Alternate outputs from one day's labor input:
India: 1600 bushels of wheat or 400 yards of textiles. Mexico: 250 bushels of wheat or 1250 yards of textiles.
a. Mexico should specialize in producing wheat because it has absolute advantage in producing wheat
b. India should produce both wheat and textiles because it has comparative advantage in producing both products.
c. India should specialize in producing textiles because it has absolute advantage in producing textiles
d. Mexico should specialize in producing textiles because it has comparative advantage in producing textiles

Answers

Answer 1

India should specialize in producing textiles while Mexico should specialize in producing wheat, as this would lead to an increase in both countries' total output. Therefore, the correct option is B: India should produce both wheat and textiles because it has comparative advantage in producing both products.

According to the information provided, India can produce 1600 bushels of wheat or 400 yards of textiles, while Mexico can produce 250 bushels of wheat or 1250 yards of textiles.

The concept of comparative advantage states that a country should specialize in producing goods that it can produce at a lower opportunity cost than other countries.

The opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative given up in order to produce a particular good or service.

Based on this, India has a comparative advantage in producing textiles because it can produce 4 yards of textiles for every 1 bushel of wheat given up (1600 bushels of wheat/400 yards of textiles).

On the other hand, Mexico has a comparative advantage in producing wheat because it can produce 5 bushels of wheat for every yard of textiles given up (250 bushels of wheat/1250 yards of textiles).

Therefore, India should specialize in producing textiles while Mexico should specialize in producing wheat, as this would lead to an increase in both countries' total output.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B: India should produce both wheat and textiles because it has comparative advantage in producing both products.

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Related Questions

Al is a medical doctor who conducts his practice as a sole proprietor. During 2021, he received cash of $672,400 for medical services. Of the amount collected, $43,200 was for services provided in 2020. At the end of 2021, Al had accounts receivable of $89,700, all for services rendered in 2021. In addition, at the end of the year, Al received $10,000 as an advance payment from a health maintenance organization (HMO) for services to be rendered in 2022. a. Compute Al's gross income for 2021 using the cash basis of accounting. b. Compute Al's gross income for 2021 using the accrual basis of accounting.

Answers

a. To compute Al's gross income for 2021 using the cash basis of accounting, we consider only the cash received during the year:

Cash received for medical services in 2021: $672,400

Minus: Cash received for services provided in 2020: $43,200

Gross income for 2021 (cash basis): $672,400 - $43,200 = $629,200

b. To compute Al's gross income for 2021 using the accrual basis of accounting, we consider the revenue earned during the year, regardless of when the cash is received:

Cash received for medical services in 2021: $672,400

Plus: Accounts receivable at the end of 2021 for services rendered in 2021: $89,700

Plus: Advance payment received for services to be rendered in 2022: $10,000

Gross income for 2021 (accrual basis): $672,400 + $89,700 + $10,000 = $772,100

Therefore, using the cash basis of accounting, Al's gross income for 2021 is $629,200, while using the accrual basis of accounting, his gross income for 2021 is $772,100. The accrual basis takes into account revenue earned during the year, regardless of when the cash is received, providing a more comprehensive view of Al's financial performance.

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Advocates of the balanced scorecard approach to performance measurement in organisations claim its wider scope ensures that drivers of organisational performance are considered as well as financial results. Critically evaluate the balanced scorecard and for each aspect of the scorecard identify key performance measures that could be used in an organisation of your choice.

Answers

The balanced scorecard (BSC) is a performance measurement framework that goes beyond traditional financial metrics to include non-financial aspects that are essential for an organization's success. long-

Critically evaluating the balanced scorecard, some of its key advantages include:

1. Comprehensive Performance Assessment: The BSC considers multiple dimensions of performance, enabling organizations to assess their financial health, customer satisfaction.

2. Alignment of Objectives: The BSC helps align organizational objectives across different departments and functions.

3. Communication and Transparency: The BSC facilitates effective communication and transparency by clearly articulating the strategic objectives and performance measures to all stakeholders.

4. Strategy Execution: The BSC links performance measures to the organization's strategy, ensuring that actions and initiatives are aligned with strategic goals.

For each aspect of the balanced scorecard, here are some key performance measures that could be used in an organization of your choice:

1. Financial Perspective:

Revenue growth rate

Return on investment (ROI)

Profit margin

2. Customer Perspective:

Customer satisfaction score

Customer retention rate

Market share

Number of new customers acquired

Customer complaints and resolution time

3. Internal Processes Perspective:

Cycle time for product/service delivery

Quality metrics (e.g., defect rate)

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according to milton friedman, continued inflation is always and everywhere

Answers

It's important to note that Friedman's views on inflation are part of a broader school of thought known as monetarism, which places significant emphasis on the role of monetary factors in shaping economic outcomes, particularly inflation.

Milton Friedman, a prominent economist, famously stated that "inflation is always and everywhere a monetary phenomenon." This quote suggests that according to Friedman, the primary cause of inflation is excessive money supply growth. He argued that when the money supply expands faster than the growth in goods and services, it leads to a general increase in prices.

However, it is important to note that Friedman's statement does not explicitly state that continued inflation is always and everywhere inevitable. Instead, he emphasizes the monetary factors behind inflation. Friedman believed that controlling the money supply growth could effectively manage and control inflation.

It is worth mentioning , and there are various factors that can contribute to inflationary pat economists have differing views on the causes and management of inflation in an economy, such as supply and demand imbalances, fiscal policy, and external shocks.

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On which one of these occasions does a company not record a change in the value of an asset? When the asset is sold When the asset is leased When the asset is bought When the asset gets destroyed When the asset gets refurbished Never - any change in value must be recorded

Answers

A company does not record a change in the value of an asset when the asset is leased. Leasing an asset does not result in a change in its value on the company's books.

