based on your knowledge of microtubule dynamics, suggest why both drugs are toxic to dividing cells despite their opposite actions.

Answers

Answer 1

One of the most effective groups of cancer chemotherapeutic medications currently used in clinics targets microtubules and interferes with the mitotic spindle's normal activity. There is growing evidence that even small changes in microtubule dynamics can activate the spindle checkpoint, halting the cell cycle at mitosis and ultimately causing cell death.

A new era in cancer treatment has been made possible by our growing understanding of tumor biology and our continuous respect for the capabilities of microtubule target agents (MTAs). However, a number of side effects and drug resistance have reduced the usefulness of these drugs for the treatment of cancer. In addition to resistance to the known MTAs, a number of novel MTAs have demonstrated significant action against the proliferation of various cancer cells. More effective therapy alternatives for cancer patients might be made available by continuing research into the mechanisms of action of MTAs, the creation and discovery of new medicines, and the examination of novel treatment modalities that lessen side effects and get around drug resistance. This review focuses on the successful use of natural chemicals in cancer chemotherapy in clinical settings

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Related Questions

A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the top layer.

Answers

A single thin layer of flattened cells to irregular boundaries makes up simple squamous epithelium. Those who line the walls of blood vessels and the lungs' air sacs. They also participate in physiological processes such as osmosis and diffusion.

A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the topmost layer. Cuboidal or columnar cells may be found in the deeper layers. Some stratified squamous epithelia are heavily keratinized, while others are barely or not at all.

Squamous cells are thin, flat cells that resemble fish scales and are found in the skin's surface, the lining of hollow organs, and the lining of a respiratory and digestive tracts.  Protective functions of stratified squamous epithelium include protection against microorganisms invading underlying tissue and/or protection against water loss. A single basal layer contains stem cells, 2-3 layers of proliferative basaloid cells in the suprabasal region, as well as larger keratinized cells near the surface.

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list different types of water soluble and fat soluble vitamins then write their name

Answers

Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed along with fats in the diet and are stored in the body’s fatty tissue and in the liver.

What is Fat soluble vitamins?

They are found in many plant and animal foods and in dietary supplements. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble. Vitamin A plays a key role in maintaining your vision.

Vitamin A is not a single compound. Rather, it is a group of fat-soluble compounds collectively known as retinoids.

The most common dietary form of vitamin A is retinol. Other forms — retinal and retinoic acid — are found in the body, but absent or rare in foods.

Therefore, Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed along with fats in the diet and are stored in the body’s fatty tissue and in the liver.

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A nerve that receives sensory information from the hip and leg and sends motor information to skeletal muscles in those same regions would _____________. Select all that apply.
A
possess an integrative function
B
help analyze the sensory information
C
include aspects of the brain and spinal cord
D
be part of the peripheral nervous system
E
consists of both afferent and efferent neurons

Answers

A nerve that receives sensory information from the hip and leg and sends motor information to skeletal muscles in those same regions would include aspects of the brain and spinal cord (C) be part of the peripheral nervous system (D).

What is the type of nerve that provides signals to and from the skeletal muscles?The somatic motor division carries signals to the skeletal muscles. The visceral motor division, also known as the autonomic nervous system, carries signals to glands, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. It can be further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.Somatic MNs was part of skeletal muscles. Somatic MNs are located in the Rexed lamina IX in the brainstem and the spinal cord and innervate skeletal muscles responsible for movements.

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how do the functions of the cells relate to their number of nuclei?

Answers

The nucleus carries the genes, structures that hold the genetic information, and controls and regulates the functions of the cell such as growth and metabolism.

What is a cell?

The smallest unit in biology that can sustain life on its own and makes up all living things as well as the body's tissues. The cell membrane, the nucleus, and the cytoplasm are the three primary components of a cell. The substances that enter and leave the cell are governed by the cell membrane, which encloses the cell.

According to genomics, a cell's membrane-enclosed organelle that houses the chromosomes is called a nucleus. Certain molecules (including proteins and nucleic acids) can enter and exit the nucleus in a selective manner thanks to a network of pores in the nuclear membrane.

This Illustrates the concept of how the functions of the cells relate to their number of nuclei.

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a temperature much higher than the optimal temperature for a particular enzyme is likely to the activity and reaction rate of the enzyme due to in the size and shape of the enzyme's active site.
a. true
b. false

Answers

False a temperature significantly higher than the ideal temperature for a specific enzyme is likely to affect the enzyme's activity & reaction rate due to differences in the active site's size and shape.

What does the word "enzyme" mean?

