Adam’s house is 2 centimeters from Juan’s house on a map. If each centimeter on the map represents 6 kilometers, how far apart are the two houses?

Answer:

0.9719

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the mean and standard deviation of the sampling distribution.

μ = 5.1

σ = 1.1 / √49 = 0.157

Find the z score.

z = (x − μ) / σ

z = (4.8 − 5.1) / 0.157

z = -1.909

Use a calculator to find the probability.

P(Z > -1.909)

= 1 − P(Z < -1.909)

= 1 − 0.0281

= 0.9719

The probability of the randomly used item mean length is greater than 4.8 inches is 0.9719

Probability is the branch of mathematics concerning numerical descriptions of how likely an event is to occur, or how likely it is that a proposition is true.

In statistics, the standard deviation is a measure of the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values.

The arithmetic mean is found by adding the numbers and dividing the sum by the number of numbers in the list.

Given,

Mean = 5.1 inches

Standard deviation = 1.1 inches

Sample size = 49

New mean = 4.8

Z score = Difference in mean /(standard deviation / [tex]\sqrt{sample size}[/tex])

Z score = [tex]\frac{4.8-5.1}{1.1/\sqrt{49} }=-1.909[/tex]

Z score = -1.909

Then the probability

P(Z>-1.909)

=1-P(Z>-1.909)

=1-0.0281

=0.9719

Hence, The probability of the randomly used item mean length is greater than 4.8 inches is 0.9719

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Answer:

The answer is

Step-by-step explanation:

First factor (x+1)² out of the expression

That's

[tex] \frac{ ({x + 1})^{2} (6 \cos( \frac{\pi}{3} )) {x}^{2} - {x}^{3} \times 2 \sin( \frac{\pi}{2} ) }{ ({x + 1})^{2} } [/tex]

Reduce the expression by (x + 1)²

We have

[tex]6 \cos( \frac{\pi}{3} ) \times {x}^{2} - {x}^{3} \times 2 \sin( \frac{\pi}{2} ) [/tex]

Using trigonometric values table

[tex] \cos( \frac{\pi}{3} ) = \frac{1}{2} [/tex]

[tex] \sin( \frac{\pi}{2} ) = 1[/tex]

So we have

[tex]6 \times \frac{1}{2} \times {x}^{2} - {x}^{3} \times 2 \times 1[/tex]

Simplify

We have the final answer as

[tex] {3x}^{2} - 2 {x}^{3} [/tex]

Hope this helps you

Answer:

71°

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of two interior angles in a triangle is equal to an exterior angle

m<x + m<y = m<z

4n - 18 + n + 9 = 151 - 5n

5n - 9 = 151 - 5n add like terms

10n = 160

n = 16

Since m<z = 151 - 5n we replace n with 16 and 151 - 5×16 = 71

Answer:

A. 71

Step-by-step explanation:

x + y = z

4n - 18 + n + 9 = 151 - 5n

5n - 9 = 151 - 5n

10n = 160

n = 16

Z = 151 - 5(16) = 71

Answer:

300%

Step-by-step explanation:

1 year = 12 months

percent = part/whole * 100%

percent = 12/4 * 100% = 300%

Answer:

please can u follow me I've started following you

Answer:

C, 39.3 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets first find the area of the rectangle part of the house.

To find the area of a rectangle its base × height.

So its 6×4=24 in².

Now lets find the area of the top triangle.

Area for a triangle is (base × height)/2.

The height is 3 inches, because its 7-4. While the base is 6 inches.

(6×3)/2=9 in².

To find the area of the half circle the formula, (piR²)/2.

The radius of the circle is 2 because its half of the diamter which is 4.

(pi2²)/2=6.283 in².