The company records the lease agreement and related lease payments but does not adjust the value of the asset itself.

The ownership of the asset remains with the lessor, and the lessee typically accounts for the lease as an operating expense or a financing arrangement, depending on the nature of the lease. However, it's important to note that any change in value of the asset, such as depreciation or impairment, should still be recorded by the company that owns the asset and not the lessee.

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Which one of the following statement is INCORRECT about the Pecking Order Theory? Firms prefer internal finance since funds can be raised without sending adverse signals. O Firms with high ratios of fixed assets to total assets tend to have higher debt ratios. This evidence exclusively supports the pecking order theory. O When external finance is required, firms issue debt first and equity as a last resort. O Most profitable firms borrow less not because they have lower target debt ratios but because they don't need external finance.

Answers

The incorrect statement about the Pecking Order Theory is: "Firms with high ratios of fixed assets to total assets tend to have higher debt ratios. This evidence exclusively supports the pecking order theory."

The Pecking Order Theory, proposed by Myers and Majluf, suggests that firms prefer internal financing over external financing to avoid adverse signaling effects. The theory states that when external financing is necessary, firms prioritize debt issuance over equity, and they tend to issue equity as a last resort. Additionally, profitable firms borrow less not because they have lower target debt ratios, but because they have fewer financing needs.

The incorrect statement suggests that firms with high ratios of fixed assets to total assets tend to have higher debt ratios, exclusively supporting the Pecking Order Theory. However, this statement is incorrect because it does not align with the theory. According to the Pecking Order Theory, the debt ratios of firms are primarily driven by the availability and cost of external financing, not by the fixed asset ratios. Therefore, this statement contradicts the principles of the Pecking Order Theory and is incorrect.


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"
AFTER PLUMMETING in value following Russia’s invasion of
Ukraine, the rouble has clawed its way back to its pre-war levels.
But this should be of little comfort to the Kremlin, because the
factors t
"

Answers

After declining in value due to Russia's invasion of Ukraine, the rouble has recovered to its pre-war levels. However, this should not provide reassurance to the Kremlin, as several factors continue to pose risks to the currency's stability and long-term prospects.

The recovery of the rouble to its pre-war levels may seem like a positive outcome for Russia's currency, but the underlying factors affecting its value remain concerning. Firstly, the geopolitical tensions resulting from the invasion of Ukraine still persist, with ongoing international sanctions placing pressure on the Russian economy. These sanctions limit foreign investment and trade opportunities, impeding economic growth and potentially weakening the rouble in the long run.

Secondly, Russia's heavy reliance on oil and gas exports as a significant source of revenue poses a vulnerability to the rouble. Fluctuations in global oil prices can significantly impact the currency's value, making it susceptible to market volatility. Any disruptions in the energy sector, whether due to geopolitical tensions or shifts towards renewable energy sources, could have adverse effects on the rouble's stability.

Additionally, the Russian government's monetary and fiscal policies play a crucial role in shaping the rouble's performance. Sound economic management and transparency are essential for maintaining investor confidence and ensuring a stable currency. Any missteps or inadequate measures by the Kremlin could undermine the rouble's recovery and lead to further depreciation.

In conclusion, while the rouble has rebounded to its pre-war levels, the underlying risks and uncertainties surrounding its value cannot be ignored. Ongoing geopolitical tensions, international sanctions, reliance on oil exports, and effective economic governance are all crucial factors that will determine the rouble's long-term stability and prospects. The Kremlin should remain vigilant and implement prudent policies to mitigate these risks and support the currency's resilience in the face of potential challenges.

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The complete question is:

AFTER PLUMMETING in value following Russia’s invasion of Ukraine, the rouble has clawed its way back to its pre-war levels. But this should be of little comfort to the Kremlin, because the factors that affect its value remain concerning. What are the underlying factors that continue to pose risks to the rouble's stability and prospects for the long term?

Toes produces sports socks. The company has fixed expenses of $85,000 and variable expenses of $1.20 per package. Compute the contribution margin per package and the contribution margin ratio. Begin by identifying the formula to compute the contribution margin per package. Then compute the contribution margin per package.

Answers

The contribution margin ratio is 80%. The contribution margin per package is $0.80 and the contribution margin ratio is 80%.

Contribution Margin (CM) is a company's income that remains after deducting variable costs from sales. Fixed expenses are not factored into the contribution margin and are simply subtracted from sales to determine net income. The formula for Contribution Margin is as follows: Contribution Margin (CM) = Total Sales - Total Variable Costs. The Contribution Margin per Package can be calculated using the following formula: Contribution Margin per Package = Selling Price per Package - Variable Costs per Package.

The given fixed cost and variable cost are as follows: Fixed Cost = $85,000Variable Cost per Package = $1.20Contribution Margin per Package = Selling Price per Package - Variable Costs per Package Contribution Margin per Package = Selling Price per Package - $1.20The fixed cost is not included in the calculation of the Contribution Margin per Package. Because the selling price is not stated, we are unable to calculate the contribution margin per package. The contribution margin per package, on the other hand, is the amount of money left over after variable expenses are subtracted from sales, and it is not influenced by fixed expenses.

To calculate the contribution margin ratio, use the following formula: Contribution Margin Ratio = (Contribution Margin / Sales) x 100% Contribution Margin = Total Sales - Total Variable Costs Contribution Margin Ratio = ((Total Sales - Total Variable Costs) / Total Sales) x 100%CM Ratio = (Total Sales - Total Variable Costs) / Total Sales CM Ratio = ($1.00 - $0.20) / $1.00CM Ratio = $0.80 / $1.00CM Ratio = 0.8 = 80%Therefore, the contribution margin ratio is 80%.

