outline the process of transcription in the nucleus including the
Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three steps of transcription that are depicted here. Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three stages of transcription.
What are the four steps in the transcription process?The process of copying DNA to create a complementary strand of RNA is called transcription. After that, RNA is translated to become proteins. Initiation, promoter removal, elongation, and termination are the four main phases of transcription.
In what transcription does the nucleus engage?Transcription takes place in the cell's nucleus since the genes are bound there, but the mRNA transcript needs to be delivered to the cytoplasm. In prokaryotes, which include bacteria and archaea, transcription takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell since these organisms lack organelles and membrane-bound nuclei.
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Describe two patterns of complex inheritance and explain how they are different from mendelian.
A male who is colorblind and blooms, as well as a male who is colorblind and a normal female, are two examples of complicated inheritance patterns. There are recessive and dominant genes, according to one of Mendelian's rules. Only the dominant allele will be present if they are combined and generate a heterozygote.
One of the Mendelian laws (the third) states that each gene has both a dominant and recessive allele, and that if these two alleles are inherited together and create a heterozygote (one from the mother, one from the father), only the dominant allele's characteristic will be displayed.
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the theory of endosymbiosis and history of life on earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of other plant species bacterial species other tree species
The theory of endosymbiosis and the history of life on earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of other bacterial species (Option II).
What is the theory of endosymbiosis?The theory of endosymbiosis is a model to explain the origin of eukaryotic cells, which postulates that these types of organisms evolved as a consequence of symbiotic relationships between primitive bacterial cells that converted into mitochondria and chloroplasts in animals and plants.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the theory of endosymbiosis is based on the scientific idea that eukaryotic cells as observed in plants and animals generated due to symbiosis with primitive bacterial cells that entered into the cell and performed cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
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a retiree, tired of minnesota winters, moves to tucson, arizona. he hopes the warm dry climate will ease his chronic respiratory problems. he soon experiences a new kind of weather, a massive dust storm. with which of the following fungi might he become infected? group of answer choices paracoccidioides brasiliensis coccidioides immitis histoplasma capsulatum blastomyces dermatitidis aspergillus fumigatus
In a massive dust storm, the retiree might become infected with b) Coccidioides immitis.
Coccidioides immitis is a fungus that lives in dry soil. In the scenario mentioned in the question, as the condition of the Tuscon, Arizona are warm and dry, hence in such areas the fungal species Coccidioides immitis will be residing.
In case of a dust storm, the Coccidioides immitis living in the soil will pass into the respiratory tract of the retiree and cause respiratory problems. the fungal infection can be serious as the person would not have been exposed to this fungus before.
The question will correctly be written as:
A retiree, tired of Minnesota winters, moves to Tucson, Arizona. He hopes the warm dry climate will ease his chronic respiratory problems. he soon experiences a new kind of weather, a massive dust storm. With which of the following fungi might he become infected? group of answer choices
a) paracoccidioides brasiliensis
b) coccidioides immitis
c) histoplasma capsulatum
d) blastomyces dermatitidis
e) aspergillus fumigatus
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Covalent modification generally turns off genes by attracting proteins that bind to methylated cytosines and block gene transcription.
a) DNA Methylation
b) miRNA
c) RNAi
d) tRNA
The correct option among the following was DNA Methylation.
define DNA Methylation ?
A biological process called DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to the DNA molecule. Without altering the sequence, methylation can modify the activity of a DNA region. DNA methylation often suppresses gene transcription when it occurs at a gene promoter. DNA methylation plays an important role in a variety of critical processes in mammals, including ageing, cancer, X-chromosome inactivation, genomic imprinting, and transposable element suppression.
Adenine and cytosine are the two nucleobases on which natural, enzymatic DNA methylation occurs as of 2016. N6-methyladenine[1], 5-methylcytosine[2], and N4-methylcytosine are the modified bases. [3]
The DNA nucleotide cytosine is methylated to create 5-methylcytosine at position 5 on the pyrimidine ring. This is the same place that separates thymine from the homologous RNA base uracil, which has no methyl group. 5-Methylcytosine undergoes spontaneous deamination and is changed into thymine. A T:G mismatch emerges from this. If A is substituted for G, the original C:G pair becomes a T:A pair, thus altering a base and producing a mutation. Repair mechanisms then fix it back to the original C:G pair.
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What type of mutation has occurred in the following example?
A.) frameshift mutation (due to deletion)
B.) nonsense mutation
C.) silent mutation
Use screenshot to answer. Which letter choice is correct? A, B, or C? Thank you
the type of mutation is frameshift mutation. Thus option A is correct.
what is frameshift mutation ?