Now we just need to add up the area of every part,

24+9+6.283=39.283in²

Complete Question

Find the​ mean, variance, and standard deviation of the binomial distribution with the given values of n and p. ​, The​ mean, ​, is nothing. ​(Round to the nearest tenth as​ needed.)

    p =  0.6   n =  18

Answer:

The mean   [tex]\mu = 10.5[/tex]

The standard deviation [tex]\sigma = 2.08[/tex]

The  variance   [tex]var = 4.32[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The probability of success   is  [tex]p = 0.6[/tex]

      The  sample size is [tex]n = 18[/tex]

  Generally given that the distribution is binomial, then the probability of failure is mathematically represented as

              [tex]q = 1- p[/tex]

substituting values

              [tex]q = 1- 0.6[/tex]

              [tex]q =0.4[/tex]

Generally the mean is mathematically evaluated as

             [tex]\mu = np[/tex]

substituting values

             [tex]\mu = 18 * 0.6[/tex]    

             [tex]\mu = 10.5[/tex]

The  standard deviation is evaluated as

              [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{npq}[/tex]

substituting values

               [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{18 * 0.6 * 0.4}[/tex]

              [tex]\sigma = 2.08[/tex]

The variance is evaluated as

               [tex]var = \sigma^2[/tex]

substituting value

              [tex]var = 2.08^2[/tex]

              [tex]var = 4.32[/tex]

Answer: The value of x- 2y is a. [tex]\pm 3[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:  x and y are two positive real numbers such that [tex]x^2+4y^2=17[/tex]   and [tex]xy= 2[/tex] .

Consider [tex](x-2y)^2=x^2-2(x)(2y)+(2y)^2\ \ \ [(a+b)^2=(a^2-2ab+b^2)][/tex]

[tex]=x^2-4xy+4y^2[/tex]

[tex]=x^2+4y^2-4(xy)[/tex]

Put  [tex]x^2+4y^2=17[/tex]   and [tex]xy= 2[/tex] , we get

[tex](x-2y)^2=17-4(2)=17-8=9[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow\ (x-2y)^2=9[/tex]

Taking square root on both sides , we get'

[tex]x-2y= \pm3[/tex]

Hence, the value of x- 2y is a. [tex]\pm 3[/tex].

Answer:

A. y + 2= x

Step-by-step explanation:

Which equation is represented by the graph shown in the image?

A. y + 2= x

B. y + 1= x

C. y - 1= x

D. y - 2= x

Please show ALL work! <3

The graph shown has a slope of +1 and a y intercept of -2.

All given answer choices have a slope of +1, so that's not the problem.

We need one that has a y-intercept of -2, or the equation should be

y = x-2, or equivalently y+2 = x

which corresponds to answer choice A.

Answer:

f-4

Step-by-step explanation:

f-4  cannot be simplified

This is the simplest form

Answer:

[tex]\large \boxed{f-4}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f-4[/tex]

[tex]\sf f \ is \ a \ nonzero \ number.[/tex]

[tex]\sf The \ expression \ cannot \ be \ simplified \ further.[/tex]

Answer:

First find the number of Mango and oranges. 400 divided by 8 = 50. We use 8 because it is the whole part of the percentage. Since, there is 3/8 mangoes, multiply 50* 3= 150 mangoes and 50*5= 250 oranges.

2/3 of 150=100 mangoes. You would find this by dividing 150/3=50 then multiply by 2.

4/5 of 250= 200 oranges. You would find this by dividing 250/5=50 then multiply by 4.

$.40*100= $40.00 mangoes

$.60*200= $120.00 oranges

Mr. Mead would make $160.00

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

18/a

Step-by-step explanation:

quotient means divide

18/a

Answer:

Below

Step-by-step explanation:

If d is a positive number then the greatest common factor is 108d.

To get it isolate d and d^2 from the numbers.

108 divides 216. (216 = 2×108)

Then the greatest common factor of 216 and 108 is 108.

For d^2 and d we will follow the same strategy

d divides d^2 (d^2 = d*d)

Then the greatest common factor of them is d.

So the greatest common factor will be 108d if and only if d is positive. If not then 108 is the answer

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{108d}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Part 1: Find GCF of variables

The equation gives d ² and d as variables. The GCF rules for variables are:

The GCF for the variables is d.

Part 2: Find GCF of bases (Method #1)

The equation gives 108 and 216 as coefficients. To check for a GCF, use prime factorization trees to find common factors in between the values.

Key: If a number is in bold, it is marked this way because it cannot be divided further AND is a prime number!

Prime Factorization of 108

108 ⇒ 54 & 2

54 ⇒ 27 & 2

27 ⇒ 9 & 3

9 ⇒ 3 & 3

Therefore, the prime factorization of 108 is 2 * 2 * 3 * 3 * 3, or simplified as 2² * 3³.

