Algebra 2 Please Help

Answer:

i think its 63

Answer:

60 seconds, 7715 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Plane A and B start out 615 feet apart, and we find this by subtracting the height of plane A from plane B, getting 5000-4385=615. Now we have to find how many more feet of altitude plane A is gaining per second over plane B.

To find this we subtract 45.25 from 55.5 and get 10.25 feet per second. Now to find out how many seconds until they'll be at the same altitude we simply divide 615 by 10.25, getting 60 seconds.

For the second part, to find the altitude at this point, we simply multiply the altitude gain of one of the planes per second by the time of 60 seconds to get how much altitude they gained over that time, and add it to the starting altitude. Doing this with plane B we get 45.25*60=2715, and we add that to 5000 to get the final answer of 7715.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Total marbles:

Green and blue marbles:

Probability of getting green or blue:

Answer:

A should be 40 if not sorry

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

40 is da right answer,you will see little william

Answer:

0.885

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex] \arc{PNM} = 222 [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Central angle = measure of the arc it subtends

Therefore:

[tex] \arc{PN} = \arc{PM} = 138 [/tex]

A full circle = 360°

So,

[tex] \arc{PN} + \arc{PM} + \arc{NM} = 360 [/tex]

Plug in the values

[tex] 138 + 138 + \arc{NM} = 360 [/tex]

[tex] 276 + \arc{NM} = 360 [/tex]

[tex] \arc{NM} = 360 - 276 [/tex] (subtraction property of equality)

[tex] \arc{NM} = 84 [/tex]

[tex] \arc{PNM} = \arc{NM} + \arc{PN} [/tex]

Plug in the values

[tex] \arc{PNM} = 84 + 138 [/tex]

[tex] \arc{PNM} = 222 [/tex]

Answer:

$ 6096

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the cost of truck = x

x+19% of x = 9068

x + 0.19x = 9068

1.19 x = 9068

      [tex]x = \frac{9068}{1.19}[/tex]

    x = 7620.17

Reduction = 20% of 7620.17

                 = 0.20 * 7620.17

                 = $ 1524.03

New price = 7620.17 -  1524.03

                  = $ 6096.14

Answer:

The total number of employees is 377.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. You divide total number of women (232) by the ratio of women. (8)

232/8 =29

2. You take 29 and multiply it by the amount of men in the ratio. (5)

29*5=145

3. Finally you just add the total amount of men (145) and the total amount of women. (232)

232+145=377

I hope this helps!

I tried to explain to the best of my ability.

Answer: 377 employees

Step-by-step explanation:

The ratio of men to women can be represented as [tex]\frac{5}{8}[/tex] where the numerator represents how many men are in the company, and the denominator represents how many women are in the company. Given that there are 232 women in the company, we can replace denominator with 232, and then cross multiply.

[tex]\frac{5}{8}= \frac{x}{232}[/tex]    After cross multiplying, the expression left would be 8x = 1160. To get the final answer, we would only need to simplify this. It would give us a total of 145, which is how many men work in the company.

Lastly, add the the number or men and women working in the company, and that would be the total people that work in the company

There are three commonly used trigonometric identities.

Sin x = 1/ cosec x

Cos x = 1/ sec x

Tan x = 1/ cot x or sin x / cos x

Cot x = cos x / sin x

Sin 30 = 5/x

Sin 30 = 1/2

x = 10

The length of the side x is 10.

There are three commonly used trigonometric identities.

Sin x = 1/ cosec x

Cos x = 1/ sec x

Tan x = 1/ cot x or sin x / cos x

Cot x = cos x / sin x

We have,

The length of side x can be calculated using the trigonometric identities.

We know that,

Sin x = Perpendicular / Hypotenuse

Sin 30 = 5 / x

1/2 = 5/x

Multiply 2 on both sides.

1= 10/x

x = 10

Thus,

The length of the side x is 10.

Learn more about trigonometric identities here:

https://brainly.com/question/14746686

#SPJ2

Answer: 2

Step-by-step explanation:

we simply plug in 2 for y.