A frameshift mutation is defined as the process of insertion or deletion of nucleotide base which are not multiples of three.
This is important type of mutation because a cell reads a gene's code in groups of three bases when making a protein.
It is caused by the addition or deletion of one or more base pairs in the DNA of a gene resulting in the translation in an unnatural reading frame from the position of the mutation to the end of the gene.
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art-labeling activity main nerves of the brachial plexus
The art-labeling activity main nerves of the brachial plexus is given in the image attached.
How many nerves does the brachial plexus have?There are five main nerve branches that branch off from the brachial plexus and travel down the arm: cutaneous nerve of the muscles: flexes muscles in the upper arm at the shoulder and elbow and originates from nerve roots C5 to C7.
The radial, musculocutaneous, median, ulnar, and axillary nerves are the brachial plexus' five terminal branches.
Note that the network of nerves called the brachial plexus is what carries signals from the spinal cord to the shoulder, arm, and hand. A brachial plexus injury happens when these nerves are compressed, stretched, or in the most severe scenarios, torn apart or severed from the spinal cord.
Therefore, one can say that for the motor and sensory innervation of the upper extremities, including the shoulder, arm, and hand, the brachial plexus is said to be a significant network of nerves that transmits signals.
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which of the following tactile receptors is found in the dermal papillae? identification of tactile receptors which of the following tactile receptors is found in the dermal papillae? identification of tactile receptors tactile disc ruffini corpuscle free nerve endings tactile corpuscle
Meissner corpuscle or tactile corpuscle is the tactile receptor found in the dermal papillae.
Professor Georg Meissner and Professor Rudolf Wagner initially identified Meissner corpuscles, often referred to as Wagner-Meissner corpuscles or tactile corpuscles, as a subset of mechanoreceptors in 1852. These unique encapsulated nerve terminals transmit low-frequency vibration and fine touch sensations to the central nervous system from the dermal papillae of glabrous skin (CNS). Meissner corpuscles are crucial for somatosensory acuity, particularly in the palmar skin and digital extremities. This has clinical implications for diabetic neuropathy, peripheral neuropathy, and the aging-related deterioration of dermatological tactile sense.
Meissner corpuscles are ellipsoid mechanoreceptors that are situated 150 micrometres superficially within the dermal papillae. The corpuscles have a long axis that is perpendicular to the skin's surface and are between 20 and 40 micrometres in diameter and 80 and 150 micrometres in length. Less than three corpuscles per papilla, with one corpuscle every two to four dermal papillae. The site of genesis affects the receptors' size and density.
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lactic acid was generated by the leg muscles after a bunch of hard squats and is now circulating in the blood which of the following is likely to occur as a compensation of this lactic acid buildup
The following are likely to occur as a compensation of lactic acid buildup:
Decreased urinary pHIncreased H+ in bloodIncreased hyperventilationIncreased H+ selectionWhat is lactic acid?
Red blood cells and muscle cells are the principal producers of lactic acid. When oxygen levels are low, it develops when the body metabolizes carbohydrates for energy.
In the body, lactic acid serves three basic purposes:
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Answer and match them
Answer:
Answered (?)
Explanation:
1. C
2. E (?)
3. F
4. D
5. B
6. A
I wasn't sure about E because for me I would say that means 'extinction' but that's not an answer, I tried my best and hope this helps!
if a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble _____.
If a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble respiring and feeding.
What are the tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits?The tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits are a series of structures within this taxonomic group that function in order to make the process of respiration and feeding possible by filtering substances in the aquatic environment.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits play a fundamental role in filtering substances.
Complete question:
Fill in the blank. If a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble___.
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where would you find iron regulatory protein (irps)? group of answer choices cytosol nucleus mitochondria golgi apparatus
Similar to how iron is imported and transported within cells, mitochondrial iron import and transport are tightly controlled, careful processes intended to prevent undesired.
Which of these are hollow rods that help the cell form and are supported?The third main component of the cytoskeleton, microtubules, are hard, hollow rods with a diameter of around 25 nm. Microtubules are dynamic, constantly assembling and disassembling within the cell, much like actin filaments.
What form does the packaging and modification of proteins take?Figure 1: Proteins are modified and organized for transport within the cell by the Golgi apparatus. In cells, the Golgi apparatus and ER are frequently found together.
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transduction refers to conversion of
Answer:
one form of energy into another
Explanation:
Which of the following is NOT a result of increased ATP in the pancreatic beta cell?
Group of answer choices
insulin release
vesicle fusion
potassium release
calcium intake
Vesicle fusion is NOT a result of increased ATP in the pancreatic beta cell.
What is ATP?