Prime Factorization of 216

216 ⇒ 108 & 2

108 ⇒ 54 & 2

54 ⇒ 27 & 2

27 ⇒ 9 & 3

9 ⇒ 3 & 3

Therefore, the prime factorization of 216 is 2 * 2 * 2 * 3 * 3 * 3, or simplified as 2³ * 3³.

After completing the prime factorization trees, check for the common factors in between the two values.

The prime factorization of 216 is 2³ * 3³ and the prime factorization of 108 is 2² * 3³.  Follow the same rules for GCFs of variables listed above and declare that the common factor is the factor of 108.

Therefore, the greatest common factor (combining both the coefficient and the variable) is [tex]\boxed{108d}[/tex].

Part 3: Find GCF of bases (Method #2)

This is the quicker method of the two. Simply divide the two coefficients and see if the result is 2. If so, the lesser number is immediately the coefficient.

[tex]\frac{216}{108}=2[/tex]

Therefore, the coefficient of the GCF will be 108.

Then, follow the process described for variables to determine that the GCF of the variables is d.

Therefore, the GCF is [tex]\boxed{108d}[/tex].

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First you have to find the medians which is when you put the numbers in number order and find the one in the middle.

Class A: 60,65,70,70,75,80,80,85,90,90

=77.5

Class B: 75,85,85,85,90,90,90,90,95,100

=90

That the class B is more advanced, and they probably studied.

Answer:

B =

[tex]4x - 1 - \frac{4}{2x - 3} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

In this type of questions the answers are required in the

[tex]quotient \: + \frac{remainder}{divisor} [/tex]

form.

First of all, the equations in question must be arranged properly

[tex](8 {x}^{2} - 14x - 1) \div 2x - 3[/tex]

Then you divide.

[tex]2x - 3 \sqrt{8 {x}^{2} - 14x - 1 } [/tex]

Answer

[tex]4x - 1 - \frac{4}{2x - 3} [/tex]

Answer:

Yes.

It is 1.45 x 10^-7 or 0.000000145

Hope it helps!

Answer:

It is 1.45 x 10^-7 or 0.000000145

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Mr Singh was travelling from England to Punjab, India. He arrived 5 hours after 0:00. When he was on the plane, there was a delay which caused the whole flight to be pushed 4 hours ahead. This would mean that he would arrive 9 hours after 0:00. Mr Singh was also with his son and he had some homework to do. He had to order the numbers   [tex]-4,-2\frac{1}{3} ,0, \frac{3}{4} ,\sqrt{5},5[/tex]  from lowest to highest.

Answer:

[tex]\mathbf{P(x>6) = 0.0265}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

A baseball player has a batting average (probability of getting on base per time at bat) of 0.215

i.e

let x to be the random variable,

consider [tex]x_1 = \left \{ {{1} \atop {0}} \right.[/tex]  to be if the baseball player has a batting average or otherwise.

Then

p(x₁ = 1) = 0.125

What is the probability that they will get on base more than 6 of the next 15 at bats

So

[tex]\mathtt{x_i \sim Binomial (n,p)}[/tex]

where; n =  15 and p = 0.125

P(x>6) = P(x ≥ 7)

[tex]P(x>6) = \sum \limits ^{15}_{x=7} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 - \sum \limits ^{6}_{x=7} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 - \sum \limits ^{6}_{x=0} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 -0.9735[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{P(x>6) = 0.0265}[/tex]

Answer:

5/36 ; 1/12 ; 2/9 ; yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following :

Roll of two fair dice : green and red

Probability = (number of required outcomes / number of total possible outcomes)

(a) What is the probability of getting a sum of 6?

Number of required outcomes = 5

P(sum of 6) = 5/36

b.) What is the probability of getting a sum of 10?

Number of required outcomes = 3

P(sum of 10) = 3 / 36 = 1/12

c.) What is the probability of getting a sum of 6 or 10?

P(getting a sum of 6) + P(getting a sum of 10)

(5/36) + (1/12) = (5 + 3) / 36

= 8/36 = 2/9

The events are mutually exclusive because each event cannot occur at the same time.

