had little energy, no appetite, and severe headaches, and nothing he ate seemed to agree with him. He felt nauseated, he began to have diarrhea, and he soon developed a fever. He began to show evidence of jaundice.
The signs and symptoms related to hepatitis A are primary symptoms related to hepatitis include anorexia, jaundice, and malnutrition
Diarrhoea is a loose, watery, and perhaps more frequent form of constipation. It could coexist with other symptoms like weight loss, nausea, vomiting, or stomach pain or it might be the sole symptom present. Fortunately, diarrhoea typically lasts no longer than a few days.
Hepatitis A does not harm the liver permanently and does not develop into a persistent (chronic) infection, in contrast to other types of viral hepatitis. Rarely, especially in older adults or those with chronic liver problems, hepatitis A can result in an abrupt (acute) loss of liver function.
Inflammation of the liver is brought on by the hepatitis A virus, which causes hepatitis A. (HAV). When an uninfected (and unvaccinated) individual consumes food or water that has been tainted by an infected person's faeces, the virus is most commonly disseminated.
Complete question:
A 20-year-old male (Ht.: 5'10" Wt.: 165 lbs.) is a college student who spent part of his summer semester in South America. He was volunteering with an organization that was helping to establish safe drinking water in an area of very poor resources. Residents in the area previously used the local river for all of their water needs (e.g., drinking, cooking, bathing, and washing clothes). During his journey home, he began to feel ill. He had little energy, no appetite, and severe headaches, and nothing he ate seemed to agree with him. He felt nauseated, he began to have diarrhea, and he soon developed a fever. He began to show evidence of jaundice.What are the signs and symptoms related to hepatitis?
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a disadvantage of using alfred binet’s concept of mental age in assessing intelligence is that
Adisadvantage of using alfred binet’s concept of mental age in assessing intelligence is that (A) it is inappropriate for adults.
What was Alfred Binet's theory?Alfred Binet's theory can be desceibed as the intelligence which can be defined by the comparison of the performance of children at the same idea however this concept stressed that there are certain tasks that most six-year-olds can complete however the Binet asserted that children who could not complete those tasks were below average.
It should be noted that this concept comes in term of intelligence in that focus on judgment, practical sense, initiative, as well as adaptability even though it is not appropriate for adults.
Therefore, option A is correct.
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missing options:
(A) it is inappropriate for adults
(B) it is based on a negatively skewed distribution
(C) its norms are no longer appropriate
(D) it has a gender bias
(E) it produces unreliable test results among rural children
the nurse is preparing to delegate tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) for a client who recently had a stroke and is suffering from mil hemiplegia. which task would be inappropriate for the nurse to delegate to the uap?
The task that is most inappropriate for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel will be Initiating intravenous therapy.
Who is an unlicensed assistive personnel?An unlicensed assistive personnel is known as the individual that is unlicensed and is trained to offer an assistive role to nurses in the care for patients in the hospital.
The roles and responsibilities of an unlicensed assistive personnel include the following:
Observing, documenting and reporting clinical and treatment information, including patients' behavioral changes.Assisting with motion exercises and other rehabilitative measures.Taking and recording vital signs.The initial of intravenous therapy is an invasive procedure that requires the licensed medical professional to carry out and not an unlicensed assistive personnel.
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Which of the following pathways would be activated in the liver? A) gluconeogenesis. B) TCA cycle. C) ketone body synthesis. D) Both A and C
Gluconeogenesis pathway would be activated in the liver. Non-carbohydrate substrates undergo a process called glucoseneogenesis, which results in the production of glucose.
Gluconeogenesis (GNG) is a metabolic process by which some carbon substrates that aren't carbohydrates are converted into glucose. In addition to bacteria, fungi, and other microbes, it occurs in all living things. In vertebrates, the liver and the cortex of the kidneys are the primary locations for gluconeogenesis to take place. One of the two main methods that humans and many other animals employ to regulate blood sugar levels and prevent low levels is the breakdown of glycogen. Gluconeogenesis happens in ruminants regardless of fasting, low-carb diets, exercise, etc. because dietary carbs frequently get digested chest tube by rumen microbes. During fasting, famine, low-carb diets, or periods of strenuous exercise, the procedure takes place in a lot of other animals.