Cells consume and store energy from adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the energy source. An adenine-based nitrogenous base, ribose sugar, and three serially bound phosphate groups make up the nucleoside triphosphate structure of ATP.
When macromolecules like proteins and lipids are moved into and out of the cell, ATP is an essential component of the process. Active transport mechanisms that move these molecules over a concentration gradient are powered by the energy released during ATP hydrolysis.
Therefore, Vesicle fusion is NOT a result of increased ATP in the pancreatic beta cell.
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Which of the following processes correctly describes alternative RNA spiling?
O It can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAS.
O lt is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transation.
O It increases the rate of transcription.
O It can allow the production of protens of different sizes and functions strom a single mPRA
Answer: d
Explanation:
catabolic pathways _____.
include converting complicated molecules into smaller ones through a process known as degradation.
What is the catabolic route used for?Nutrient molecules are broken down into useable forms by catabolic pathways (Food: A, B, C) (building blocks).In the this process, energy would either be released as heat or is stored into usable energy for later use.
What sort of catabolic route is that?The breakdown of food by several enzymes so it can be taken by small bowel is an illustration of a catabolic response.
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During the cell cycle, the cell divides its nucleus and chromosomes during. The cytoplasm and cell membrane divide during. Before the cell can divide again, it must grow and synthesize proteins during the phase and duplicate its chromosomes during the phase.
During the mitotic (M) phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells. M phase involves two distinct division-related processes: mitosis and cytokinesis.
The fluidy substance that fills a cell's inside is called cytoplasm. Salts, water, and numerous organic compounds make up its composition. Membranes surround some intracellular organelles, such as the nucleus and mitochondria, and keep them from coming into contact with the cytoplasm. One cell (the mother) splits into two genetically identical new cells (the daughters) during the process of mitosis, a kind of cell division. In the context of the cell cycle, mitosis refers to the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.
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classify each mutation example as definitely positive, definitely negative, or most likely neutral. each category has two examples. you are currently in a sorting module. turn off browse mode or quick nav, tab to items, space or enter to pick up, tab to move, space or enter to drop. beneficial mutations neutral mutations harmful mutations answer bank
A beneficial mutation is one that has a good effect on an organism. These mutations are uncommon yet important. The benefit that a beneficial mutation provides the organism is passed down from generation to generation, increasing the chances of survival for the offspring.
Neutral mutations:
Neutral mutations are changes in DNA sequence that are neither beneficial nor harmful to an organism's ability to survive and reproduce. In population genetics, neutral mutations are mutations in which natural selection has no effect on the spread of the mutation in a species.
Harmful mutations: Mutations that are harmful can result in genetic diseases or cancer. A genetic condition is an illness that results from a mutation in one or more genes. Cystic fibrosis is a human example. A single gene mutation causes the body to produce thick, sticky mucus, which clogs the lungs and blocks ducts in digestive organs.
What is mutation?
A mutation is a change in an organism's DNA sequence. Mutations can occur as a result of errors in DNA replication during cell division, mutagen exposure, or viral infection.
What causes mutation?
Mutations can occur as a result of mistakes in DNA replication during cell division, mutagen exposure, or viral infection. Germline mutations (those that occur in eggs and sperm) can be handed on to offspring, but somatic mutations (those that originate in body cells) cannot.
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Full Question: Classify each mutation example as definitely positive, definitely negative, or most likely neutral. Each category has two examples.
In an asexual life cycle, cells reproduce by meiosis. fertilization. All of the answer choices are correct. meiosis and fertilization. mitosis.
Answer:
k
Explanation:
what feature of fats makes them hydrophobic
early hominin species, such as ardipithecus ramidus and australopithecus afarensis, evolved during the late epoch.
The earliest hominin species (such as Australopithecus) evolved during the late Pliocene epoch.
The geologic period known as the Pliocene spans from 5.333 million to 2.58 million years ago. In the Cenozoic Era, it is the second and most recent epoch of the Neogene Period.
The Miocene Epoch is followed by the Pliocene, which is then followed by the Pleistocene.
Despite being a brief epoch, the Pliocene saw enormous occurrences including the formation of ice caps, the drying of the Mediterranean, and the union of the Americas.
From a biogeographic perspective, this period is distinguished by the dramatically modernisation of animals.
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_____ provides employees with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use in their present jobs. a. Development b. Recruiting c. Networking d. Training
Answer:
D
Explanation:
What would happen to a cell that didn’t replicate its dna before cell division?
The cell will not proceed with the further processes.
What is equational division?
Chromosome replication and equal distribution between the two daughter cells occur during the cell division process known as mitosis. Each daughter cell has the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, making them diploid. Thus, mitosis is also referred to as equational division.