3(2) - 4

6 - 4

6 - 4 = 2

Answer:

3y-4=2

3×2-4

=6-4

2 the value of y is 2

Answer:

z = 25

Step-by-step explanation:

adjacent angles in a rhombus are supplementary

3z - 15 + 7z - 55 = 180

10z - 70 = 180

10z = 250

z = 25

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  (-∞, -4) ∪ [-2, ∞)

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution to the first inequality is ...

  -9x +3 > 39

  -9x > 36 . . . . . subtract 3 from both sides

  x < -4 . . . . . . . divide both sides by -9; reverse > to < because -9 is negative

__

The solution to the second inequality is ...

  -5x +6 ≤ 16

  -5x ≤ 10 . . . . . . . subtract 6 from both sides

  x ≥ -2 . . . . . . divide both sides by -2; reverse ≤ to ≥ because -2 is negative

__

These solution sets are disjoint. The solution of the OR of these inequalities is the union of the solution sets. The graph is shown below. In interval notation, it is described by ...

  (-∞, -4) ∪ [-2, ∞)

The -2 has a square bracket because it is included in the set. The curved bracket at -4 indicates it is not included.

Answer:

7 I. guessing oh wait nah its fish

Answer: there's one more screen shot but the limit is 5... so ill type it out!

7. Are the two products the same when you multiply them vertically? (1 point)

Yes they are

Making a Decision:

8. Who was right, Emily or Zach? Are the products the same with the three different methods of multiplication? (1 point)

They were both correct

9. Which of these three methods is your preferred method for multiplying polynomials? Why? (1 point)

I prefer the first one, Table method. To me it is easier and the fastest out of them all.

Answer:

36i^2 i think that's right

Answer:

16.68

Step-by-step explanation:

just add them like regular numbers then just put the decimal

Answer:

hmmmmm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

∠3 = 108

Step-by-step explanation:

∠1 + ∠2=180 because a straight line is 180°

∠1=5x+10  and  ∠2=9x+2

5x+10  +  9x+2 = 14x+12

14x+12=180

180-12=168

168/14=12

x=12

∠2 = 9x+2 = 110

180-110 = 70

∠4 = 70

∠4 + ∠3 + ∠5 = 180

∠5 = 90 -5x = 30

i messed up the process here lol but the answer is for sure right

Answer: y= 5x + 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Lol literally so easy when you understand it so:

the formula for slope intercept form is:

y= mx + b

in this case just plug in the values

hope this helps ;)

also can I get brainliest pls?

Answer:

4 mph

Explanation:

8 miles / 2 hours = 4 miles each hour

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

LP = 27

LM = NP

MN = 3

16). LP = LM + MN + NP

      27 = LM + 3 + LM

      27 = 3 + 2(LM)

      LM = 12

17). Since, LM = NP

      NP = 12

18). Since, MP = MN + NP

     MP = 3 + 12

     MP = 15

19). NL = LM + MN

     NL = 12 + 3

     NL = 15

Answer:

First always the positive is greater than the negative

Then 1/2, 2, 21/2, 2, 11/2 are greater than - 1/2

1/2=0.5

21/2=10.5

11/2=5.5

Then from lowest to greatest

-1/2,1/2,2,11/2,21/2

I hope you understand

Answer:

The rule: Adds twice as much as the previous number added

Next number: 38

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

The rule is every time you add 2 so 6 plus 2 equals 8 them you would do 8+4=12. your counting by 2 as u go up the line.

Answer:

24/20 cups or 6/5 cups.

Step-by-step explanation:

Good luck :)

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps!

Answer:

i think its b

Step-by-step explanation:

Using proportions, it is found that the proportional equation for t in terms of d that matches the context is:

[tex]t = 42d[/tex]

Elizabeth practices the piano 1470 minutes in 5 weeks, hence, each day, consdering a week has 7 days, the amount of time she practices is:

[tex]a = \frac{1470}{35} = 42[/tex]

Hence, the proportional equation, considering t the time in minutes and d the number of days, is:

[tex]t = 42d[/tex]

You can learn more about proportions at https://brainly.com/question/24372153