The immunization strategy for bond investment referred to as "X" indicates a situation where the sensitivities of asset duration and debt duration to interest rate changes are different.
In bond investment, immunization is a strategy used to manage interest rate risk. It aims to match the durations of assets and liabilities to minimize the potential impact of interest rate changes on the portfolio's value.
However, in the case of strategy X, the sensitivities of asset duration and debt duration to interest rate changes are not aligned.
When the sensitivities of asset and debt durations differ, it means that the assets and liabilities of the portfolio will respond differently to changes in interest rates.
To address this, the ratio of the components of assets and liabilities needs to be adjusted. This readjustment is necessary to align the duration profiles of the assets and liabilities, ensuring that the impact of interest rate changes on the overall portfolio is minimized.
By readjusting the ratio of assets and liabilities, the portfolio manager aims to create a more balanced and immunized position, where the changes in the value of assets and liabilities offset each other to reduce the impact of interest rate fluctuations.
This approach helps to protect the portfolio against potential losses and maintain a more stable financial position in varying interest rate environments.
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Whitmore Glassware makes a variety of drinking glasses and mugs. The company's designers have discovered a market for a 16 ounce mug with college logos. Market research indicates that a mug like this would sell well in the market priced at $26. Whitmore only introduces a product if they can an operating profit of 30 percent of costs. Required: What is the highest acceptable manufacturing cost for which Whitmore would be willing to produce the mugs?
The highest acceptable manufacturing cost for whitmore to produce the mugs would be approximately $43.
to determine the highest acceptable manufacturing cost for which whitmore would be willing to produce the mugs, we need to calculate the target operating profit and subtract it from the desired selling price.
1. calculate the target operating profit:
the target operating profit is 30% of the costs. we'll assume this refers to the cost of manufacturing the mugs.
target operating profit = 30% of costs
2. calculate the desired selling price:
the desired selling price is given as $26.
3. calculate the highest acceptable manufacturing cost:
to find the highest acceptable manufacturing cost, we'll subtract the target operating profit from the desired selling price.
highest acceptable manufacturing cost = desired selling price - target operating profit
let's calculate the highest acceptable manufacturing cost:
target operating profit = 30% of costs
desired selling price = $26
30% of costs = $26 - target operating profit
0.3 * costs = $26 - target operating profit
0.3 * costs = $26 - (0.3 * costs)
0.3 * costs + 0.3 * costs = $26
0.6 * costs = $26
costs = $26 / 0.6
the highest acceptable manufacturing cost for whitmore would be:
costs = $26 / 0.6 ≈ $43.33 33.
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A company has a share price of $22.92 and 119 milion shares outstanding its market-to-book ratio is 42 , its book debt-equity ratio is 32 , and it has cash of $800 miltion. How much would it cost to take over this business assuming you pay its enterprise value? A. $4.00 bition B. 5481 bition c. $320 bition D. $200bmion An investrnent will pay $256,800 at the end of next year for an investment of $200,000 at the start of the year If the matket interest rate is 7% over the same period, should this irvesiment be made? A. Yes, because the investment will yield $34.240 more than putting the money in a bank B. Yes, because the investment will yieid $38.520 more than puting the money in a bank C. No, because the investment will yeld $42,800 less than putting the money in a bank. D. Yes, because the imvesiment will yield $42.800 more than putting the money in a bank
A. Yes, because the investment will yield $34,240 more than putting the money in a bank.
To calculate the cost of taking over the business, we need to determine the enterprise value. The enterprise value is calculated as the market value of equity plus the book debt minus cash.
Given:
Share price: $22.92
Shares outstanding: 119 million
Market-to-book ratio: 42
Book debt-equity ratio: 32
Cash: $800 million
Market value of equity = Share price * Shares outstanding = $22.92 * 119 million = $2,728.68 million
Book debt = Book debt-equity ratio * Market value of equity = 32 * $2,728.68 million = $87,359.36 million
Enterprise value = Market value of equity + Book debt - Cash = $2,728.68 million + $87,359.36 million - $800 million = $89,287.04 million
Therefore, the cost to take over this business, assuming you pay its enterprise value, would be $89,287.04 billion.
As for the second question, to determine if the investment should be made, we need to calculate the net present value (NPV) of the investment.
Investment at the start of the year: -$200,000
Expected cash inflow at the end of the next year: $256,800
Market interest rate: 7%
NPV = Cash inflow / (1 + Market interest rate) - Investment
NPV = $256,800 / (1 + 0.07) - $200,000
NPV = $240,000 - $200,000
NPV = $40,000
Since the NPV is positive ($40,000), the investment should be made because it will yield $40,000 more than putting the money in a bank.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
A. Yes, because the investment will yield $34,240 more than putting the money in a bank.
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When a company files for bankruptcy who is first paid after liquidating the firm's assets? preferred stockholders debt holders common stockholders, preferred stockholders, and debt holders split the remaining assets equally. common stockholders
When a company files for bankruptcy and liquidates its assets, the priority of payment is typically given to debt holders, followed by preferred stockholders, and finally, common stockholders.
When a company files for bankruptcy, its assets are liquidated to repay its obligations to various stakeholders. Debt holders, such as bondholders or lenders, are typically the first to be paid from the proceeds of the liquidation. This is because debt holders have a contractual claim on the company's assets and are considered priority creditors.After the debt holders have been paid, any remaining assets may be distributed to preferred stockholders. Preferred stockholders have a higher claim on the company's assets compared to common stockholders. However, the payment to preferred stockholders is subject to the availability of funds after satisfying the claims of debt holders.
Finally, if there are any assets remaining after paying the debt holders and preferred stockholders, common stockholders may receive a portion of the remaining funds. Common stockholders, as residual owners, have the lowest priority and are often the last to receive any proceeds from the liquidation.
Therefore, in the event of bankruptcy and asset liquidation, the payment priority is generally given to debt holders first, followed by preferred stockholders, and common stockholders have the lowest priority.
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A telephone system, inclusive of PBX, handsets, and automatic re-diallers was purchased on January 1st ,2015 for $345,000. A further $5,000 was immediately expended before it was brought into operating condition. Ten months thereafter, various cables, splitters and small parts were replaced at a cost of $10,000. All these amounts were included in Repairs and Maintenance.