Unequal division will result if the cell didn't replicate prior to actually cell division. As a result of the checkpoints, it won't move on to the next step. The checkpoint will later start the apoptosis process, which results in programmed cell death.
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arginase, a key enzyme in liver urea production, requires four ____ atoms per molecule. group of answer choices iron copper zinc manganese
Ceruloplasmin is one illustration; it has eight copper atoms per molecule. Copper and zinc provide as examples of the needs for and toxicity of important trace elements.
What trace mineral is necessary for gluconeogenesis' primary enzyme to be activated?Manganese is a trace mineral that functions as a cofactor for enzymes that produce urea, cholesterol, and glucose (gluconeogenesis) (amino-acid catabolism in the liver).
Which Micromineral is deemed crucial for healthy brain function?The liver, kidney, pancreas, and bones are where manganese is primarily deposited. and contributes to the regulation of blood sugar, calcium absorption, and fat and carbohydrate metabolism. For healthy nerve and brain function, manganese is also essential.
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classify the effector muscle involved in the response to the stretch reflex being tested by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.
Patellar reflex: Quadriceps femoris, Calcaneal reflex: Gastrocnemius and Soleus, Biceps reflex: Biceps brachii, Triceps reflex: Triceps brachii, Plantar reflex: Gastrocnemius, Soleus and Flexor digitorum longus.
A reflex is an uncontrollable movement that happens very instantly in reaction to stimuli. The reflex, which happens through a reflex arc, is an involuntary reaction to a stimulus that doesn't require or receive conscious cognition. Before an impulse reaches the brain, reflex arcs respond to it. examines descending motor pathways, motor nerves, synaptic connections in the spinal cord, and afferent nerves. Reflexes are suppressed by lower motor neuron lesions (such as those that damage the anterior horn cell, spinal root, or peripheral nerve) and are increased by upper motor neuron lesions. The amount of CNS damage may be determined by stimulating the abdominal reflex, which is done by massaging the belly.
The complete question is:
Classify the effector muscle involved in the response to the stretch reflex being tested by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.
(A). Patellar reflex:
(B). Calcaneal reflex:
(C). Biceps reflex:
(D). Triceps reflex:
(E). Plantar reflex:
The options are Quadriceps femoris, Soleus, Biceps brachii, Triceps brachii, Gastrocnemius, Soleus, and Flexor digitorum longus.
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Researchers performing __________ insert a weak electric current into the brain to stimulate it. a. lesioning b. esb c. eeg d. pet please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
Researchers performing ESB technique insert a weak electric current into the brain to stimulate it.
What does ESB contain in psychology?
Electrical stimulation of the mind (ESB) is a method which includes the creation of a susceptible electric modern into precise places withinside the mind via way of means of the use of more than one microelectrode to use brief pulses of electrical currents supposed to imitate the herbal glide of impulses via the neural pathways.
What contribution do ESBs make to our understanding of the brain?
Electrical brain stimulation (ESB) is useful in a variety of settings, including neurosurgery and experimental research. Neurosurgeons can use this procedure to help doctors determine which brain tissue needs to be removed.
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which bones unite to form the highlighted bone?
The highlighted bone is named the sternum. The sternum, which lies in the middle of the chest, is where the ribs connect to the body.
Which joint does the humerus's highlighted bone form?The humeral head's ball and glenoid's socket connect at the glenohumeral joint. The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles' tendons make up the rotator cuff, which joins the humerus to the scapula. Muscle and bone are joined via tendon.
What develops in the indicated curvature?When a child is able to sit up on their own, the lumbar curvature that is highlighted begins to develop. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation.
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The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________.
A. Muscularis mucosae
B. Serosa
C. Adventitia
D. Lamina propria
The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the Lamina propria (Option D).
What are the capillary blood vessels?The capillaries are small vessels capable of transporting oxygen and nutrients to all cells of the body in order to perform cellular respiration, which is fundamental to obtaining energy in the form of ATP.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the small capillary blood vessels that lie in the lamina propria and other tissues in the body are required to transport both oxygen and nutrients.
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what is the complete hemoglobin molecule composed of
The complete hemoglobin molecule is composed of the following below:
Polypeptide chains (globins)Heme groupsIron ions.What is Hemoglobin?This is referred to as a type of protein which is present in the red blood cells of almost all organisms and it comprises of heme groups and iron ions which ensures that it functions adequately in the body system.
It has a very high affinity for oxygen and is responsible for binding and transporting it to different parts of the body such as the brain, legs etc so as to prevent cell death which makes it a very important compound in the circulatory system.
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Which is not true about all
of these elements?
Answer:
A. They are all in the same group B. They all have the same number of valence electrons C. They all have the same number of protons D. They all share similar properties
Explanation:
