An expensive vacuum system can achieve a pressure as low as 1.53 ✕ 10−7 N/m2 at 26°C. How many atoms are there in a cubic centimeter at this pressure and temperature?

Answer:

b. Third Law entropy  

Explanation:

Third law entropy: In physics, the term "third law entropy" or "the third law of thermodynamics" states that the specific entropy of a particular system at "absolute zero" is considered as a "well-defined constant". It occurs because any system at "zero temperature"  tends to exists or persists in its "ground state" in order for the entropy to be determined or described only by the "degeneracy" of the given ground state.

In the question above, the correct answer is option b.

Answer:

Explanation:

The force experienced by the moving electron in the magnetic field is expressed as F = qvBsinθ where;

q is the charge on the electron

v is the velocity of the electron

B is the magnetic field strength

θ is the angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field.

Given parameters

F =  1.40*10⁻¹⁶ N

q = 1.6*10⁻¹⁹C

v = 3.94*10³m/s

B = 1.23T

Required

Angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field

Substituting the given parameters into the formula:

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ =  1.6*10⁻¹⁹ * 3.94*10³ * 1.23 * sinθ

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ = 7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁹⁺³sinθ

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ = 7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁶sinθ

sinθ = 1.40*10⁻¹⁶/7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁶

sinθ = 1.40/7.75392

sinθ = 0.1806

θ = sin⁻¹0.1806

θ₁ = 10.4⁰

Since sinθ is positive in the 1st and 2nd quadrant, θ₂ = 180-θ₁

θ₂ = 180-10.4

θ₂ = 169.6⁰

Hence, the angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field are 10.4⁰ and 169.6⁰

Answer:

Explanation:

magnetic field due to an infinite current carrying conductor

B = k x 2I / r where k = 10⁻⁷  , I is current in conductor and r is distance from wire

putting the given data

B = 10⁻⁷ x 2 x 100 / 8

= 25 x 10⁻⁷ T .

B )

earth's magnetic field = .5 gauss

= .5 x 10⁻⁴ T

= 5 x 10⁻⁵ T

percent required = (25 x 10⁻⁷ / 5 x 10⁻⁵) x 100

= 5 %

C )

ii.  No. Since this field is much lesser than the earth's magnetic field, it would be expected to have less effect than the earth's field.

Answer:

3.9E-8

Explanation:

We know that

Mv²/r = Bqv

So

r= mv/Bq

But E is 1/2mv² which is 5.53eV

m²v² =2m x 5.53eV

mv = √( 2 x 9.1E-31)

So

r= √( 2 x9.1E-31 x 5.53)/ 7.83x10^-4 x1.6E-19

= 3.9x10-8cm

​

Explanation:

Answer:

The power of the eye is 51.64 diopters

Explanation:

The power of the eye is given by;

[tex]P = \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{d_o} +\frac{1}{d_i}[/tex]

where;

P is the power of the eye in diopter

f is the focal length of the eye

[tex]d_o[/tex] is the distance between the eye and the object

[tex]d_i[/tex] is the distance between the eye and the image

Given;

[tex]d_o[/tex] = 61.0 cm = 0.61 m

[tex]d_i[/tex] = 2.0 cm = 0.02 m

[tex]P = \frac{1}{d_o} +\frac{1}{d_i} \\\\P = \frac{1}{0.61} + \frac{1}{0.02} \\\\P = 51.64 \ D[/tex]

Therefore, the power of the eye is 51.64 diopters.

The power P of the eye when viewing an object 61.0 cm away is 51.639D

The power of a lens is a reciprocal of its focal length and it is expressed as:

[tex]P=\frac{1}{f}[/tex]

According to the mirror formula

[tex]\frac{1}{f} =\frac{1}{d_i} +\frac{1}{d_0}[/tex]

where

[tex]d_i[/tex] is the distance from the lens to the image = 61.0cm = 0.61m

[tex]d_0[/tex] is the distance from the lens to the object = 2.00cm = 0.02m

[tex]P=\frac{1}{f} =\frac{1}{0.02} +\frac{1}{0.61}\\P=50+1.639\\P=51.639D[/tex]

Hence the power P of the eye when viewing an object 61.0 cm away is 51.639D

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Answer:

a. The reactance of the inductor is XL = V₀/I₀

b. The inductance of the inductor is L = V₀/2πfI₀

Explanation:

PART A

Since the voltage across the inductor V₀ = I₀XL where V₀ = e.m.f of voltage source, I₀ = current amplitude and XL = reactance of the inductor,

XL = V₀/I₀

So, the reactance of the inductor is XL = V₀/I₀

PART B

The inductance of the inductor is gotten from XL = 2πfL where f = frequency of voltage source and L = inductance of inductor

Since XL = V₀/I₀ = 2πfL

V₀/I₀ = 2πfL

L = V₀/2πfI₀

So the inductance of the inductor is L = V₀/2πfI₀

A) The reactance XL of the inductor :  [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  

B) The Inductance L of the inductor : [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]  

A) Expressing the Reactance of the inductor

Voltage across the Inductor = V₀ = I₀XL   ---- ( 1 )

Where :  V₀ = emf voltage ,  I₀ = current

from equation ( 1 )

∴ XL ( reactance ) = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  

B ) Expressing the Inductance of the Inductor

Inductance of an inductor is expressed as : XL = 2πfL

from part A

XL = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex] = 2πfL

∴ The inductance L of the Inductor expressed in terms of V₀, F and I₀

L = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]

Hence we can conclude that The reactance XL of the inductor :  [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  and The Inductance L of the inductor : [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]  .

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Answer:

The tension on string when the speed was raised is 134.53 N

Explanation:

Given;

Tension on the string, T = 120 N

initial speed of the transverse wave, v₁ = 170 m/s

final speed of the transverse wave, v₂ = 180 m/s

The speed of the wave is given as;

[tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu} }[/tex]

where;

μ is mass per unit length

[tex]v^2 = \frac{T}{\mu} \\\\\mu = \frac{T}{v^2} \\\\\frac{T_1}{v_1^2} = \frac{T_2}{v_2^2}[/tex]

The final tension T₂ will be calculated as;

[tex]T_2 = \frac{T_1 v_2^2}{v_1^2} \\\\T_2 = \frac{120*180^2}{170^2} \\\\T_2 = 134.53 \ N[/tex]

Therefore, the tension on string when the speed was raised is 134.53 N

Answer:4 times more energy will be striking the childbearing

Explanation:

Because Volume is directly proportional to amplitude of sound. Energy is proportional to amplitude squared. If you triple the amplitude, you multiply the energy by 4

Answer:

v_{f} = 74 m/s, F = 230 N

Explanation:

We can work on this exercise using the relationship between momentum and moment

        I = ∫ F dt = Δp

bold indicates vectors

we can write this equations in its components

X axis

       Fₓ t = m ( -v_{xo})

Y axis  

        t = m (v_{yf} - v_{yo})

in this case with the ball it travels horizontally v_{yo} = 0

Let's use trigonometry to write the final velocities and the force

        sin 30 = v_{yf} / vf

        cos 30 = v_{xf} / vf

        v_{yf} = vf sin 30

        v_{xf} = vf cos 30

         sin40 = F_{y} / F

         F_{y} = F sin 40

         cos 40 = Fₓ / F

         Fₓ = F cos 40

let's substitute

      F cos 40 t = m ( cos 30 - vₓ₀)

      F sin 40 t = m (v_{f} sin 30-0)

we have two equations and two unknowns, so the system can be solved

        F cos 40 0.1 = 0.4 (v_{f} cos 30 - 20)

        F sin 40 0.1 = 0.4 v_{f} sin 30

we clear fen the second equation and subtitles in the first

         F = 4 sin30 /sin40     v_{f}

         F = 3.111 v_{f}

        (3,111 v_{f}) cos 40 = 4 v_{f} cos 30 - 80

        v_{f} (3,111 cos 40 -4 cos30) = - 80

        v_{f} (- 1.0812) = - 80

        v_{f} = 73.99

        v_{f} = 74 m/s

now we can calculate the force

          F = 3.111 73.99

          F = 230 N

Answer:

-50N

Explanation:

F=ma=m(Vf-Vi)/t

F=(10)(-10)/(2)=-50N

So the force acting on the block is -50N, where the negative sign simply tells us that the force is opposite to the direction of movement.