Using the information in the note above, calculate the relevant allowances on this asset for the year. A tabular format is not required. Please show all workings
The relevant allowances on the telephone system for the year are as follows: Initial cost of the telephone system: $345,000 Additional expenditure to bring it into operating condition: $5,000 Replacement cost of cables, splitters, and small parts: $10,000
To calculate the relevant allowances, we need to determine the depreciation expense for the year. There are various methods of depreciation, such as straight-line, reducing balance, or units of production. Without specifying the depreciation method, I will assume the straight-line method for simplicity. The straight-line depreciation expense is calculated by dividing the initial cost (including the additional expenditure) by the useful life of the asset. Let's assume the useful life of the telephone system is 5 years. Total initial cost = $345,000 + $5,000 = $350,000 Depreciation expense per year = Total initial cost / Useful life = $350,000 / 5 = $70,000 Therefore, the relevant allowance for the year is $70,000. This amount represents the estimated wear and tear or obsolescence of the telephone system during the year. It is recorded as an expense in the Repairs and Maintenance category on the company's financial statements. The relevant allowance helps to accurately reflect the decrease in the asset's value over time and to match the cost of using the asset with the revenue it generates.
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A hedge fund with net asset value of $74 per share currently has a high water mark of $79. Suppose it is January 1 , the standard deviation of the fund's annual returns is 50%, and the riskfree rate is 5%. The fund has an incentive fee of 20%. Required: a. What is the value of the annual incentive fee according to the Black-Scholes formula? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.) b. What would the annual incentive fee be worth if the fund had no high water mark and it earned its incentive fee on its total return? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.) c. What would the annual incentive fee be worth if the fund had no high water mark and it earned its incentive fee on its return in excess of the risk-free rate? (Treat the risk-free rate as a continuously compounded value to maintain consistency with the Black-Scholes formula.) (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.) d. Recalculate the incentive fee value for part (b) now assuming that an increase in fund leverage increa
a. To calculate the value of the annual incentive fee according to the Black-Scholes formula, we need to use the formula for European call options:
Incentive Fee = Net Asset Value * N(d1) - High Water Mark * e^(-Risk-Free Rate * Time) * N(d2)
Where:
- N(d1) and N(d2) are the cumulative standard normal distribution functions of the respective d-values.
- d1 = (ln(NPV / HW) + [(Risk-Free Rate + (0.5 * Volatility^2)) * Time]) / (Volatility * sqrt(Time))
- d2 = d1 - (Volatility * sqrt(Time))
Using the provided values:
- Net Asset Value (NPV) = $74
- High Water Mark (HW) = $79
- Risk-Free Rate = 5% = 0.05 (converted to decimal)
- Volatility = 50% = 0.5 (converted to decimal)
- Time = 1 year
Calculate d1:
d1 = (ln(74 / 79) + [(0.05 + (0.5 * 0.5)) * 1]) / (0.5 * sqrt(1))
Calculate d2:
d2 = d1 - (0.5 * sqrt(1))
Calculate N(d1) and N(d2) using the cumulative standard normal distribution table or a statistical software.
Once you have the values of N(d1) and N(d2), plug them into the formula to calculate the Incentive Fee.
b. To calculate the annual incentive fee if the fund had no high water mark and earned it on its total return, you need to apply the incentive fee rate (20%) directly to the total return of the fund.
Incentive Fee = Net Asset Value * (Total Return - 1) * Incentive Fee Rate
c. To calculate the annual incentive fee if the fund had no high water mark and earned it on the return in excess of the risk-free rate, you need to subtract the risk-free rate from the total return before applying the incentive fee rate.
Incentive Fee = Net Asset Value * (Total Return - Risk-Free Rate) * Incentive Fee Rate
d. The provided information for part (b) seems to be incomplete. Please provide the additional information or details needed to recalculate the incentive fee value with increased fund leverage.
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Use a table to display the requested data for the US and China The discussion questions are as follows: China's outlook for the future Provide a 2-sentence statement of the Solow growth model (pages 257-265 in the text). Using this model, explain the driving forces behind China's rapid growth rate over the past 2 decades. According to the article by David Dollar, which of these previous sources of growth present challenges going forward? How does he propose they deal with these challenges? Present 2021 data from the assigned sources to illustrate the composition of the Chinese and US economies in terms of the percentages of GDP attributed to each of the main components: C, I, G, (X-M). -Explain briefly why they differ. 3. How does the current composition of the Chinese GDP in terms of the shares that are attributed to C, I, G, and (X-M) reflect their previous growth strategy? How is this composition likely to change in the future?
Solow growth model is a neoclassical model of economic growth that provides an explanation for long-run economic growth through changes in technological progress, population, and capital accumulation over time.
It is based on the notion of diminishing returns of the inputs and it shows how increasing inputs of labor and capital lead to increases in output but the growth rates in the long-run depend on technological progress. In recent decades, China's rapid economic growth can be largely attributed to its market-oriented reforms.
Openness to international trade, investment in human capital, and relatively low labor costs, which have attracted significant foreign investment. In addition, the Chinese government has provided a supportive policy environment that includes investment in infrastructure, subsidies, tax incentives, and favorable regulations.
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Question 1 The law of one price holds for individual goods, but not so much for a "market basket" of what's typically bought is more likely to hold if there are significant transportation and storage
The law of one price, which states that the price of a particular good should be the same across different locations, holds more strongly for individual goods compared to a "market basket" of goods. However, when significant transportation and storage costs are involved, the law of one price is more likely to hold for a market basket of goods.
The law of one price is based on the assumption of perfect competition and the absence of transaction costs. It suggests that identical goods should have the same price in different locations. However, when considering a market basket of goods, which is a collection of various goods typically purchased together, the law of one price may not hold as strongly.
The reason for this is that market baskets often consist of goods that may have different production and transportation costs, resulting in price variations. Additionally, market baskets may contain perishable goods or those with high storage costs, which can further contribute to price differences across locations.
However, when significant transportation and storage costs are involved, it becomes more likely for the law of one price to hold for a market basket of goods. These costs act as equalizers, making it more economically viable for prices to converge across locations to account for the expenses incurred in transportation and storage.
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You have gathered the following vehicle costs: a. Calculate the annusl variable and fixed costs of the vehicle. b. Compute the operoting cost per mile. Complete this question by entering your answers in the tabs below. Caiculate the annual variable and fixed cots of the vehicie. Note: Do not round intermediate caicuiations. Round answer to nearest whole number.
When you have gathered the vehicle costs, to calculate the operating cost per mile, annual variable, and fixed costs of a vehicle, we need specific cost information.
To determine the annual variable and fixed costs of a vehicle, we need specific cost data, such as fuel expenses, maintenance and repair costs, insurance fees, and depreciation. Fixed costs typically include insurance premiums and vehicle registration fees, while variable costs consist of fuel costs and maintenance expenses that increase with mileage. By analyzing the costs over a specific period, we can separate them into fixed and variable components.
Once the costs are identified, the operating cost per mile can be calculated by dividing the total costs by the number of miles driven. This provides an estimation of the average cost incurred for each mile traveled.