Answer:

(-0.3, 2.3)

Step-by-step explanation:

(-1.8+1.2)/2 = -0.3

(1.9+2.7)/2 = 2.3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the points be A and B

A ( - 1.8 , 1.9 ) ⇒( x₁ , y₁ )

B ( 1.2 , 2.7 )⇒ ( x₂ , y₂ )

Now, let's find the midpoint:

[tex] \mathsf{ (\frac{x1 + x2}{2} \: , \frac{y1 + y2}{2} )}[/tex]

Plug the values

[tex] \mathsf{ = (\frac{ - 1.8 + 1.2}{2} \: , \frac{1.9 + 2.7}{2} )}[/tex]

Calculate

[tex] \mathsf{ = ( \frac{ - 0.6}{2} \: , \frac{4.6}{2} )}[/tex]

[tex] \mathsf{ = (- 0.3 \:, 2.3)}[/tex]

Hope I helped!

Best regards!

Answer:

a

   The  percentage is

            [tex]P(x_1 < X < x_2 ) = 51.1 \%[/tex]

b

   The probability is  [tex]P(Z > 2.5 ) = 0.0062097[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

        The  population mean is  [tex]\mu = 800[/tex]

        The  variance is  [tex]var(x) = 1600 \ kg[/tex]

        The  range consider is  [tex]x_1 = 778 \ kg \ x_2 = 834 \ kg[/tex]

         The  value consider in second question is  [tex]x = 900 \ kg[/tex]

Generally the standard deviation is mathematically represented as

        [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{var (x)}[/tex]

substituting value

        [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{1600}[/tex]

       [tex]\sigma = 40[/tex]

The percentage of a cucumber give the crop amount between 778 and 834 kg  is mathematically represented as

       [tex]P(x_1 < X < x_2 ) = P( \frac{x_1 - \mu }{\sigma} < \frac{X - \mu }{ \sigma } < \frac{x_2 - \mu }{\sigma } )[/tex]

    Generally  [tex]\frac{X - \mu }{ \sigma } = Z (standardized \ value \ of \ X)[/tex]

So

      [tex]P(x_1 < X < x_2 ) = P( \frac{778 - 800 }{40} < Z< \frac{834 - 800 }{40 } )[/tex]

      [tex]P(x_1 < X < x_2 ) = P(z_2 < 0.85) - P(z_1 < -0.55)[/tex]

From the z-table  the value for  [tex]P(z_1 < 0.85) = 0.80234[/tex]

                                            and [tex]P(z_1 < -0.55) = 0.29116[/tex]  

So

             [tex]P(x_1 < X < x_2 ) = 0.80234 - 0.29116[/tex]

             [tex]P(x_1 < X < x_2 ) = 0.51118[/tex]

The  percentage is

            [tex]P(x_1 < X < x_2 ) = 51.1 \%[/tex]

The probability of cucumber give the crop exceed 900 kg is mathematically represented as

             [tex]P(X > x ) = P(\frac{X - \mu }{\sigma } > \frac{x - \mu }{\sigma } )[/tex]

substituting values

             [tex]P(X > x ) = P( \frac{X - \mu }{\sigma } >\frac{900 - 800 }{40 } )[/tex]

             [tex]P(X > x ) = P(Z >2.5 )[/tex]

From the z-table  the value for  [tex]P(Z > 2.5 ) = 0.0062097[/tex]

Answer:

35°

Step-by-step explanation:

If BCD is 75, then BCA is 105.

105+40=145

180-145=35

So ABC is 35°

Answer:

15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups

2 cups: 2/3 cups

2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

Take and divide each by the smaller number

15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups

First put in improper fraction form

15/2 : 5/2

Divide each by 5/2

15/2 ÷ 5/2  : 5/2 ÷5/2

15/2 * 2/5  : 1

3 :1   yes

1 cup: 1/4 cups

Divide each by 1/4 ( which is the same as multiplying by 4)

1*4  : 1/4 *1

4 : 1    no

2/3 cups: 1 cup

Divide each by 2/3  ( which is the same as multiplying by 3/2)

2/3 * 3/2  : 1 * 3/2

1 : 3/2   no

3 3/4 cups: 2 cups

Change to improper fraction

( 4*3+3)/4  : 2

15/4    : 2

Divide each side by 2

15/8  : 2/2

15/8   : 1    no

2 cups: 2/3 cups

Divide each side by 2/3 ( which is the same as multiplying by 3/2)

