An electron moving in the y direction, at right angles to a magnetic field, experiences a magnetic force in the -x direction. The direction of the magnetic field is in the

Answer:

The static and kinetic coefficients of friction are 0.273 and 0.181, respectively.

Explanation:

By Newton's Laws of Motion and definition of maximum friction force, we derive the following two formulas for the static and kinetic coefficients of friction:

[tex]\mu_{s} = \frac{f_{s}}{m\cdot g}[/tex] (1)

[tex]\mu_{k} = \frac{f_{k}}{m\cdot g}[/tex] (2)

Where:

[tex]\mu_{s}[/tex] - Static coefficient of friction, no unit.

[tex]\mu_{k}[/tex] - Kinetic coefficient of friction, no unit.

[tex]f_{s}[/tex] - Static friction force, in newtons.

[tex]f_{k}[/tex] - Kinetic friction force, in newtons.

[tex]m[/tex] - Mass, in kilograms.

[tex]g[/tex] - Gravitational constant, in meters per square second.

If we know that [tex]f_{s} = 83\,N[/tex], [tex]f_{k} = 55\,N[/tex], [tex]m = 31\,kg[/tex] and [tex]g = 9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex], then the coefficients of friction are, respectively:

[tex]\mu_{s} = \frac{83\,N}{(31\,kg)\cdot \left(9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right)}[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{s} = 0.273[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{k} = \frac{55\,N}{(31\,kg)\cdot \left(9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right)}[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{k} = 0.181[/tex]

The static and kinetic coefficients of friction are 0.273 and 0.181, respectively.

Explanation:

[tex]\underline{\boxed{\large{\bf{Option \; A!! }}}} [/tex]

Here,

We have to find the equivalent resistance of the circuit.

Here, [tex]\rm { R_1} [/tex] and [tex]\rm { R_2} [/tex] are connected in series, so their combined resistance will be given by,

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm { R_{(1,2)} = R_1 + R_2} \\ [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm { R_{(1,2)} = (2 + 2) \; Omega} \\ [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm { R_{(1,2)} = 4 \; Omega} \\ [/tex]

Now, the combined resistance of [tex]\rm { R_1} [/tex] and [tex]\rm { R_2} [/tex] is connected in parallel combination with [tex]\rm { R_3} [/tex], so their combined resistance will be given by,

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm {\dfrac{1}{ R_{(1,2,3)}} = \dfrac{1}{R_{(1,2)}} + \dfrac{1}{R_3} } \\ [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm {\dfrac{1}{ R_{(1,2,3)}} = \Bigg ( \dfrac{1}{4} + \dfrac{1}{2} \Bigg ) \;\Omega} \\ [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm {\dfrac{1}{ R_{(1,2,3)}} = \Bigg ( \dfrac{1 + 2}{4} \Bigg ) \;\Omega} \\ [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm {\dfrac{1}{ R_{(1,2,3)}} = \Bigg ( \dfrac{3}{4} \Bigg ) \;\Omega} \\ [/tex]

Reciprocating both sides,

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm {R_{(1,2,3)}= \dfrac{4}{3} \;\Omega} \\ [/tex]

Now, the combined resistance of [tex]\rm { R_1} [/tex], [tex]\rm { R_2} [/tex] and [tex]\rm { R_3} [/tex] is connected in series combination with [tex]\rm { R_4} [/tex]. So, equivalent resistance will be given by,

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm {R_{(1,2,3,4)}= R_{(1,2,3)} + R_4} \\ [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm {R_{(1,2,3,4)}= \Bigg ( \dfrac{4}{3} + 2 \Bigg ) \; \Omega} \\ [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm {R_{(1,2,3,4)}= \Bigg ( \dfrac{4 + 6}{3} \Bigg ) \; \Omega} \\ [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \rm {R_{(1,2,3,4)}= \Bigg ( \dfrac{10}{3} \Bigg ) \; \Omega} \\ [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \bf {R_{(1,2,3,4)}= 3.33 \; \Omega} \\ [/tex]

Henceforth, Option A is correct.

[tex]\underline{\boxed{\large{\bf{Option \; B!! }}}} [/tex]

Here, we have to find the amount of flow of current in the circuit. By using ohm's law,

[tex] \longrightarrow [/tex] V = IR

[tex] \longrightarrow [/tex] 3 = I × 3.33

[tex] \longrightarrow [/tex] 3 ÷ 3.33 = I

[tex] \longrightarrow [/tex] 0.90 Ampere = I

Henceforth, Option B is correct.

[tex] \tt \purple{Hope \; it \; helps \; you, Army! \heartsuit } \\ [/tex]

Answer:

Your fart only has so much force, not nearly enough to launch you into oblivion. Your fart and you still exert a force onto each other, so I guess, hypothetically, you could fly if you really, really try hard enough. Just make sure you don't try too hard and prolapse as a result :)

Answer:

The frequency of the second wave is half of the frequency of first one.

Explanation:

The wavelength of the second wave is double is the first wave.

As we know that the frequency is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the velocity is same.

velocity = frequency x wavelength

So, the ratio of frequency of second wave to the first wave is

[tex]\frac{f_2}{f_1} =\frac{\lambda _1}{\lambda _2}\\\\\frac{f_2}{f_1} =\frac{\lambda _1}{2\lambda _1}\\\\\frac{f_2}{f_1} =\frac{1}{2}\\\\[/tex]

The frequency of the second wave is half of the frequency of first one.