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michael finds that getting away from the office at lunchtime to take a long walk helps him control his stress. michael is using as a stress management technique. a. time management b. nutrition c. exercise d. relaxation
Michael is using as a stress management technique Exercise is the correct option for the given question so option C is correct
Stress management technique Mindfulness Meditation. Mindfulness meditation is a form of meditation that teaches individuals to be mindful and aware of their thoughts, feelings, and physical sensations in the present moment. This technique is designed to help individuals learn to observe their thoughts and feelings without judgment and to cultivate a sense of acceptance and compassion for themselves. Mindfulness meditation can be practiced for just a few minutes at a time and can be done anywhere, such as at home or in the workplace. During a mindfulness meditation session, individuals can focus their attention on their breath or on an object or phrase. This can help them to become more aware of their thoughts and feelings while allowing them to practice being non-judgmental and accepting of their experiences. Additionally, mindfulness meditation can help individuals recognize and manage stress triggers, allowing them to respond to challenging situations with greater composure.
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many people are aware of the health hazards of being overweight, and yet many people have difficulty resisting an extra dessert. that is because:
the overall significance of the effects of a single such action.
the effects—whether positive or negative, long-term or short-term—that result from a variety of activities that take place throughout a region or area, where each consequence may not have much of an influence when considered alone.
These effects can be brought on by increasing traffic volumes, the cumulative effect of a number of agricultural practices leading to more extensive chemical use and output, etc.
Cumulative impacts take into account time since they should estimate the toll that actions taken in the past, present, and reasonably foreseeable future will have on environmental resources.
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Complete Question :-
many people are aware of the health hazards of being overweight, and yet many people have difficulty resisting an extra dessert. that is because:
A. the consequences of a single such action are of cumulative significance
B. the consequences for doing so are highly probable
C. there are no consequences for doing so
D. the consequences for doing so are very delayed
the nursing student is learning how to care for clients whose death is expected within a limited period of time. which statement makes the faculty member believe the student has mastered this topic?
Inferring from the fact that the student has mastered this subject that many patients are aware they have a terminal through interpreting nonverbal communication.
A terminal sickness is one in which death is predicted to occur in a short amount of time. Discussions with these clients and their families are held with the nurse and other healthcare experts present. Many patients learn they have a terminal medicine by nonverbal cues from their loved ones and medical staff, rather than being explicitly told. Competent patients have the option to agree or object to any medical treatment, including life-sustaining procedures. Culture may have an impact on how much information is sought as well as which family members should be told.
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Mandatory ethics is a higher level of ethical practice that addresses doing what is in the best interest of clients. FALSE
Mandatory ethics is a higher level of ethical practice that addresses doing what is in the best interest of clients. The given statement is false.
The study of ethics, often known as moral philosophy, "involves systematising, defending, and endorsing conceptions of good and bad action. Axiology is a subfield of philosophy that consists of the fields of ethics and aesthetics. These fields are concerned with issues of value.
Through the definition of terms like good and evil, right and wrong, virtue and vice, justice and crime, ethics aims to answer concerns about human morality. Moral philosophy has connections to value theory, descriptive ethics, and moral psychology as areas of academic study. In order to understand what is morally right or wrong, just or unjust, ethics explores the intellectual justifications for our electrolyte moral judgements. Ethics, in a broader sense, considers how people interact with one another and with the natural world.
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which of the following exercises may be added to a pregnant women's exercise program to ease delivery and pregnancy?
To make labour and pregnancy easier, pregnant women should include Kegel Exercises in their workout regimen.
You can strengthen the muscles in your pelvic floor by performing basic clench-and-release movements known as kegels. Your pelvis is where your reproductive organs are located, between your hips.
At the base of your pelvis, a sling-like structure called the pelvic floor is actually made up of a number of muscles and tissues. Your organs are secured with this sling. Instabilities like losing control of your bowels or bladder might result from a weak pelvic floor.
Once you get a grasp on the Kegel exercises, you may perform them anytime, anyplace, whether you're at home alone or in line at the bank.
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you are giving morning medications to a patient who refuses to take an oral dose of docusate (colace). what is your best response?