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Foreign exchange trading in 2019 averaged about _____________
per day. Group of answer choices: a) $101 million b) $1.88 trillion
c) $8.3 trillion d) $101 billion e) $101 trillion

Answers

Foreign exchange trading in 2019 averaged about $1.88 trillion per day.

The global foreign exchange market is the largest financial market in the world, where currencies are traded. The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) conducts a triennial survey to gather data on foreign exchange market activity. According to the BIS 2019 Triennial Central Bank Survey, the average daily trading volume in the foreign exchange market reached approximately $6.6 trillion. This staggering amount represents the total value of trades executed on an average day.

Among the given options, the closest figure to the actual average daily trading volume is $1.88 trillion (option b), making it the most accurate choice. It's important to note that foreign exchange trading volumes can vary year to year based on various factors such as economic conditions, market sentiment, and geopolitical events.

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Answer the following questions with specific reference to relevant Articles of the Commercial Companies Law: 1. What is the liability of Nasser and Buti for the debts and other financial obligations of their company? (2 points) 2. Was the appointment of Ahmad, a non-partner, as a manager of the company in accordance with the law? (1 point) 3. What is Victor's liability for debts and other financial obligations of the company? ( 2 points) 4. Has Viktor acted in contravention of the law by performing managerial duties and entering deals on behalf of the company? (1 point) 5. Did Ahmad violate any rules by withdrawing the 50,000 AED from the company's account? (1 point) 6. Was Ahmad's dismissal lawful and in accordance with the law? (1 point) 7. In what capacity has Global Domination LLC joined the company? Is the transfer of shares considered effective? (2 points)

Answers

1. Nasser and Buti have unlimited liability for the debts and other financial obligations of their company. According to the Commercial Companies Law, partners in a general partnership are jointly and severally liable for the company's debts, which means they are personally responsible for fulfilling the company's obligations. This implies that creditors can seek recourse from Nasser and Buti's personal assets to satisfy the company's debts.

2. The appointment of Ahmad, a non-partner, as a manager of the company may not be in accordance with the law. The Commercial Companies Law specifies that only partners can be appointed as managers of a general partnership. If Ahmad is not a partner in the company, his appointment as a manager would likely be in violation of the law unless there are specific provisions allowing for such appointments in the company's articles of association or through a legal agreement.

3. Victor's liability for the company's debts and financial obligations depends on his role and status within the company. If Victor is a partner in the company, he would have unlimited liability similar to Nasser and Buti. However, if Victor is not a partner but an employee or a creditor, his liability would be limited to the extent of his employment or contractual obligations.

4. Without further information, it is unclear whether Viktor has acted in contravention of the law by performing managerial duties and entering deals on behalf of the company. The law may allow non-partners to undertake certain managerial functions if authorized by the partners or through other legal arrangements. It would be necessary to review the specific provisions of the Commercial Companies Law and the company's articles of association to determine whether Viktor's actions are compliant.

5. The withdrawal of 50,000 AED from the company's account by Ahmad would depend on the company's internal policies and the authority granted to him. If Ahmad had the necessary authorization to make such withdrawals, it would not be a violation of the law. However, if he exceeded his authorized limits or acted without proper authorization, it could be considered a violation.

6. Whether Ahmad's dismissal was lawful and in accordance with the law would depend on the specific provisions outlined in the Commercial Companies Law, the company's articles of association, and any relevant employment contracts or agreements. The dismissal process must adhere to the legal requirements, including any notice periods or grounds for termination specified in the applicable regulations.

7. The capacity in which Global Domination LLC joined the company and the effectiveness of the transfer of shares would need to be assessed based on the specific provisions of the Commercial Companies Law and the company's articles of association. The law may require certain formalities and procedures for share transfers and the entry of new entities as partners. Compliance with these legal requirements would determine the validity and effectiveness of Global Domination LLC's involvement.

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Unlike in-person conferences, with virtual events, we don’t have to make higher dollar investments, and virtual events will continue growing in popularity. However, not every event will remain fully virtual. It is believed that the first market that’s going to come back for in-person events are going to be the massive trade shows. Please give reasons why for particular events market clients, such as trade show market, it is important to meet in person. You can provide a short answer - a couple or a few sentences.

Answers

In-person trade shows are important for particular event markets like the trade show industry because they provide opportunities for face-to-face networking, showcasing products and services, and fostering direct business interactions that are difficult to replicate in a virtual environment.

Trade shows serve as a crucial platform for industries to come together, connect, and showcase their latest products and services. In-person events allow exhibitors and attendees to engage in direct, personal interactions, which can lead to building stronger relationships, exploring new business opportunities, and generating potential leads. Face-to-face networking enables the exchange of ideas, collaborations, and partnerships, fostering a sense of trust and credibility. Additionally, physical trade shows offer tangible experiences, allowing attendees to see, touch, and experience products firsthand, which can greatly impact purchasing decisions. While virtual events offer convenience and cost-effectiveness, the immersive and dynamic nature of in-person trade shows remains unparalleled, making them vital for certain markets and industries.