Answer:

1) θ = 0.00118 rad, 2)  θ = 0.00236 rad , 3) I / I₀ = 0.1738, 4)  I / Io = 0.216

Explanation:

In the double-slit interference phenomenon it is explained for constructive interference by the equation

          d sin θ = m λ

1) the first order maximum occurs for m = 1

           sin θ = λ  / d

           θ = sin⁻¹ λ  / d

let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

           λ  = 520 nm = 520 10⁻⁹  θ = 0.00118 radm

           d = 0.440 mm = 0.440 10⁻³ m ³

let's calculate

           θ = sin⁻¹ (520 10⁻⁹ / 0.44 10⁻³)

            θ = sin⁻¹ (1.18 10⁻³)

            θ = 0.00118 rad

2) the second order maximum occurs for m = 2

            θ = sin⁻¹ (m λ  / d)

            θ = sin⁻¹ (2 5¹20 10⁻⁹ / 0.44 10⁻³)

            θ = 0.00236 rad

3) To calculate the intensity of the interference spectrum, the diffraction phenomenon must be included, so the equation remains

          I = I₀ cos² (π d sin θ /λ ) sinc² (pi b sin θ /λ )

where the function sinc = sin x / x

and b is the width of the slits

we caption the values

             x = π 0.310 10⁻³ sin 0.00118 / 520 10⁻⁹)

             x = 2.21

            I / I₀ = cos² (π 0.44 10⁻³ sin 0.00118 / 520 10⁻⁹) (sin (2.21) /2.21)²

remember angles are in radians

            I / I₀ = cos² (3.0945) [0.363] 2

            I / I₀ = 0.9978 0.1318

            I / I₀ = 0.1738

4) the maximum second intensity is

            I / I₀ = cos² (π d sinθ / λ) sinc² (πb sin θ /λ)

            x =π 0.310 10⁻³ sin 0.00236 / 520 10⁻⁹)

            x = 4.41

            I / Io = cos² (π 0.44 10⁻³ sin 0.00236 / 520 10⁻⁹) (sin 4.41 / 4.41)²

            I / Io = cos² 6.273    0.216

            I / Io = 0.216

.

Answer:

A. magnetic field

Explanation:

The magnetic field is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire because of the magnetic effect of the electric current therefore the correct answer is option A .

A magnetic field could be understood as an area around a magnet, magnetic material, or an electric charge in which magnetic force is exerted.

As given in the problem statement we have to find out what is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire.

The magnetic field is produced as a result when an electrical current is passed through the conducting wire .

Option A is the appropriate response because a wire's magnetic field is created when an electrical current flows through it due to the magnetic influence of the electric current .

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#SPJ6

Answer:

True or False

Explanation:

Because.....

easy 50% chance you are right

Answer:

2.2nC

Explanation:

Call the amount by which the spring’s unstretched length L,

the amount it stretches while hanging x1

and the amount it stretches while on the table x2.

Combining Hooke’s law with Newton’s second law, given that the stretched spring is not accelerating,

we have mg−kx1 =0, or k = mg /x1 , where k is the spring constant. On the other hand,

applying Coulomb’s law to the second part tells us ke q2/ (L+x2)2 − kx2 = 0 or q2 = kx2(L+x2)2/ke,

where ke is the Coulomb constant. Combining these,

we get q = √(mgx2(L+x2)²/x1ke =2.2nC

Answer:

-0.73mA

Explanation:

Using amphere's Law

ε =−dΦB/ dt

=−(2.6T)·(7.30·10−4 m2)/ 1.00 s

=−1.9 mV

Using ohms law

ε=V =IR

I = ε/ R =−1.9mV/ 2.60Ω =−0.73mA

Explanation:

Pressure is the same for both plungers.

P = P

F / A = F / A

F / (¼ π d²) = F / (¼ π d²)

F / d² = F / d²

5 N / (0.05 m)² = F / (1 m)²

F = 2000 N

None of the options are correct.

Answer:

the net work is zero

Explanation:

Work is defined by the expression

        W = F. ds

Bold type indicates vectors

In this problem, the friction force does not decrease, therefore it will be zero.

Consequently for work on a closed path it is zero.

The work in going from the initial point (0, 0, 0) to the end of each segment is positive and when it returns from the point of origin the angle is 180º, therefore the work is negative, consequently the net work is zero

Answer:

c. 70 Ω

Explanation:

The R and R resistors are in parallel.  The 2R and 2R resistors are in parallel.  The 4R and 4R resistors are in parallel.  Each parallel combination is in series with each other.  Therefore, the equivalent resistance is:

Req = 1/(1/R + 1/R) + 1/(1/2R + 1/2R) + 1/(1/4R + 1/4R)

Req = R/2 + 2R/2 + 4R/2

Req = 3.5R

Req = 70Ω

Answer:

1) a block going down a slope

2) a) W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE, b) W = ΔE, c)  W = ΔK, d) ΔU = ΔK

Explanation:

In this exercise you are asked to give an example of various types of systems

1) a system where work is transformed into internal energy is a system with friction, for example a block going down a slope in this case work is done during the descent, which is transformed in part kinetic energy, in part power energy and partly internal energy that is represented by an increase in the temperature of the block.

2)

a) rolling a ball uphill

In this case we have an increase in potential energy, if there is a change in speed, the kinetic energy also increases, if the change in speed is zero, there is no change in kinetic energy and there is a change in internal energy due to the stationary rec in the point of contact

 W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE

b) in this system work is transformed into internal energy

      W = ΔE

c) There is no friction here, therefore the work is transformed into kinetic energy

    W = ΔK

d) if you assume that there is no friction with the air, the potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy

      ΔU = ΔK

Answer:

a force that moves an object

Explanation:

the formula for work is force * distance

This question involves the concepts of work, force, and displacement.

The statement that best identifies the requirements for work to be performed is "a force that moves an object".

Work is defined as the product of force applied on an object and the distance moved by the object. Mathematically,

Work = (Force)(Displacement)

Hence, both the applied force and the displacement of the object as a result of the application of the force is necessary for the work to be done. If any one of these values becomes zero, the work automatically becomes zero, which means no work is performed.

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Answer:

602.27 kg

Explanation:

The computation of the largest mass of cargo the balloon can lift is shown below:-

Volume of helium inside the ballon= (4 ÷ 3) × π × r^3

= (4 ÷ 3) × 3.14 × 6.953

= 1406.19 m3

Mass the balloon can carry = volume × (density of air-density of helium)

= 1406.19 × (1.29-0.179)

= 1562.27 kg

Mass of cargo it can carry = Mass it can carry - Mass of structure

= 1562.27 - 960

= 602.27 kg

Answer:

A) 0.4 mA

B) 0.03 mA

Explanation:

Given that

voltage source, V = 120 V

to solve this question, we would be using the very basic Ohms Law, that voltage is proportional to the current and the resistance passing through the circuit, if temperature is constant.

mathematically, Ohms Law, V = IR

V = Voltage

I = Current

R = Resistance

from question a, we were given 300kΩ, substituting this value of resistance in the equation, we have

120 = I * 300*10^3 Ω

making I the subject of the formula,

I = 120 / 300000

I = 0.0004 A

I = 0.4 mA

Question said, currents above 10 mA causes involuntary muscle contraction, this current is way below 10 mA, so nothing happens.

B, we have Resistance, R = 4000kΩ

Substituting like in part A, we have

120 = I * 4000*10^3 Ω

I = 120 / 4000000

I = 0.00003 A

I = 0.03 mA

This also means nothing happens, because 0.03 mA is very much lesser compared to in the 10 mA

The current through a person will be:

a) 0.4 mA

b) 0.03 mA

Given:

Voltage, V = 120 V

It states that the voltage or potential difference between two points is directly proportional to the current or electricity passing through the resistance, and directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.

Ohms Law, V = I*R

where,

V = Voltage

I = Current

R = Resistance

a)

Given: Resistance=  300kΩ

[tex]120 = I * 300*10^3 ohm\\\\I = 120 / 300000\\\\I = 0.0004 A[/tex]

Thus, current will be, I = 0.4 mA

b)

Given: R = 4000kΩ

[tex]120 = I * 4000*10^3 ohm\\\\I = 120 / 4000000\\\\I = 0.00003 A[/tex]

Thus, current will be, I = 0.03 mA

From calculations, we observe that nothing happens, because 0.03 mA is very much lesser compared to in the 10 mA.

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Answer: Only Tech B is correct.

Explanation:

First, tech A is wrong.