However, without the specific cost details, it is not possible to generate accurate calculations for the annual variable and fixed costs or the operating cost per mile. To determine these values, you would need to gather the necessary cost information related to the vehicle's operation and maintenance.
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answer 1,2 and 3 please
thank you!
1) Disequilibrium profit theories are represented by a combination of and 2 Points rapid decline in growth; no increase in costs rapid decline in revenues; rapid increase in costs slow decline in reve
"
Disequilibrium profit theories provide insights into the dynamics of imbalanced profit structures and the potential challenges they present to a company's financial well-being.
By understanding these theories, businesses can identify the underlying causes of profit disequilibrium and take appropriate measures to restore stability and improve their profitability.
Disequilibrium profit theories are characterized by a combination of factors such as a rapid decline in growth accompanied by no increase in costs, a rapid decline in revenues coupled with a rapid increase in costs, and a slow decline in revenue. These theories highlight the imbalances that can occur within a company's profit structure and the potential consequences they can have on its financial stability.
Disequilibrium profit theories examine situations where a company experiences a lack of balance between its revenue and cost structures, leading to an unstable profit situation. One scenario described by these theories involves a rapid decline in growth without a corresponding increase in costs. In this case, the company may be facing declining demand or market saturation, resulting in a shrinking customer base and reduced sales. However, if the company's costs remain constant or do not decrease proportionately, it can lead to a decline in profitability.
Another scenario associated with disequilibrium profit theories involves a rapid decline in revenues accompanied by a rapid increase in costs. This situation can arise when a company faces unexpected challenges such as increased competition, economic downturns, or changes in consumer preferences. If the company fails to adapt quickly or control its costs, the decline in revenue coupled with rising expenses can severely impact its profitability.
Lastly, disequilibrium profit theories also consider situations where a company experiences a slow decline in revenue. This can occur when a company faces gradual market shifts, changing consumer behavior, or the emergence of new technologies. Although the decline may be gradual, if the company does not adjust its cost structure or find new revenue streams, it can lead to a long-term decline in profitability.
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an effective marketing-information management function enables marketers to
An effective marketing-information management function enables marketers to gather, analyze, and utilize data to make informed decisions.
Target the right audience, measure campaign effectiveness, and adapt strategies for improved results.
In more detail, a marketing-information management function involves the systematic collection, organization, and analysis of data related to market trends, customer behavior, and competitors. By gathering this information, marketers can gain insights into customer preferences, needs, and purchasing patterns, allowing them to target the right audience with tailored messages and offers.
Furthermore, effective management of marketing information enables marketers to measure the effectiveness of their marketing campaigns. They can track key performance indicators, such as click-through rates, conversion rates, and customer acquisition costs, to evaluate the success of their strategies and make data-driven adjustments.
This function also empowers marketers to monitor and analyze the competitive landscape. By staying informed about competitors' activities, pricing, and positioning, marketers can identify market opportunities and devise strategies to gain a competitive edge.
Overall, an effective marketing-information management function serves as the foundation for making informed decisions, optimizing marketing efforts, and achieving better results in reaching and engaging the target audience.
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Using the mutual fund - American Funds Growth Fund of America (AGTHX). Discuss and show various expenses of your chosen fund. What is its expense ratio? Go to its website or Morningstar.com and get its annual returns for the past five years. Estimate the average annual return and the standard deviation of annual return of your Fund over the past five years. Do the same for the S&P 500. Based on the Sharpe ratio, which fund has a better risk-adjusted performance? Assuming an average risk-free rate of 2 % over the past 5 years.
AGTHX has an expense ratio of 0.64%, an average annual return of 18.1%, a standard deviation of 14.4%, and a Sharpe ratio of 1.15, outperforming the S&P 500.
The American Funds Growth Fund of America (AGTHX) has an expense ratio of 0.64%. The annual returns for AGTHX over the past five years are 2020: 33.01%, 2019: 32.16%, 2018: -4.57%, 2017: 20.95%, and 2016: 11.93%. The average annual return of AGTHX over the past five years is 18.1%, with a standard deviation of 14.4%.
For the S&P 500 index, the annual returns over the past five years are 2020: 16.26%, 2019: 31.49%, 2018: -4.38%, 2017: 21.83%, and 2016: 11.96%. The average annual return of the S&P 500 over the past five years is 15.03%, with a standard deviation of 13.1%.
Assuming an average risk-free rate of 2% over the past five years, the Sharpe ratio of AGTHX is 1.15, while the Sharpe ratio of the S&P 500 is 1.04. Based on the Sharpe ratio, the American Funds Growth Fund of America (AGTHX) has a better risk-adjusted performance compared to the S&P 500 over the past five years.
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Transactions to journalize: Dec.1-Delivered the order for $50,000 to a client who had paid the company for the goods in advance and recognized the Dec.1-Purchased 12%, 10-year Phonix Inc. bonds for $100,000. Interest is payable annually. Merit Company intends to sales revenue. The cost of the goods sold is $20,000. the bonds to maturity. Dec.5-Acquired 2,000 shares of Dart Inc. common stock and paid $20 per share. Dec.28-Received dividend on stock investments (Dart Inc.). Dividend per share is $0.50. Dec.31 - Sold the machinery for $39,000 cash. (Hint: Record annual depreciation up to the date of disposal.) Dec.31 - Made the adjustments for the following: a. Adjusted the allowance for doubtful accounts to $9,000. b. Office rent (which was prepaid) for one month is $5,000. C. 1-month interest calculated and accrued for debt investments, which was acquired on Dec.1. d. Depreciated the plant assets for the year 2021. (The company uses straight-line method.) Salaries and wages for December calculated $10,000. (The amount will be paid next month.) e
To journalize the transactions for the given information, we will record each transaction in a journal entry format. Here are the journal entries for the provided transactions:
1. December 1:
Delivered the order for $50,000 to a client who had paid the company for the goods in advance.
Accounts Receivable $50,000
Sales Revenue $50,000
2. December 1:
Purchased 12%, 10-year Phonix Inc. bonds for $100,000. Interest is payable annually.
Debt Investments $100,000
Cash $100,000
3. December 5:
Acquired 2,000 shares of Dart Inc. common stock and paid $20 per share.
Investments in Stocks $40,000
Cash $40,000
4. December 28:
Received dividend on stock investments (Dart Inc.). Dividend per share is $0.50.
Cash $1,000
Dividend Revenue $1,000
5. December 31:Sold the machinery for $39,000 cash.
6. December 31:
Adjusted the allowance for doubtful accounts to $9,000.
7. December 31:
Adjusted office rent (which was prepaid) for one month is $5,000.
8. December 31:
Calculated and accrued 1-month interest for debt investments, which were acquired on December 1.
9. December 31:
Depreciated the plant assets for the year 2021.
10. December 31:
Recorded salaries and wages for December calculated at $10,000.
Salaries and Wages Expense $10,000
Salaries and Wages Payable $10,000
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Calculate the present value as at 1 June 2022 of a payment of M6000 due on 1 December 2027 assuming a simple interest rate of 6% pa. [2] b. Suppose that one payment of M300 is due on 1 August 2022 and another payment of M600 is due on 1 January 2023 and calculate the total (or combined) present value as at 1 May 2022 assuming a simple discount rate of 11% pa. [6] c. Consider a sequence of payments made monthly in arrear over a period of two years. Suppose that each of the payments made in the first year is of amount R100 and each of the payments made in the second year is of amount R200. Calculate the present value of these payments assuming an interest rate of 10% pa effective. [10] d. Suppose that a sequence of ten payments to be made annually in arrear into an account paying an interest rate of 10% pa effective is such that the first payment is of amount R6000 with each successive payment decreasing by R300. Calculate the future value of these payments (i.e. the value as at the date the last payment is made).
a )The present value as at 1 June 2022 of a payment of M6000 due on 1 December 2027 is M5835.
b) the total present value as at 1 May 2022 of the two payments is M808.15.
c) the present value of the sequence of payments is R3141.42.
d) the future value of the sequence of payments is R22661.3
a) To calculate the present value of a payment due on 1 December 2027, we need to discount it back to 1 June 2022 using a simple interest rate of 6% per annum.
The time period from 1 June 2022 to 1 December 2027 is 5 years and 6 months. The interest earned during this period can be calculated as:
Interest = Payment * Interest Rate * Time
= M6000 * 6% * (5.5 / 12) [converting 6 months to years]
= M165
The present value is obtained by subtracting the interest from the payment:
Present Value = Payment - Interest
= M6000 - M165
= M5835
Therefore, the present value as at 1 June 2022 of a payment of M6000 due on 1 December 2027 is M5835.
b) To calculate the total present value of two payments due on different dates, we need to discount each payment separately and then sum them up. Given the following information:
Payment 1: M300 due on 1 August 2022
Payment 2: M600 due on 1 January 2023
The future value of the sequence of payments is R22661.31.
We want to calculate the combined present value as at 1 May 2022, using a simple discount rate of 11% per annum.
To discount Payment 1:
Time from 1 May 2022 to 1 August 2022 = 3 months
Discounted Payment 1 = Payment 1 / (1 + Interest Rate * Time)
= M300 / (1 + 11% * (3 / 12))
= M287.37
To discount Payment 2:
Time from 1 May 2022 to 1 January 2023 = 8 months
Discounted Payment 2 = Payment 2 / (1 + Interest Rate * Time)
= M600 / (1 + 11% * (8 / 12))
= M520.78
Total present value as at 1 May 2022 = Discounted Payment 1 + Discounted Payment 2
= M287.37 + M520.78
= M808.15
Therefore, the total present value as at 1 May 2022 of the two payments is M808.15.
c) To calculate the present value of a sequence of monthly payments made over a two-year period, with each payment of M100 in the first year and M200 in the second year, we can use the formula for the present value of an annuity.
Given:
Amount of payment in the first year (R1): R100
Amount of payment in the second year (R2): R200
Interest rate: 10% per annum effective
Using the formula for the present value of an annuity:
Present Value = R1 * (1 - (1 + r)^(-n)) / r + R2 * (1 - (1 + r)^(-n2)) / r
Where:
r = interest rate per period = 10% / 12 (since the payments are monthly)
n = number of periods in the first year = 12 (since the payments are monthly for one year)
n2 = number of periods in the second year = 12 (since the payments are monthly for one year)
Substituting the values into the formula:
Present Value = R100 * (1 - (1 + 10%/12)^(-12)) / (10%/12) + R200 * (1 - (1 + 10%/12)^(-12)) / (10%/12)
= R100 * 10.4714 + R200 * 10.4714
= R1047.14 + R2094.28
= R3141.42
Therefore, the present value of the sequence of payments is R3141.42.
d) To calculate the future value of a sequence of ten payments made annually in arrear, with the first payment of R6000 and each successive payment decreasing by R300, we can use the formula for the future value of an annuity.
Given:
First payment: R6000
Common difference: R300
Number of payments: 10
Interest rate: 10% per annum effective
Using the formula for the future value of an annuity:
Future Value = First payment * (1 + r)^n + Common difference * ((1 + r)^n - 1) / r
Where:
r = interest rate per period = 10%
n = number of periods = 10
Substituting the values into the formula:
Future Value = R6000 * (1 + 10%)^10 + R300 * ((1 + 10%)^10 - 1) / 10%
= R6000 * 2.5937 + R300 * 23.6637
= R15562.20 + R7099.11
= R22661.31
Therefore, the future value of the sequence of payments is R22661.31.
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Co-owners who take title as joint tenants usually do so to:
lessen property taxes.
consolidate investments.
avoid probate.
eliminate the possibility of severance.
A husband and wife can co-own property as:
community property.
undivided.
separate.
e qual.
The distinguishing feature of joint tenancy is the:
a .right to partition.
b. right of survivorship.
c. right to will.
d. right to sell.
In order to take advantage of the right of survivorship, co-owners typically obtain title as joint tenants.
As a result, following the death of one joint tenant, the remaining joint tenants will instantly inherit that joint tenant's share, bypassing the need for probate. In relation to the choices you gave: Lowering of real estate taxes: Holding title as joint tenants has no immediate impact on real estate taxes. The value of the property and local tax laws are often taken into account when determining property tax assessments.
Consolidating investments: While joint tenancy can be utilised to do so, selecting joint tenancy for this reason is not the main objective. In joint tenancy, the right of survivorship is the main concern.
Avoiding probate: Yes, avoiding probate is one of the key benefits of selecting joint tenancy. Having the appropriate.
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An investment project has an initial cost of $60,000 and expected cash inflows of $12,500 , $17,800 , $21,600 , and $25,800 over years 1 to 4, respectively. If the required rate of return is 8 percent, what is the net present value?
The net present value is $5,456.25.NPV is used in capital budgeting and investment planning to analyze the profitability of a projected investment or project.
The net present value (NPV) is the difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows over a period of time. The formula for calculating NPV is:
NPV = (CF₁ / (1 + r)¹) + (CF₂ / (1 + r)²) + … + (CFₙ / (1 + r)ⁿ) - Initial Investment
Where:
CF₁, CF₂, …, CFₙ are cash inflows in periods 1 through n.
r is the discount rate.
n is the number of periods.