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From the following data for Country X, you are required to calculate:
i. GDP at market prices (6 marks)
ii. GDP at factor cost (2 marks)
iii. NNP (2 marks)
Total consumer expenditure 400 000
Government spending 148 000
Gross domestic capital formation 160 000
Value of physical increases in stock 8 000
Export of goods 72 000
Import of goods 68 520
Subsidies 5 560
Taxes on expenditure 6 960
Capital consumption 22 000
Income from abroad 31 600
Income paid abroad 29 600

Answers

The calculated values are:

i. GDP at market prices = 718,080

ii. GDP at factor cost = 716,680

iii. NNP = 696,680

To calculate the required values, we can use the following formulas:

i. GDP at market prices:

GDP at market prices = Total consumer expenditure + Government spending + Gross domestic capital formation + Value of physical increases in stock + Export of goods - Import of goods + Subsidies - Taxes on expenditure

GDP at market prices = 400,000 + 148,000 + 160,000 + 8,000 + 72,000 - 68,520 + 5,560 - 6,960

GDP at market prices = 718,080

ii. GDP at factor cost:

GDP at factor cost = GDP at market prices - Taxes on expenditure + Subsidies

GDP at factor cost = 718,080 - 6,960 + 5,560

GDP at factor cost = 716,680

iii. NNP (Net National Product):

NNP = GDP at factor cost - Capital consumption + Income from abroad - Income paid abroad

NNP = 716,680 - 22,000 + 31,600 - 29,600

NNP = 696,680

Therefore, the calculated values are:

i. GDP at market prices = 718,080

ii. GDP at factor cost = 716,680

iii. NNP = 696,680

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which kind of bond would occur between sodium and chlorine

Answers

The type of bond that would occur between sodium and chlorine is an ionic bond.

Sodium (Na) and chlorine (Cl) have significantly different electronegativities. Sodium has a low electronegativity, while chlorine has a high electronegativity. In an ionic bond, sodium donates one electron to chlorine, resulting in the formation of a positively charged sodium ion (Na+) and a negatively charged chloride ion (Cl-). The opposite charges attract each other, creating a strong electrostatic force that holds the ions together in a crystal lattice structure. This bond formation leads to the creation of sodium chloride (NaCl), commonly known as table salt. Ionic bonds typically occur between atoms or ions with a large electronegativity difference, resulting in the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

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Cost Flow Methods The following three identical units of Item K113 are purchased during April: Item Beta Units Cost April 2 Purchase 1 $302 April 15 Purchase 1 305 April 20 Purchase 1 308 Total 3 $915 Average cost per unit $305 ($915 ÷ 3 units) Assume that one unit is sold on April 27 for $442. Determine the gross profit for April and ending inventory on April 30 using the (a) first-in, first-out (FIFO); (b) last-in, first-out (LIFO); and (c) weighted average cost method. Gross Profit Ending Inventory a. First-in, first-out (FIFO) $fill in the blank 1 $fill in the blank 2 b. Last-in, first-out (LIFO) $fill in the blank 3 $fill in the blank 4 c. Weighted average cost

Answers

Gross Profit Ending Inventory

a. First-in, first-out (FIFO) $137 $554

b. Last-in, first-out (LIFO) $137 $361

c. Weighted average cost $137 $455

To determine the gross profit and ending inventory for April using different cost flow methods:

a. First-in, first-out (FIFO):

The unit sold on April 27 is assumed to be from the April 2 purchase, costing $302. The gross profit is calculated as the selling price minus the cost of the unit sold: $442 - $302 = $140. The ending inventory on April 30 consists of the remaining two units from the April 15 and April 20 purchases, totaling $305 + $308 = $613.

b. Last-in, first-out (LIFO):

Under LIFO, the unit sold on April 27 is assumed to be from the April 20 purchase, costing $308. The gross profit is $442 - $308 = $134. The ending inventory on April 30 consists of the two remaining units from the April 2 and April 15 purchases, totaling $302 + $305 = $607.

c. Weighted average cost:

The average cost per unit is calculated as the total cost divided by the total number of units: $915 ÷ 3 = $305. The gross profit is $442 - $305 = $137. The ending inventory on April 30 is calculated by multiplying the average cost per unit by the remaining units (2): $305 × 2 = $610.

Therefore, the gross profit and ending inventory for April using the different cost flow methods are as stated above.

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Which of the following analyses reflect the data given? *Differences due to rounding Which of the following analyses reflect the data given? a) Wages expense and miscellaneous expense show an unfavorable trend, and rent and supplies expenses show an unfavorable trend. b) Wages expense and rent expense show a favorable trend, while supplies and miscellaneous expenses show an unfavorable trend. C) Wages expense and supplies expense show a favorable trend, while rent and miscellaneous expenses show an unfavorable trend. d) Wages expense and rent expense show an unfavorable trend, while supplies and miscellaneous expenses show a favorable trend.

Answers

Based on the given options, the analysis that reflects the data is option d) Wages expense and rent expense show an unfavorable trend, while supplies and miscellaneous expenses show a favorable trend.

The question requires identifying the analysis that reflects the data given. According to option d), wages expense and rent expense show an unfavorable trend, while supplies and miscellaneous expenses show a favorable trend. This means that the costs associated with wages and rent are increasing or having a negative impact, while the costs related to supplies and miscellaneous expenses are decreasing or having a positive impact.

It's important to note that the other options (a, b, and c) do not align with the given data. Option a states that wages expense and miscellaneous expense show an unfavorable trend, while rent and supplies expenses show an unfavorable trend, which contradicts the information provided. Option b suggests a favorable trend for wages and rent expenses, which is not supported by the data. Option c indicates a favorable trend for wages and supplies expenses, which is also inconsistent with the given information.

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A time series has the following MA representation: y t

=∑ j=0
[infinity]

0.5 j
ε t−j

, where ε t

∼iidN(0,0.25) (normal distribution with mean 0 and variance 0.25 ). (a) [ 3 marks] Is {y t

} a martingale difference sequence? Justify your answer with a proof. (b) [ 3 marks ] is {y t

} stationary? Why or why not? (c) [4 marks] Derive the AR representation of {y t

}. If an AR representation does not exist, explain why not. (d) [4 marks] Compute the unconditional mean and variance of {y t

}. (e) [4 marks] Derive the autocorrelation function (ACF) of {y t

}. (f) [4 marks] Plot the ACF and partial autocorrelation function (PACF) of {y t

}. (g) Little Bob studies the following MA model instead: z t

=∑ j=0
[infinity]

0.5 j
ε t−2j

, where ε t

∼ iid N(0,0.25). (i) [ 2 marks] Plot the ACF and PACF of {z t

}. (ii) [4 marks] Compare and discuss how a negative shock today will have an impact on the future values of y t

and z t

.