The circuits that can be compared with links in a chain are the series circuit, and it can be related to the links in a chain because if one of the elements breaks, the current can not flow furthermore (because the elements in the circuit are connected in series) while in a parallel circuit if one of the branches breaks, the current still can flow by other branches.

Also in a parallel circuit, the sum of the currents of each path is equal to the current that comes from the source, so Tech B is correct, the total current is equal to the sum of the currents flowing in each branch of the circuit.

Answer:

a

   [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

b

  [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  spring constant is  [tex]k = 14 \ N/m[/tex]

     The  maximum extension of the spring is  [tex]A = 6.0 \ cm = 0.06 \ m[/tex]

     The number of oscillation is  [tex]n = 30[/tex]

      The  time taken is  [tex]t = 20 \ s[/tex]

Generally the the angular speed of this oscillations is mathematically represented as

           [tex]w = \frac{2 \pi}{T}[/tex]

where T is the period which is mathematically represented as

     [tex]T = \frac{t}{n}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]T = \frac{20}{30 }[/tex]

     [tex]T = 0.667 \ s[/tex]

Thus  

       [tex]w = \frac{2 * 3.142 }{ 0.667}[/tex]

       [tex]w = 9.421 \ rad/s[/tex]

this angular speed can also be represented mathematically as

       [tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m} }[/tex]

=>   [tex]m =\frac{k }{w^2}[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]m =\frac{ 15 }{(9.421)^2}[/tex]

      [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

In SHM (simple harmonic motion )the equation for velocity is  mathematically represented as

        [tex]v = - Awsin (wt)[/tex]

The  velocity is maximum when  [tex]wt = \(90^o) \ or \ 1.5708\ rad[/tex]

     [tex]v_{max} = - A* w[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= A* w[/tex]

=>    [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.06 * 9.421[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

statement 1 with answer C

statement 2 with answer F

statement 3 with answer B

Statement 1 with E

Statement 2 with A

Statement 3 with D

Explanation:

In this exercise you are asked to relate each with the answers

In general, in the optics diagram,

* Ray 1 is a horizontal ray that after stopping by the optical system goes to the focal point

* Ray 2 is a ray that passes through the intercept point between the optical axis and the system and does not deviate

* Ray 3 is a ray that passes through the focal length and after passing the optical system, it comes out horizontally.

With these statements, let's review the answers

statement 1 with answer C

statement 2 with answer F

statement 3 with answer B

Statement 1 with E

Statement 2 with A

Statement 3 with D

Answer:

A) 1.5 V

B) 4.5 V

Explanation:

A) Batteries in parallel have the same voltage as an individual battery.

V = 1.5 V

B) Batteries in series have a voltage equal to the sum of the individual batteries.

V = 1.5 V + 1.5 V + 1.5 V

V = 4.5 V

Answer:

C

They allow light to pass only if their directions of polarizations are exactly 90° apart.

Answer:

your question answer is 22°

Answer:

b. The current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction.

Explanation:

When a magnet falls through a loop of wire, it induces an induced current on the loop of wire. This induced current is due to the motion of the magnet through the loop, which cause a change in the flux linkage of the magnet. According to Lenz law, the induced current acts in such a way as to repel the force or action that produces it. For this magnet, the only opposition possible is to stop its fall by inducing a like pole on the wire loop to repel its motion down. An induced current that flows counterclockwise in the wire loop has a polarity that is equivalent to a north pole on a magnet, and this will try to repel the motion of the magnet through the coil. Also, when the magnet goes pass the wire loop, this induced north pole will try to attract the south end of the magnet, all in a bid to stop its motion downwards.

The current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction. Hence, option (b) is correct.

The given problem is based on the concept and fundamentals of magnetic bars. When a magnet falls through a loop of wire, it induces an induced current on the loop of wire. There is some magnitude of current induced in the wire.

Thus, we can say that the current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction. Hence, option (b) is correct.

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Answer:

c. 1.11 m/s down

Explanation:

Momentum is conserved.

m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂

Assuming the balloon and projectile are originally at rest:

(90 kg) (0 m/s) + (10 kg) (0 m/s) = (90 kg) v + (10 kg) (10 m/s)

0 kg m/s = (90 kg) v + 100 kg m/s

v = -1.11 m/s