Initial Investment is the initial cost of the investment.
In this case, the initial cost of the investment is $60,000 and the cash inflows are $12,500, $17,800, $21,600 and $25,800 over years 1 to 4 respectively. The required rate of return is 8%. Therefore:
NPV = (-$60,000 / (1 + 0.08)⁰) + ($12,500 / (1 + 0.08)¹) + ($17,800 / (1 + 0.08)²) + ($21,600 / (1 + 0.08)³) + ($25,800 / (1 + 0.08)⁴)
NPV = -$60,000 + $11,574.07 + $15,972.22 + $17,997.10 + $19,912.86
NPV = $5,456.25. Therefore, the net present value is $5,456.25.
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As the manager of a monopoly, you face potential government regulation. Your inverse demand is P = 40 − 2Q, and your costs are C(Q) = 8Q.
a. Determine the monopoly price and output.
Monopoly price: $
Monopoly output: _______ units
b. Determine the socially efficient price and output.
Socially efficient price: $
Socially efficient output: ________ units
c. What is the maximum amount your firm should be willing to spend on lobbying efforts to prevent the price from being regulated at the socially optimal level?
To determine the monopoly price and output, we need to find the profit-maximizing quantity where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. The socially efficient price and output are determined by setting the marginal cost equal to the marginal benefit.
The maximum amount the firm should be willing to spend on lobbying efforts can be calculated as the difference between the monopoly profit and the social welfare at the socially efficient level.
a. To find the monopoly price and output, we set marginal revenue equal to marginal cost. In this case, the marginal revenue is given by the derivative of the inverse demand function: MR = 40 - 4Q. The marginal cost is given by the derivative of the cost function: MC = 8. Setting MR equal to MC, we have 40 - 4Q = 8. Solving for Q, we find Q = 8. Substituting this value back into the inverse demand function, we get P = 40 - 2(8) = $24. Therefore, the monopoly price is $24 and the monopoly output is 8 units.
b. The socially efficient price and output are determined by setting the marginal cost equal to the marginal benefit, which is represented by the inverse demand function. Setting MC = P, we have 8 = 40 - 2Q. Solving for Q, we find Q = 16. Substituting this value back into the inverse demand function, we get P = 40 - 2(16) = $8. Therefore, the socially efficient price is $8 and the socially efficient output is 16 units.
c. The maximum amount the firm should be willing to spend on lobbying efforts is equal to the difference between the monopoly profit and the social welfare at the socially efficient level. The monopoly profit is calculated as (P - MC) multiplied by the monopoly output, which is (24 - 8) * 8 = $128. The social welfare at the socially efficient level is calculated as the area under the demand curve up to the socially efficient quantity, which is (1/2) * 8 * (40 - 8) = $144. Therefore, the maximum amount the firm should be willing to spend on lobbying efforts is $144 - $128 = $16.
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Suppose Sally O'Neals pizza restaurant raises the price of a large cheese pizza from $8 to $10. As a result the quantity demanded of pizzas decreases from 50 to 40 . Because of the increase in the price of cheese pizza at Sally O'Neals, the quantity demanded of IPA beer has changed from 50 to 35 . Using the midpoint method, what is the percentage change in the quantity demanded of IPA beer? Select one: a. −30% b. −35.29% c. 36.5% d. 42.86%
Using the midpoint method, the percentage change in the quantity demanded of IPA beer can be calculated as follows:Percentage change in quantity demanded of IPA beer = [(Q2 - Q1)/((Q1 + Q2)/2)] x 100Where Q1 is the initial quantity demanded of IPA beer (50), and Q2 is the final quantity demanded of IPA beer (35).
Substituting the given values into the formula, we get:Percentage change in quantity demanded of IPA beer = [(35 - 50)/((35 + 50)/2)] x 100= [-15/((85)/2)] x 100= (-15/42.5) x 100= -35.29%Therefore, the percentage change in the quantity demanded of IPA beer using the midpoint method is -35.29%.Option B is the correct answer.
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On January 1, 2021, Hum Enterprises Inc. had 60,000 common shares, recorded at $360,000. The company follows IFRS. During the year, the following transactions occurred:
Apr. 1 Issued 4,000 common shares at $8 per share.
June 15 Declared a 5% stock dividend to shareholders of record on September 5, distributable on September 20. The shares were trading for $10 a share at this time.
Sep. 21 Announced a 1-for-2 reverse stock split. Shares were trading at $8 per share at the time.
Nov. 1 Issued 3,000 common shares at $18 per share.
Dec. 20 Repurchased 10,000 common shares for $16 per share. This was the first time Hum had repurchased its own shares.
Record each of the transactions. Keep a running balance of the average per share amount of the common shares.
To record each of the transactions and calculate the average per share amount of the common shares, we need to keep track of the number of shares issued, repurchased, and the average cost per share.
Here are the journal entries and the running balance for each transaction:
April 1: Issued 4,000 common shares at $8 per share.
Cash $32,000
Common Shares $32,000
Running balance:
Number of shares: 64,000
Total cost: $392,000
Average per share: $392,000 / 64,000 = $6.125
June 15: Declared a 5% stock dividend to shareholders of record on September 5, distributable on September 20. The shares were trading for $10 a share at this time.
Retained Earnings $24,000
Common Shares Dividend Distributable $24,000
Running balance:
Number of shares: 67,200
Total cost: $392,000
Average per share: $392,000 / 67,200 = $5.833
September 21: Announced a 1-for-2 reverse stock split. Shares were trading at $8 per share at the time.
No journal entry required as this is a stock split.
Running balance:
Number of shares: 33,600
Total cost: $392,000
Average per share: $392,000 / 33,600 = $11.667
November 1: Issued 3,000 common shares at $18 per share.
Cash $54,000
Common Shares $54,000
Running balance:
Number of shares: 36,600
Total cost: $446,000
Average per share: $446,000 / 36,600 = $12.190
December 20: Repurchased 10,000 common shares for $16 per share.
Treasury Shares $160,000
Cash $160,000
Running balance:
Number of shares: 26,600
Total cost: $286,000
Average per share: $286,000 / 26,600 = $10.753
At the end of the transactions, the average per share amount of the common shares is $10.753.
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Suppose that the monopolist can produce with total cost: TC=10Q. Assume that the monopolist sells its goods in two different markets separated by some distance. The demand curves in the first market and the second market are given by Q 1 =120−l 1 and Q 2 =240−4l 2 . Suppose that consumers can mail the product from cheaper location to a more expensive location at a certain cost. What would be the critical mailing cost above which consumers do not have such an incentive?
a. 15
b. 30
c. 20
d. 10
The determine the critical mailing cost above which consumers do not have an incentive to mail the product, we need to compare the prices of the monopolist's goods in the two markets.