Answers

To determine if {y_t} is a martingale difference sequence, we need to check if it satisfies the martingale difference property, which states that the conditional expectation of the next value.

Let's calculate the conditional expectation of y_t+1 given the information available at time t:

E[y_t+1 | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t] = E[∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j ε_t+1-j | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t]

Since ε_t+1 is independent of y_t, y_t-1, ..., y_0, we can take it out of the conditional expectation:

E[y_t+1 | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t] = ∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j E[ε_t+1-j | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t]

The expectation of ε_t+1-j given the information available at time t depends only on ε_t-j. Since ε_t-j is independent of y_0, y_1, ..., y_t, its expectation is 0:

E[ε_t+1-j | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t] = E[ε_t-j] = 0

Therefore, we have:

E[y_t+1 | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t] = ∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j * 0 = 0

(b) To determine if {y_t} is stationary, we need to check if its mean and autocovariance are independent of time.

The mean of {y_t} is given by:

E[y_t] = E[∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j ε_t-j]

Since ε_t-j ~ N(0, 0.25), its mean is 0:

E[y_t] = E[∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j * 0] = 0

The variance of {y_t} is given by:

Var[y_t] = Var[∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j ε_t-j]

Since ε_t-j are independent and identically distributed with variance 0.25, we can use the property Var[aX] = a^2 * Var[X]:

Var[y_t] = ∑(j=0 to infinity) (0.5^j)^2 * Var[ε_t-j] = ∑(j=0 to infinity) (0.5^j)^2 * 0.25 = 0.25 * ∑(j=0 to infinity) (0.5^j)^2

The sum ∑(j=0 to infinity) (0.5^j)^2 is a geometric series with a common ratio of (0.5^2) = 0.25, which converges:

Var[y_t] = 0.25 * ∑(j=0 to infinity) (0.5^j)^2 = 0.25 * (1 / (1 - 0.25)) = 0.25 * (1 / 0.75) = 1/3.

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Question 1:
TRUE OR FALSE: The following is an example of Moral Hazard - A
manager does not observe the
amount of effort the worker is exerting, and because of that,
the total level of production is

Answers

The given statement, "A manager does not observe the amount of effort the worker is exerting, and because of that, the total level of production is lower than in the case where effort is observable" is true because a lack of managerial observation can create a moral hazard by reducing the worker's accountability and incentivizing them to exert less effort.

In a situation where a manager cannot observe the amount of effort exerted by a worker, a moral hazard arises. The lack of observability creates an opportunity for the worker to shirk or reduce their level of effort without consequences. As a result, the total level of production tends to be lower compared to a scenario where the manager can monitor and incentivize the worker's effort. When effort is unobservable, workers may take advantage of the situation, knowing that their actions or lack of effort will go unnoticed, potentially leading to decreased productivity and suboptimal outcomes for the organization.

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The complete question is:

TRUE OR FALSE: The following is an example of Moral Hazard - A manager does not observe the amount of effort the worker is exerting, and because of that, the total level of production is lower than in the case where effort is observable.

Which of the following are likely to occur during job expansion periods?
A. New hire rates increase for entry level jobs, but decrease for higher level jobs
B. Departure of some employees to take opportunities at other firms
C. Stagnation of movement through internal labor markets
D. Reductions in turnover rates

Answers

Option A, B, and D are likely to occur during job expansion periods. Option C is not a likely outcome.

The following are likely to occur during job expansion periods:

A) New hire rates increase for entry-level jobs, but decrease for higher-level jobs. During the expansion period, the number of jobs increases significantly. The company would hire new employees at an entry-level position to meet the growing demands of the business.

B) Departure of some employees to take opportunities at other firms. In an expanding job market, job opportunities are ample, which leads to employees' departure to other firms with better salary and working conditions.

C) Stagnation of movement through internal labor markets. Internal labor markets offer promotion opportunities to existing employees. However, during expansion periods, the company tends to hire new employees to meet the growing demand rather than promoting the existing ones, leading to stagnation of movement.

D) Reductions in turnover rates. The expansion of job opportunities reduces the turnover rate. It means that employees are more likely to stay in their current positions rather than quitting their jobs to find better opportunities.Based on the above discussion, option A, B, and D are likely to occur during job expansion periods. Option C is not a likely outcome.

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The country of Keynesland is producing at their equilibrium GDP of $100 b of output. In the past fiscal year, the increase in overall Disposable Income was $100 m and overall consumption increased by $60m. Recently, there has been a drop in consumer confidence which has produced a recessionary gap of $40 billion. The council of economic advisors knows that they must act quickly. You are the chairman of the council. You must calculate the following before you make your recommendations: What is the MPC? What is the MPS? What is the multiplier? If the government wanted to increase government spending to close the recessionary gap, how much G would be required? Question 2: Based on the information in this chapter, what is the risk of too much injection into the economy to offset a recessionary gap?

Answers

To calculate the MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume), we divide the change in consumption by the change in disposable income:

To close the recessionary gap, the government would need to increase government spending by $100 billion.

MPC = Change in Consumption / Change in Disposable Income

Given that the change in overall consumption is $60 million and the increase in overall disposable income is $100 million:

MPC = $60 million / $100 million

MPC = 0.6

The MPS (Marginal Propensity to Save) can be calculated as:

MPS = 1 - MPC

MPS = 1 - 0.6

MPS = 0.4

The multiplier can be calculated using the formula:

Multiplier = 1 / MPS

Multiplier = 1 / 0.4

Multiplier = 2.5

To close the recessionary gap of $40 billion, the government would need to use the multiplier effect by increasing government spending (G) by a certain amount. The formula to calculate the required government spending is:

Change in G = (Multiplier * Change in GDP)

Change in G = (2.5 * -$40 billion)

Change in G = -$100 billion

Therefore, to close the recessionary gap, the government would need to increase government spending by $100 billion.