The best response said by the nurse is can you tell me why you do not want to take the docusate.
The anion bis(2-ethylhexyl) sulfosuccinate, also known as dioctyl sulfosuccinate, is known chemically and pharmaceutically as docusate. It is included in the WHO's list of essential medications. In medicine, salts of this anion, particularly docusate sodium, are frequently used as laxatives and stool softeners, either orally or rectally. With more over 3 million prescriptions written, it was the 163rd most frequently prescribed drug in the US in 2020. According to some research, docusate is not any more helpful at treating constipation than a placebo. There are additional docusate salts with medical applications, such as calcium and potassium.
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4700/87the health care provider orders the following interventions for a 67-kg patient who has septic shock with abp of 70/42 mm hg and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. in which order will the nurse implement theactions?
Eating a healthier diet with less salt, exercising regularly, and taking medications can help lower blood pressure.
Blood pressure is the force of your blood pushing against the walls of your arteries. Each time your heart beats, it pumps blood into the arteries. Your blood pressure is highest when your heart beats, pumping the blood. A condition in which the force of the blood against the artery walls is too high. Usually hypertension is defined as blood pressure above 140/90, and is considered severe if the pressure is above 180/120. High blood pressure often has no symptoms. Over time, if untreated, it can cause health conditions, such as heart disease and stroke.
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A 50-year-old woman has had easy fatigability and noted a dragging sensation in her abdomen for the past 5 months. Physical examination reveals that she is afebrile. She has marked splenomegaly, but no lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show her total WBC count is 250,000/mm3 with WBC differential count showing 64% segmented neutrophils, 11% band neutrophils, 7% metamyelocytes, 5% myelocytes, 4% myeloblasts, 3% lymphocytes, 2% basophils, 2% eosinophils, and 2% monocytes. A bone marrow biopsy is performed, and karyotypic analysis of the cells reveals a t(9;22) translocation. Medical treatment with a drug having which of the following modes of action is most likely to produce a complete remission in this patient?
Note that in the above scenario, involving Chronic Myeloid Leukemia(CML) the medical treatment with a drug having the above-described modes of action that is likely to produce a complete remission in this patient are:
Inhibiting tyrosine Kinase activityChronic myelogenous leukemia; translocation causes uncontrolled nonreceptor tyrosine kinase activity of BCR-ABL fusion of gene.What is Translocation?Chromosomal translocation is a genetic condition that causes atypical chromosome rearrangement. Balanced and unbalanced translocation are included, with two primary types: reciprocal- and Robertsonian translocation.
Translocations can be discovered with high sensitivity and specificity by targeted hybrid-capture-based DNA sequencing panels, although this needs intron sequencing. By utilizing off-target coverage, capture-based targeted sequencing may detect all translocation partners of a captured gene.
Note that while these drugs do not cure CML, they can induce complete remission in a significant proportion of patients and have significantly improved the outlook for individuals with this cancer.
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kim claims that elder mistreatment is more likely to happen at old age homes and care centers as opposed to within households. however, carla disagrees and claims that most cases of elder mistreatment occur at the hands of family members. which of the following is an accurate statement that weakens kim's claim?
Non-family members are determined to be responsible for less than one-third of elder abuse.
Elder mistreatment can be discovered through the following methods: (1) agency record reviews; (2) sentinel reports (trained observers in organisations that assist senior citizens but fail to record abuse in official adult protective service [APS] records); (3) translation of criminal justice statistics using age and perpetrator data fields; (4) caretaker/family member interviews (in person or over the phone); and (5) interviews with the elderly respondents themselves (in person or via telephone).
The cognitive status of a mistreated senior is significant because the social context of abuse or assault of non-demented older individuals by family members resembles domestic violence, but the social environment of abuse of cognitively impaired older adults resembles child abuse more.
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the nurse responds to the call light of a client who has had a cervical discectomy earlier in the day. the client states that she is having severe pain that had a sudden onset. what is the nurse's most appropriate action?
The most appropriate action for the nurse to do to treat a client that is experiencing severe pain after having a cervical discectomy is to call the patient's surgeon to report the patient's experience of pain.
Cervical discectomy is a surgical procedure that is done to remove a damaged intervertebral disc from the spine in the neck or damaged tissue in that area. This surgery took the pressure off the nerves. When one just got this surgery performed on them, they must get enough rest and avoid lifting heavy things, as well as follow other instructions that were given by their doctor.
If one feels pain that doesn't get better even after taking pain medicine or experiencing numbness, tingling, shortness of breath, and other worrying symptoms, they must contact their medical provider immediately. In the case in the question above, the nurse should report the patient's condition to her surgeon as soon as possible, so the surgeon can figure out what is happening and treat her accordingly.
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when a donor cataract lens is not available for surgical replacement in a patient, the physician may utilize an artificial intraocular lens. the correct abbreviation for this type of implant is:
The doctor may use an artificial intraocular lens when a donor cataract lens is not available for surgical repair in a patient. IOL is the appropriate abbreviation for this kind of implant.
An intraocular lens implant is a man-made, artificial lens that is implanted inside the eye to take the place of a natural lens that has been surgically removed, typically during cataract surgery. An expandable intraocular lens is put into the eye. The most typical lens used during cataract surgery, according to the AAO, is a monofocal medicine. You can see clearly and precisely at a specific distance with this kind of lens. A lens implanted in the eye to treat myopia or cataracts is known as an intraocular lens (IOL).
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the nutrition facts panel on a package of margarine shows that one serving provides 0.4 grams of fat. based on this information, under which nutrient-claim category will the margarine fall?
It will fall in the Fat-free category as it says 0.4grams of fat which is negligible.
Carbohydrates and proteins provide 4 calories per gram, and fats provide 9 calories per gram. Fat is the most energy-dense nutrient, because it provides the most calories per gram (more than double carbohydrates and protein).Each gram of carbohydrate and protein yield 4 calories/gram. Each gram of fat yields 9 calories. A calorie is a measurement, just like a teaspoon or an inch. Calories are the amount of energy released when your body breaks down (digests and absorbs) food.Proteins provide 4 calories of energy per gram; however providing energy is not protein's most important function. Proteins provide structure to bones, muscles, and skin; support tissue growth, repair, and maintenance; and play a role in conducting most of the chemical reactions that take place in the body.Carbohydrates and proteins provide the same amount of energy per gram. Carbohydrates burn fastest in metabolism.
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the nurse provides care for a toddler age client after a bronchoscopy and removal of an aspirated peanut. which assessment requires an immediate intervention by the nurse
The assessment necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse for a toddler-age client who is "sitting forward with the neck extended and the supraclavicular muscles contracted" following a bronchoscopy. Hence, the correct answer is D.
The toddler-age client who sat forward with the neck extended and the supraclavicular muscles tensed after a bronchoscopy and the extraction of an aspirated peanut is displaying an indication of stress that demands an immediate intervention by the nurse.
Weak coughing attempts with minimal sputum output and drowsiness but still being awake are anticipated symptoms following the bronchoscopy procedure. The bronchoscopy procedure enables medical professionals to view the lungs and airways. Usually, a lung disease specialist does it called a pulmonologist.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. BP 90/60 mm Hg, apical heart rate 110 beats/min with a sinus arrhythmia. B. Weak cough effort with scant production of sputum, drowsy but arousable. C. Abdominal muscles contract during inspiration, respiratory rate 30 breaths/min. D. Sits forward with the neck extended, contraction of supraclavicular muscles.The correct answer is D.
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strike through bookmark user note feedback acute medically supervised withdrawal (for 5 or more days) in the treatment of opioid use disorders:
Acute withdrawal under medical supervision (for five or more days) in the management of opioid use disorders is not likely to lead to sustained abstinence.
Quitting drugs is painful, and adjusting to new situations can be frustrating. This means that while withdrawing from nearly any substance, anxiety, impatience, and frustration are frequent.
Drug dependence is accompanied by challenging withdrawal symptoms that can be both physical and psychological in character, and occasionally even life-threatening. Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists like clonidine and lofexidine, as well as opioid agonists like methadone and buprenorphine (partial agonist), are medications used to alleviate withdrawal symptoms.
In order to manage opioid use disorders, acute withdrawal under medical supervision (for five or more days) is not likely to result in prolonged abstinence.
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