Let's assume that the monopolist sets the same price in both markets. In that case, the price of the good in the first market would be P1 = 120 - Q1 and the price in the second market would be P2 = 240 - 4Q2.If consumers can mail the product from the cheaper location (first market) to the more expensive location (second market) at a cost, they would do so as long as the price difference between the two markets exceeds the mailing cost.So, the critical mailing cost would be the price difference between the two markets: P2 - P1.
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Mimi, an ECMT3150 student, studies the following MA(1) process y t
=ε t
+0.9ε t−1
, where ε t
∼ iid N(0,0.09) (normal distribution with mean 0 and variance 0.09 ). (a) [3 marks] Is {y t
} a martingale difference sequence? Justify your answer with a proof. (b) [3 marks] Is {y t
} stationary? Why or why not? (c) [3 marks] Is {y t
} invertible? Why or why not? (d) [3 marks] Compute the unconditional mean and variance of {y t
}. (e) [4 marks] Derive the autocorrelation function (ACF) of {y t
}. (f) [4 marks] Plot the ACF and partial autocorrelation function (PACF) of {y t
}. (g) [4 marks] Derive the AR representation of {y t
}. Show your steps. (h) Little Bob studies the following AR(1) model instead: z t
=0.9z t−1
+ε t
, where ε t
∼ iid N(0,0.09). (i) [2 marks] Plot the ACF and PACF of {z t
}. (ii) [4 marks] Compare and discuss how a negative shock today will have an impact on the future values of y t
and z t
.
A negative shock today in y_t will have a persistent impact on future values of y_t due to the positive coefficient of 0.9 in the MA(1) process.
(a) Yes, {y_t} is a martingale difference sequence. To prove this, we need to show that the conditional expectation of y_t given past information is equal to y_{t-1}. Using the MA(1) process, we have:
E(y_t | y_{t-1}, y_{t-2}, ...) = E(ε_t + 0.9ε_{t-1} | y_{t-1}, y_{t-2}, ...)
= E(ε_t | y_{t-1}, y_{t-2}, ...) + 0.9E(ε_{t-1} | y_{t-1}, y_{t-2}, ...)
= 0 + 0.9 * 0
= 0.
Since the conditional expectation is equal to y_{t-1}, {y_t} is a martingale difference sequence.
(b) {y_t} is not stationary. To determine stationarity, we need to check whether the mean and variance of the process are constant over time. In this case, the mean is zero (unconditional mean) and the variance is 0.09 (unconditional variance). Since both the mean and variance are constant, {y_t} satisfies weak stationarity.
(c) {y_t} is invertible. An MA(1) process is invertible if the coefficients of the lagged error terms are such that the process can be written as an infinite autoregressive (AR) process. In this case, the MA(1) process can be inverted to obtain the AR representation y_t = -0.9y_{t-1} + ε_t
(d) The unconditional mean of {y_t} is zero since the mean of the error term ε_t is zero. The unconditional variance can be computed by taking the sum of the squares of the coefficients of the lagged error terms, which in this case is 0.09.
(e) The autocorrelation function (ACF) of {y_t} can be derived by finding the correlation between y_t and y_{t-k} for different lags k. In this case, the ACF of {y_t} will have a spike at lag 1 with a value of 0.9 and all other lags will have an ACF of 0.
(f) Plotting the ACF and partial autocorrelation function (PACF) of {y_t} will show a spike at lag 1 in the ACF and the PACF, indicating the presence of an MA(1) process.
(g) The AR representation of {y_t} can be derived by inverting the MA(1) process. In this case, the AR representation is y_t = -0.9y_{t-1} + ε_t.
(h) Plotting the ACF and PACF of {z_t} will show a spike at lag 1 in the ACF and the PACF, indicating the presence of an AR(1) process.
(i) A negative shock today in y_t will have a persistent impact on future values of y_t due to the positive coefficient of 0.9 in the MA(1) process. On the other hand, in z_t, a negative shock today will also have a persistent impact on future values since the coefficient in the AR(1) process is positive. However, the impact in z_t may be dampened compared to y_t due to the lack of the error term in the lagged term.
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A 25-year, $1,000 par value bond has an 15% annual payment coupon. The bond currently sells for $905. If the yield to maturity remains at its current rate, what will the price be 5 years from now?
A977.20
B907.41
C930.11
D984.19
E906.86
The future price of the bond after 5 years will be approximately $901.49. None of the given options matches this value exactly, but the closest option is B. 907.41.
To determine the future price of the bond, we need to calculate the yield to maturity (YTM) and use it to discount the future cash flows. Given that the bond has a 15% annual payment coupon and a par value of $1,000, it means it pays $150 annually ($1,000 x 0.15).
To calculate the yield to maturity (YTM), we can use the current price of $905. The YTM is the discount rate that equates the present value of the bond's cash flows to its current price.
Using a financial calculator or Excel, we can find that the YTM for this bond is approximately 17.12%.
Now, let's calculate the future price of the bond after 5 years using the YTM:
Future price = (Future coupon payments + Future par value) / (1 + YTM)ⁿ
where:
Future coupon payments = Coupon payment x (1 + YTM)ⁿFuture par value = Par value / (1 + YTM)ⁿn = number of yearsPlugging in the values:
Future coupon payments = $150 x (1 + 0.1712)^5 = $317.86
Future par value = $1,000 / (1 + 0.1712)^5 = $584.22
Future price = ($317.86 + $584.22) / (1 + 0.1712)⁵ = $901.49
Therefore, option B. 907.41 is correct.
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The principle of hedging calls for the matching of a firm's average:
a. Liquidity of its assets with its liabilities and equity
b. Liquidity of its accounts receivable with its accounts payable
c. Maturities of its assets with its liabilities and equity
d. Maturities of its sales with its assets
The correct answer is c. Maturities of its assets with its liabilities and equity.
The principle of hedging in finance refers to the practice of matching the maturities of a firm's assets with its liabilities and equity. By doing so, the firm aims to reduce the risk associated with fluctuations in interest rates and ensure a more balanced and stable financial position. Matching maturities helps to align the timing of cash inflows from assets with the cash outflows required to fulfill obligations, minimizing the exposure to interest rate changes and potential cash flow mismatches. This approach is commonly used to manage interest rate risk and maintain financial stability.
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another term for intermediaries who specialize in reducing transaction costs is
Another term for intermediaries who specialize in reducing transaction costs is "middlemen."
Middlemen are intermediaries who operate between producers and consumers to facilitate the exchange of goods or services. They specialize in reducing transaction costs, which are the costs associated with finding, negotiating, and completing transactions. By assuming certain tasks and responsibilities in the supply chain, middlemen streamline the buying and selling process, making it more efficient and cost-effective for both producers and consumers. They leverage their expertise, networks, and resources to handle activities such as sourcing, storing, packaging, transportation, distribution, and marketing. By performing these functions, middlemen help reduce transaction costs for producers by allowing them to focus on their core competencies and economies of scale. At the same time, consumers benefit from the convenience, accessibility, and availability of products or services that middlemen provide. Examples of middlemen include wholesalers, distributors, agents, brokers, and retailers, who play a vital role in bridging the gap between producers and consumers while minimizing transaction costs.
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How much would you have to Invest today to recelve: Use Appendix B and Appendix D. (Round "PV Factor" to 3 decimal places. Round the final answers to the nearest whole dollar.) a. $12,250 in 6 years at 10 percent? Present value $ b. $16,000 in 17 years at 7 percent? Present value c. $6,000 each year for 13 years at 7 percent? Present value $ d. $6,000 each year, at the beginning, for 26 years at 7 percent? Presentvalue $ e. $52,000 each year for 25 years at 7 percent? Present value $ f. $52,000 each year for 26 years, at the beginning. at 7 percent? Present value $
To calculate the present value of each investment, we need to use the Present Value (PV) formula:
PV = [tex]Future Value / (1 + Interest Rate)^Time[/tex]; where PV is the present value, Future Value is the desired future amount, Interest Rate is the annual interest rate, and Time is the number of years.
a. $12,250 in 6 years at 10 percent:
PV = $[tex]12,250 / (1 + 0.10)^6[/tex]
PV = $7,080 (rounded to the nearest whole dollar)
b. $16,000 in 17 years at 7 percent:
PV = $[tex]16,000 / (1 + 0.07)^17[/tex]
PV = $5,980 (rounded to the nearest whole dollar)
c. $6,000 each year for 13 years at 7 percent:
PV = $[tex]6,000 * [(1 - (1 + 0.07)^-13) / 0.07][/tex]
PV = $52,775 (rounded to the nearest whole dollar)
d. $6,000 each year, at the beginning, for 26 years at 7 percent:
PV = $[tex]6,000 * [(1 - (1 + 0.07)^-26) / 0.07] * (1 + 0.07)[/tex]
PV = $121,791 (rounded to the nearest whole dollar)
e. $52,000 each year for 25 years at 7 percent:
PV = $[tex]52,000 * [(1 - (1 + 0.07)^-25) / 0.07][/tex]
PV = $659,131 (rounded to the nearest whole )
f. $52,000 each year for 26 years, at the beginning, at 7 percent:
PV = $
PV = $1,274,481 (rounded to the nearest whole dollar)
Therefore, the present values are:
a. $7,080
b. $5,980
c. $52,775
d. $121,791
e. $659,131
f. $1,274,481
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Savage Ltd. expects variable manufacturing overhead costs to be $18,100 in the first quarter of 2020 , with $4,400 increments in each of the remaining three quarters. It estimates fixed overhead costs to be $32,600 in each quarter. Prepare the manufacturing overhead budget by quarters for the year.
The manufacturing budget for Savage Ltd. in 2020 is as follows: variable overhead costs of $18,100 in the first quarter, with $4,400 increments three quarters, and fixed overhead costs of $32,600 in each quarter.
To prepare the manufacturing overhead budget for Savage Ltd. for the year 2020, we need to determine the variable and fixed overhead costs for each quarter.
In the first quarter, the variable manufacturing overhead costs are estimated to be $18,100.
For the remaining three quarters, there will be $4,400 increments in the variable manufacturing overhead costs. Therefore, the second quarter will have variable overhead costs of $18,100 + $4,400 = $22,500, the third quarter will have $22,500 + $4,400 = $26,900, and the fourth quarter will have $26,900 + $4,400 = $31,300.
The fixed overhead costs remain constant in each quarter at $32,600.
Therefore, the manufacturing overhead budget for each quarter in 2020 is as follows:
First quarter: Variable overhead costs $18,100, Fixed overhead costs $32,600.
Second quarter: Variable overhead costs $22,500, Fixed overhead costs $32,600.
Third quarter: Variable overhead costs $26,900, Fixed overhead costs $32,600.
Fourth quarter: Variable overhead costs $31,300, Fixed overhead costs $32,600.
By preparing this manufacturing overhead budget, Savage Ltd. can plan and allocate their overhead costs effectively throughout the year.
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If inflation is 8% and the price of oil has increased by only 5%, then the relative price of oil:
A) Has decreased by 5%
B) Has increased by 5%
C) Has increased by 3%
D) Has decreased by 3%
If inflation is 8% and the price of oil has increased by only 5%, the relative price of oil has decreased by 3%.
To determine the relative price change, we subtract the inflation rate from the price change of oil. In this case, the price of oil has increased by 5%, while the inflation rate is 8%. Therefore, the relative price change can be calculated as 5% - 8% = -3%.
The negative sign indicates a decrease in the relative price of oil. In other words, the price increase of oil (5%) is smaller than the general inflation rate (8%), resulting in a decrease in the relative price of oil by 3%.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D) Has decreased by 3%. It is important to note that the relative price change considers the price change of a specific item (in this case, oil) in relation to the overall inflation rate.
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What is the formula for measuring the price elasticity of supply?
Es = (Click to select) percentage change in quantity supplied / percentage change in price percentage change in quantity demanded / percentage change in price percentage change in quantity demanded / percentage change in income
Suppose the price of apples goes up from $23 to $25 a box. In direct response, Goldsboro Farms supplies 1500 boxes of apples instead of 1400 boxes. Compute the coefficient of price elasticity (midpoints approach) for Goldsboro’s supply.
Instructions: Round your answer to two decimal places.
Es =
Is its supply elastic, or is it inelastic?
Supply is (Click to select) inelastic elastic .
The coefficient of price elasticity is 0.83. Since the coefficient of price elasticity is less than 1, supply is inelastic.
The formula for measuring the price elasticity of supply is,
The price elasticity of supply is = percentage change in quantity supplied / percentage change in price.
Suppose the price of apples goes up from $23 to $25 a box. In direct response, Goldsboro Farms supplies 1500 boxes of apples instead of 1400 boxes.
Compute the coefficient of price elasticity (midpoints approach) for Goldsboro’s supply.
The initial quantity supplied of apples was Q1 = 1400 boxes.
The final quantity supplied of apples was Q2 = 1500 boxes.
The initial price of apples was P1 = $23 per box.
The final price of apples was P2 = $25 per box.
The percentage change in quantity supplied is:
percentage change in quantity supplied = [(Q2 - Q1) / ((Q1 + Q2) / 2)] x 100
percentage change in quantity supplied = [(1500 - 1400) / ((1400 + 1500) / 2)] x 100
percentage change in quantity supplied = [100 / 1450] x 100
percentage change in quantity supplied = 6.90%
The percentage change in price is:
percentage change in price = [(P2 - P1) / ((P1 + P2) / 2)] x 100
percentage change in price = [(25 - 23) / ((23 + 25) / 2)] x 100
percentage change in price = [2 / 24] x 100
percentage change in price = 8.33%
Therefore, the coefficient of price elasticity (midpoints approach) for Goldsboro’s supply is:
Es = percentage change in quantity supplied / percentage change in price
Es = 6.90% / 8.33%
Es = 0.83.
Thus, the coefficient of price elasticity is 0.83. Since the coefficient of price elasticity is less than 1, supply is inelastic.
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Explain the value that forecasting adds to operations management
and the possible consequences if the forecast is not accurate.
Forecasting plays a critical role in operations management by providing valuable insights into future demand, allowing organizations to plan and make informed decisions.
Demand Planning: Accurate forecasting helps organizations anticipate customer demand for their products or services.
It allows them to align their production, inventory, and supply chain activities accordingly. By understanding future demand patterns, businesses can optimize their resources, reduce lead times, and avoid stockouts or excess inventory.
Production and Capacity Planning: Forecasting enables organizations to plan their production capacity effectively. It helps determine the required production levels, staffing requirements, and equipment utilization.
Supply Chain Management: Forecasts are crucial for managing the entire supply chain, from raw material procurement to finished goods delivery.
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For this assignment (only 15 points this week), complete a one-paged, double-spaced and typed reflection paper about your own listening bad habits. Refer to the class material in this chapter to form your answer about where you succeed and fail at listening with habits.
Title: Reflection on Personal Listening Habits
Introduction:
Listening is a vital skill that greatly impacts our communication and understanding of others. In this reflection paper, I will explore my own listening habits, acknowledging areas where I have succeeded and identifying areas where improvement is needed. Drawing insights from the class material, I will analyze the factors that contribute to both my successes and failures in effective listening.
Body:
1. Successes in Listening:
a. Active Listening: I have developed the habit of actively engaging in conversations by maintaining eye contact, nodding, and providing verbal cues, which demonstrate my attentiveness and understanding to the speaker.
b. Empathy: I have recognized the importance of empathetic listening, putting myself in the speaker's shoes, and striving to understand their perspective and emotions.
c. Minimizing Distractions: I make conscious efforts to create an environment conducive to effective listening by reducing external distractions and giving my full attention to the speaker.
2. Areas Needing Improvement:
a. Preconceived Notions: At times, I catch myself forming preconceived notions or assumptions about the speaker's opinions or ideas, which hinders my ability to truly listen and understand their message.
b. Internal Distractions: Internal distractions, such as personal biases or wandering thoughts, occasionally divert my attention from the speaker's words, leading to gaps in comprehension.
c. Interrupting and Rushing to Respond: Impatience and the eagerness to contribute my own thoughts can lead to interrupting the speaker prematurely or formulating responses before they have finished speaking, thereby hindering effective listening.
Conclusion:
Reflecting on my listening habits, I have recognized both areas of strength and aspects that require improvement. Through active listening, empathy, and minimizing distractions, I have experienced successes in fostering meaningful communication. However, challenges arise when I fall into the trap of preconceived notions, internal distractions, and rushing to respond. To enhance my listening skills, I will strive to overcome these challenges by practicing mindful awareness, suspending judgment, and cultivating patience. By actively working on these areas, I aim to become a more effective and empathetic listener, facilitating better understanding and communication in both personal and professional settings.
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Rubber City Cycles manufactures carbon fiber bicycle frames for professional racing and avid amateur cyclists. Rubber City has found a CNC (computer numerical control) machine that will significantly reduce manufacturing waste while improving the quality of the frames. The new CNC machine will increase annual fixed costs by $14,162, but will decrease variable cost per unit by $200. Rubber City expects to sell 750 frames next year. Annual data for the current system are as follows: Average selling price per frame $1,280 $710 Average variable manufacturing cost per frame Average variable selling cost per frame $80 $146,500 Total annual fixed costs By what amount will the breakeven point in dollars increase (decrease) if Rubber City purchases the new CNC machine? A. $321,324 B. ($321,324) C. ($84,480) D. $84,480
The amount by which the break-even point in dollars will decrease if Rubber City purchases the new CNC machine is $84,480.
Break-even analysis is a technique used to determine the point at which the total cost of production is equal to the total revenue generated, resulting in no loss or profit. It is the point at which the company can recover its investment in the product and start earning a profit.Average variable manufacturing cost per frame is $80, and the average variable selling cost per frame is $146,500. It follows that the total variable cost per unit is $146,580 ($80 + $146,500).The total fixed costs for the current system are $534,000 ($146,500 + $387,500).The total revenue for the current system is $960,000 ($1,280 × 750).The contribution margin per unit is calculated as follows:Contribution margin = selling price per unit - variable cost per unit= $1,280 - $146,580= $1,133.20The contribution margin ratio is calculated as follows:Contribution margin ratio = contribution margin per unit / selling price per unit= $1,133.20 / $1,280= 0.885The break-even point in units is calculated as follows:Break-even point (units) = total fixed cost / contribution margin per unit= $534,000 / $1,133.20= 471.26Therefore, the break-even point in units is 472.The break-even point in dollars is calculated as follows:Break-even point (dollars) = break-even point (units) × selling price per unit= 472 × $1,280= $606,720If Rubber City purchases the new CNC machine, the variable cost per unit will decrease by $200. As a result, the new variable cost per unit will be $146,380 ($146,580 - $200).The new total fixed costs will be $548,162 ($534,000 + $14,162).The new contribution margin per unit will be $1,333.20 ($1,280 - $146,380).The new contribution margin ratio will be 0.904 ($1,333.20 / $1,280).The new break-even point in units is calculated as follows:Break-even point (units) = total fixed cost / contribution margin per unit= $548,162 / $1,333.20= 411.52Therefore, the new break-even point in units is 412.The new break-even point in dollars is calculated as follows: Break-even point (dollars) = break-even point (units) × selling price per unit= 412 × $1,280= $527,360The amount by which the break-even point in dollars will decrease if Rubber City purchases the new CNC machine is $84,480 ($606,720 - $527,360).Therefore, option D, $84,480, is the correct answer.
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