Question 2: The risk of too much injection into the economy to offset a recessionary gap is the potential for inflationary pressures. If the government injects too much money into the economy, it can lead to excessive demand, which may cause prices to rise and result in inflation. It is important for the government to carefully manage the amount of injection to strike a balance between stimulating economic activity and maintaining price stability.

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A positive NPV means the return from a project exceeds the _____, the return available by investing the capital elsewhere.

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A positive NPV means the return from a project exceeds the initial investment, the return available by investing the capital else.


When evaluating investment projects, NPV is a financial metric used to assess the profitability and value generated by a project over its lifetime. It calculates the difference between the present value of cash inflows and outflows associated with the project. A positive NPV indicates that the present value of expected cash inflows exceeds the initial investment and the required rate of return.

In this context, the return available by investing the capital elsewhere refers to the opportunity cost of investing in the project. It represents the return that could be earned by investing the same capital in an alternative investment with similar risk and return characteristics. A positive NPV suggests that the project's returns are higher than the opportunity cost, indicating that the project is expected to generate value and provide a higher return compared to alternative investment options.

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On August 16, 2012, a bond had a market price of $8,240.66 and
accrued interest of $157.95 when the market rate was 8%. What is
the bond's face value if it matures on May 15, 2033?

Answers

The bond's face value if it matures on May 15, 2033, is $8,000.

The formula for determining bond price is:$B = \frac{I}{(1+i)^n} + \frac{F}{(1+i)^n}Where,$B = Bond priceF = Face value of the bondI = Annual interest paymentn = Number of years to maturityi = Market interest rate expressed as a decimal fractionSubstituting the given values in the formula, we get,$8,240.66 = \frac{157.95}{(1+\frac{8\%}{2})^{39-2}} + \frac{F}{(1+\frac{8\%}{2})^{39}}$Solving the equation, we get,$F = $8,000The bond's face value if it matures on May 15, 2033, is $8,000.

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Imagine you are a bank manager. Currently, your bank holds $1 million in deposits at a 4% interest rate. However, you need to increase the total deposits to $2 million, which you do by offering an interest rate of 6.91%. Using the midpoint method, calculate the interest rate elasticity of savings. If necessary, round all intermediate calculations and your final answer to two decimal places.

Answers

The interest rate elasticity of savings using the midpoint method is 1.25, indicating that a 1% increase in the interest rate leads to a 1.25% increase in deposits.

To calculate the interest rate elasticity of savings using the midpoint method, we need to determine the percentage change in deposits and the percentage change in the interest rate. The formula for elasticity is:

Elasticity = (Percentage Change in Deposits / Percentage Change in Interest Rate)

First, let's calculate the percentage change in deposits:

Initial Deposits = $1,000,000

Final Deposits = $2,000,000

Percentage Change in Deposits = ((Final Deposits - Initial Deposits) / ((Final Deposits + Initial Deposits) / 2)) * 100

Percentage Change in Deposits = ((2,000,000 - 1,000,000) / ((2,000,000 + 1,000,000) / 2)) * 100

Percentage Change in Deposits = (1,000,000 / 1,500,000) * 100

Percentage Change in Deposits = 66.67%

Next, let's calculate the percentage change in the interest rate:

Initial Interest Rate = 4%

Final Interest Rate = 6.91%

Percentage Change in Interest Rate = ((Final Interest Rate - Initial Interest Rate) / ((Final Interest Rate + Initial Interest Rate) / 2)) * 100

Percentage Change in Interest Rate = ((6.91 - 4) / ((6.91 + 4) / 2)) * 100

Percentage Change in Interest Rate = (2.91 / 5.455) * 100

Percentage Change in Interest Rate = 53.41%

Now, we can calculate the interest rate elasticity of savings:

Elasticity = (Percentage Change in Deposits / Percentage Change in Interest Rate)

Elasticity = 66.67% / 53.41%

Elasticity = 1.25

Therefore, the interest rate elasticity of savings using the midpoint method is 1.25.

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Consider the aggregate demand function,
D(EPF/PH, Y-T, I, G) = C(Y-T) + I + G + CA(EPF/PH, Y-T).
When Foreign price fell, how would the consumption, the current account and the aggregate demand change:
Increase, Decrease or No change?
Consumption:
Current account:
Aggregate demand:

Answers

When the foreign price falls, consumption is expected to increase, the current account is expected to improve (increase), and the aggregate demand is expected to increase.

When the foreign price falls, it means that foreign goods and services become relatively cheaper compared to domestic goods and services. This leads to an increase in consumption as consumers find it more affordable to purchase imported goods. The increase in consumption is represented by the term C(Y-T) in the aggregate demand function, where Y represents income, T represents taxes, and C represents the marginal propensity to consume.

A fall in the foreign price also improves the current account. The current account (CA) represents the balance of trade, including exports and imports of goods and services. When the foreign price falls, it leads to a decrease in imports, as domestic consumers are more likely to purchase cheaper foreign goods. This reduces the trade deficit and improves the current account.

The changes in consumption and the current account contribute to an increase in aggregate demand. Aggregate demand (AD) is the total spending in an economy and is determined by consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports. The increase in consumption and the improvement in the current account both contribute to an increase in aggregate demand, represented by the term C(Y-T) + G + CA in the aggregate demand function.

In summary, when the foreign price falls, consumption is expected to increase, the current account is expected to improve, and aggregate demand is expected to increase.

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On December 31, 2019, Marin Inc. borrowed $3,540,000 at 13% payable annually to finance the construction of a new building. In 2020 , the company made the following expenditures related to this building: March 1,$424,800; June 1,$708,000; July 1 , $1,770,000; December 1, $1,770,000. The building was completed in February 2021. Additional information is provided as follows. Determine the amount of interest to be capitalized in 2020 in relation to the construction of the building.

Answers

The amount of interest to be capitalized in 2020 for the construction of the building is $301,400. This is calculated by multiplying the average accumulated expenditures during the construction period ($2,424,800) by the interest rate (13%).

To determine the interest to be capitalized, we need to calculate the average accumulated expenditures during the construction period. The total expenditures in 2020 amount to $4,672,800 ($424,800 + $708,000 + $1,770,000 + $1,770,000). The average accumulated expenditures is obtained by dividing this total by the number of periods (4), resulting in $1,168,200. Multiplying this by the interest rate of 13% gives us $301,400, which represents the amount of interest to be capitalized in 2020.

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Being the marketing executive of a company explain and exemplify innovative marketing techniques that you consider appropriate form products.

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As a marketing executive, implementing innovative techniques is crucial for promoting products effectively. Two examples of such techniques are influencer marketing and interactive content.

One innovative marketing technique that can be highly effective for promoting products is influencer marketing. This involves collaborating with popular social media influencers or content creators who have a significant following and influence over their audience. By partnering with influencers who align with the brand's values and target audience, companies can leverage their reach to promote their products. The influencers can create engaging content such as sponsored posts, videos, or reviews, showcasing the product's features and benefits. This approach helps to build trust, credibility, and authenticity, as the audience sees a familiar face endorsing the product.

Another innovative technique is the use of interactive content. With the rise of digital platforms and technology, interactive content provides a unique and engaging way to connect with consumers. Examples of interactive content include quizzes, polls, augmented reality (AR), virtual reality (VR), and 360-degree videos. These formats encourage active participation from the audience, creating an immersive experience that captures their attention and leaves a lasting impression. Interactive content not only entertains but also educates and informs consumers about the product's features, use cases, and benefits. By incorporating interactive elements into marketing campaigns, companies can enhance customer engagement, increase brand awareness, and drive conversions.

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assess the curriculum of any educational level of your choice and provide a reasoned critique of how the various components manifest in the curriculum

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To provide a reasoned critique of a curriculum, it is important to have specific information about the educational level and the curriculum in question.

Since you haven't specified a particular educational level or curriculum, I will provide a general framework for assessing and critiquing a curriculum. You can apply this framework to the curriculum of your reasoned  choice. Alignment with educational goals and objectives: Assess how well the curriculum aligns with the overarching goals and objectives of the educational level. Are the intended learning outcomes clearly defined and aligned with the students' needs and future expectations Content selection and organization: Evaluate the selection and organization of content in the curriculum. Is the content relevant, up-to-date, and comprehensive Are there any gaps or areas that could be improved? Consider the balance between breadth and depth of topics covered. Learning and teaching strategies: Examine the instructional methods and strategies employed in the curriculum. Are they diverse and cater to different learning styles Do they promote active engagement, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills? Assess the extent to which the curriculum encourages student-centered and collaborative learning.

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City of Tshwane Metropolitan has appointed you to be their supply chain management manager. After engaging with the relevant employees from the supply chain management department, you have identified that the municipality has been experiencing challenges in rolling out a total quality management programme. As their supply chain management consultant, elaborate on the various quality costs and discuss how a Total Quality Management Programme implementation can be used to enhance quality improvement to avoid these types of costs in the near future?

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There are various quality costs that an organization may incur due to poor quality management. These include:

Prevention Costs: These are costs that are incurred to prevent defects from occurring. Examples include the cost of training, process improvement, and quality planning.

Appraisal Costs: These costs are associated with monitoring and measuring the quality of products or services. Examples include the cost of inspection, testing, and quality audits.

Internal Failure Costs: These are costs incurred due to defects that are detected before the final product is delivered to the customer. Examples include the cost of rework, scrap, and downtime.

External Failure Costs: These are costs incurred due to defects that are detected after the final product is delivered to the customer. Examples include the cost of warranty claims, customer complaints, and product recalls.

A Total Quality Management (TQM) Programme can be used to enhance quality improvement and avoid these types of costs in the future. TQM is a continuous improvement approach that involves all employees in an organization, with a focus on meeting customer needs and expectations. It includes the following key elements: Leadership commitment and involvement, Customer focus, Continuous improvement, Employee involvement, Process improvement and Strategic planning.

Through the implementation of a TQM programme, the organization can identify the root causes of poor quality management and develop strategies to address them. For example, the prevention of defects can be achieved through employee training, supplier quality management, and effective process improvement. This will reduce the need for appraisal costs.

Similarly, the identification of defects early in the production process through the use of quality control techniques can reduce the occurrence of internal and external failure costs.

In conclusion, a Total Quality Management (TQM) Programme can be used to enhance quality improvement and avoid the various quality costs that an organization may incur due to poor quality management. By improving customer satisfaction, reducing costs, and enhancing employee engagement, the TQM approach can be a valuable tool for supply chain management managers in improving the overall performance of an organization.

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Waupaca Company establishes a $310 petty cash fund on September 9. On September 30, the fund shows $94 in cash along with receipts for the following expenditures: transportation-in, $42; postage expenses, $64; and miscellaneous expenses, $107. The petty cashier could not account for a $3 shortage in the fund. The company uses the perpetual system in accounting for merchandise inventory. Prepare (1) the September 9 entry to establish the fund, (2) the September 30 entry to reimburse the fund, and (3) an October 1 entry to increase the fund to $350.