2 * 3/2 : 2/3 *3/2

3  : 1   yes

2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups

Change to an improper fraction

( 2*2+1)/2 : 5/6

5/2  : 5/6

Divide each side by 5/6( which is the same as multiplying by 6/5)

5/2 * 6/5  : 5/6 * 6/5

3  : 1   yes

The 15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups, 2 cups: 2/3 cups, and 2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups have a unit rate of 3

It is defined as the comparison between two quantities that how many times the one number acquires the other number. The ratio can be presented in the fraction form or the sign : between the numbers.

For checking: 15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups

= (15/2)/(5/2)       [2(1/2) = 5/2]

= 3

For checking:  1 cup: 1/4 cups

= 1/(1/4)

= 4

For checking: 2/3 cups: 1 cup

=(2/3)/1

= 2/3

For checking: 3 3/4 cups: 2 cups

= (15/4)(2)

= 15/8

For checking: 2 cups: 2/3 cups

= (2)/(2/3)

= 3

For checking: 2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups

= (5/2)/(5/6)

= 3

Thus, the 15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups, 2 cups: 2/3 cups, and 2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups have a unit rate of 3

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Answer:

126°

Step-by-step explanation:

If that angle is 27, so is angle a.

180-27-27=126

Answer:

A) 0.12. Yes. Choosing a green and blue M&M is possible

B) 0.43. Yes. Choosing a yellow and red M&M is possible

C) 0.78

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all, the summation of the distribution of all colours is;

Σ(all colors ) = 22% + 20% + 23% + 10% + 6% + 6% + 13% = 100%, or 1.

Thus;

a) P(green candy or blue candy) is;

P(GREEN ∪ BLUE) = P(G) + P(BL)

P(GREEN ∪ BLUE) = 6%+6%

P(GREEN ∪ BLUE) = 12% or 0.12

Now, due to the fact that we have to choose ONE candy and only ONE candy at random, then they are mutually exclusive: Yes. Choosing a green and blue M&M is possible

b)P(yellow candy or red candy is;

P(YELLOW ∪ RED) = P(Y) + P(R)

P(YELLOW ∪ RED) = 20% + 23% = 43% or 0.43

Yes. Choosing a yellow and red M&M is possible

c) P(NOT PURPLE)

the probability of having a purple is;

P(PURPLE) = 22% or 0.22

So, the Probability of NOT having a PURPLE is 1 - 0.22 = 0.78

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\sqrt{65}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Magnitude is solved with the following equation: [tex]\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}[/tex]

Therefore, just plug in your x and y-values and solve.

[tex]\sqrt{4^{2}+7{^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{16 + 49}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{65}[/tex]

Because [tex]\bold{\sqrt{65}}[/tex] cannot be simplified further, this is the magnitude of the vector.

Hi

35/100= 140/ X

X = 100*140 /35

X= 14000/35

X= 400

There are 400 computer in the compagny.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The sequence of the problem above is an arithmetic sequence

For an nth term in an arithmetic sequence

F(n) = a + ( n - 1)d

where a is the first term

n is the number of terms

d is the common difference

To find the equation first find the common difference

0.65 - 0.5 = 0.15 or 0.80 - 0.65 = 0.15

The first term is 0.5

Substitute the values into the above formula

That's

f(n) = 0.5 + (n - 1)0.15

f(n) = 0.5 + 0.15n - 0.15

The final answer is

Hope this helps you

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Took the math test on edge

Answer: it says that if two different paths connect the same two points.

Step-by-step explanation:

It says that is two different paths connect the same two points, and a function holomorphic everywhere in between the two paths, then the two path integrals of the functions will be same.

Answer:

Rational

Step-by-step explanation:

Rational number consists of

-5/6 is a Fraction and we can also simply it to a Decimal.

Hope this helps ;) ❤❤❤

Answer:

42  headbands per dancer

Step-by-step explanation:

Selling 1260 headband

Divide by the three coaches

1260/3

420 per coach

Divide by each dancer under a coach

420/10 = 42

Each dancer must sell 42 headbands