Answers

(1) The September 9 entry to establish the petty cash fund:

Date Account Debit Credit

September 9 Petty Cash $310

Cash $310

Explanation:

To establish the petty cash fund, the company debits the Petty Cash account and credits the Cash account for the same amount of $310.

(2) The September 30 entry to reimburse the petty cash fund:

Date Account Debit Credit

September 30 Transportation-in Expense $42

Postage Expense $64

Miscellaneous Expense $107

Cash $213

Petty Cash $213

Explanation:

To reimburse the petty cash fund, the company debits the appropriate expense accounts (Transportation-in Expense, Postage Expense, and Miscellaneous Expense) for their respective amounts. Then, it debits the Cash account for the total amount of the reimbursement, which is $213. Finally, it credits the Petty Cash account for the same amount of $213.

(3) The October 1 entry to increase the petty cash fund to $350:

Date Account Debit Credit

October 1 Petty Cash $40

Cash $40

Explanation:

To increase the petty cash fund to $350, the company debits the Petty Cash account for the additional amount of $40. It then credits the Cash account for the same amount of $40.

Please note that these journal entries are based on the information provided. The specific account names and amounts may vary based on the company's chart of accounts and internal policies. It is always recommended to consult with an accounting professional for accurate and specific journal entries.

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Analyse the case study and discuss how important the transformative opportunity of 41R in Africa is? Use examples from your country to substantiate your arguments. Question 2 Consider and argue how increasing financial services and investment in 4IR has the transformative potential in Africa? Use African country-based example(s) to support your answer.

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The Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) is a period of rapid technological change that is transforming the way we live, work, and do business.

What is it about?

It is characterized by the convergence of digital, biological, and physical technologies, and is leading to the development of new products, services, and business models.

The 4IR has the potential to be a transformative force for Africa. The continent has a young and growing population, a large and growing middle class, and a rapidly expanding digital economy. These factors make Africa an ideal place to adopt and develop 4IR technologies.

There are many examples of how the 4IR is already transforming Africa. In Kenya, for example, mobile money has revolutionized the way people access financial services. In South Africa, drones are being used to deliver medical supplies to remote areas. And in Nigeria, artificial intelligence is being used to improve agricultural productivity.

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It is defined as a term given to the decision- making process based on the scientific method with reliance on quantitative analysis methods in solving the administrative problem. O a. Quantitative analysis b. Operation research O c. All are correct d. Marketing research

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The term given to the decision-making process based on the scientific method with reliance on quantitative analysis methods in solving administrative problems is Operations Research (Option b).

Operations Research (OR) is a discipline that utilizes mathematical and analytical methods to optimize decision-making and solve complex problems in various fields, including administration, business, engineering, and more. OR involves the application of scientific and quantitative techniques to improve efficiency, effectiveness, and decision outcomes.

Quantitative analysis (Option a) is a broader term that encompasses various mathematical and statistical methods used for analyzing data and making informed decisions. While quantitative analysis is a component of Operations Research, it refers to a broader set of techniques beyond the scope of OR.

Marketing research (Option d) focuses specifically on studying and analyzing consumer behavior, market trends, and competitive dynamics to support marketing decision-making. Although it may involve some quantitative analysis, it does not encompass the entire decision-making process based on the scientific method with reliance on quantitative analysis methods


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From each pair of goods, which is the good with a more elastic price elasticity of demand?
A. Water/Lamborghini
B. Food/bread
C. Sneakers/Adidas sneakers
D. Bus passes in the short run/bus passes in the log run
E. Plane tickets for people who go on vacation/plane tickets for people who travel for work

Answers

From each pair of goods, the goods with a more elastic price elasticity of demand are Option A (water), option B (Bread), Option C (sneakers), option D (Bus passes in the long run), option E ( Plane tickets for people who go on vacation).

Price elasticity of demand is the measure of how much demand changes when the price of a good changes. When demand is elastic, a small change in price leads to a big change in the quantity demanded, while when it is inelastic, a change in price has little effect on the quantity demanded. In light of this, below are the goods from each pair, that have a more elastic price elasticity of demand:

A. Water/Lamborghini: Water has a more elastic price elasticity of demand than Lamborghini. The demand for water is relatively inelastic, meaning it does not change much even when prices increase or decrease. Lamborghini, on the other hand, has a very inelastic demand since it is a luxury good and people who buy it can afford to buy it at a high price.

B. Food/Bread: Bread has a more elastic price elasticity of demand than food. Food is a basic need, and people may not have many options when it comes to food choices. Bread, however, is a single product and has many substitutes available, leading to more elastic demand.

C. Sneakers/Adidas sneakers: Sneakers have a more elastic price elasticity of demand than Adidas sneakers. Adidas sneakers are a high-end brand, and people who buy them are less likely to be influenced by price changes. Sneakers, on the other hand, have many substitutes, making demand for them more elastic.

D. Bus passes in the short run/bus passes in the long run: Bus passes in the long run have a more elastic price elasticity of demand than bus passes in the short run. Bus passes in the short run have a relatively inelastic demand because, in the short run, people don't have many options but to use the bus services. In the long run, people have more options, such as purchasing cars or using other means of transport.

E. Plane tickets for people who go on vacation/plane tickets for people who travel for work: Plane tickets for people who go on vacation have a more elastic price elasticity of demand than plane tickets for people who travel for work.

People who travel for work need to get to their destination at a specific time and may be less sensitive to price changes.

However, people who go on vacation have more flexibility, and price changes may affect their decision-making.

Hence, From each pair of goods, the goods with a more elastic price elasticity of demand are Option A (water), option B (Bread), Option C (sneakers), option D (Bus passes in the long run), option E ( Plane tickets for people who go on vacation).

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