A component known as an enzyme works as a catalysts in living things to speed up chemical reactions without undergoing any changes. Enzymes manage the majority of the chemical reactions that make up the biological activities that take place inside of all living things.

How do enzymes operate?

Reduced activation energy, or the quantity of energy required for a reaction to start, is a crucial function of enzymes. In order to facilitate the bond-forming and bond-breaking processes in chemical reactions, reactant molecules must bind to enzymes in order for them to hold the reactant molecules.

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Some antimicrobials are initially synthesized by a microorganism and then modified by pharmaceutical companies to improve their properties. These would be referred to as a)semisynthetics. b)antibiotics. c)chemosynthetic agents. d)synthetics.

Answers

The correct answer is  b)antibiotics. Some antimicrobials are initially synthesized by a microorganism and then modified by pharmaceutical companies to improve their properties.

Antibiotics are drugs used to treat bacterial illnesses in both people and animals. They do this by either killing the germs or by making it harder for them to develop and reproduce. Germs are bacteria. They are everywhere in our bodies, both inside and outside, and in the surroundings. The most common varieties of antibiotics are: Penicillins, such as flucloxacillin, amoxicillin, and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Cephalosporins, such as cefadroxil, cefalexin, and cefaclor. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, lymecycline, and tetracycline. One of the strongest antibiotics ever developed is vancomycin 3.0. It is used to treat illnesses like endocarditis, joint infections, bloodstream infections, and skin infections brought on by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

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Which choice below briefly describes the Kirby-Bauer method of antimicrobic sensitivity testing? Multiple Choice - Broth disk elution - Disk diffusion - Minimal inhibitory concentration testing - Broth dilution

Answers

The correct choice is

b. Disc diffusion.

The Kirby-Bauer method for testing antimicrobial susceptibility, Is also known as the disc diffusion method.

It is a method for testing the susceptibility of bacteria to antimicrobial agents.

A disc impregnated with a specific antimicrobial agent is placed on a solid agar plate inoculated with the bacteria to be tested. The antimicrobial agent diffuses out of the disc into the surrounding medium and the zone of inhibition around the disc can be measured.

This allows researchers to determine the susceptibility of bacteria to antibiotics and select appropriate treatment regimens.

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28. Which two sentences describe the role of dialogue in a play?
Oit describes the characters' actions.
OIt explains the historical context.
It moves the play's plot along.
OIt reveals the characters' motivations.

Answers

Answer:

It moves the play's plot along.

OIt reveals the characters' motivations.

Explanation:

Answer:

It Moves the plays plot along.

Explanation:

If you observed that the sperm of a bull could not fuse in a lab dish with the eggs of a cow, you would say that the bull and the cow showed
• hybrid inviability.
• gametic isolation.
• temporal isolation.
• hybrid infertility.
• ecological isolation.

Answers

The correct answer is gametic isolation. the sperm of a bull could not fuse in a lab dish with the eggs of a cow.

Prezygotic barriers come in the form of gametic isolation. When the egg and sperm are discharged but a zygote is not created, gametic isolation occurs. The cell formed when an egg and sperm combine is known as a zygote. The word "gamete" describes reproductive cells like sperm and eggs. The separation between white sage and black sage is among the most known instances of mechanical isolation in plants. The two sage species can't interbreed because they depend on distinct pollinators, although having a similar geographic area.Geographical, temporal, reproductive, and behavioural isolation are a few examples. Two sets of creatures must be incapable of conceiving viable offspring in order for them to be regarded as different species.

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A double-slit interference pattern is created by two narrow slits spaced 0.20 mm apart. The distance between the first and the fifth minimum on a screen 58 cm behind the slits is 6.1 mm.What is the wavelength of the light used in this experiment?

Answers

The light utilized in this experiment has a wavelength of 525.86 nm.

Waves that interfere are generated by two coherent sources by double slits. (a) Because the slits are thin, light diffuses (spreads out) from each one. Both constructively (bright lines) and destructively (overlapping and interfering waves) (dark regions). Light passes through two slits, creating new dark areas. The interference of the light traveling through the slits results in the dark and light zones.

Light passing through one slit overlaps with light passing through the other slit as it approaches the screen.

slit separation d = 0.2 mm = 0.2 *   [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] m

distance from the slits  D = 58 cm =0.58 m

The minimal distance behind the slits on a screen between the first and fifth positions is 58 cm, Y = 6.1 mm

   Y = 6.1 * [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] m

condition for 1 st minimum  d sin θ = λ

                                        d( y / D ) = λ

                                            y = λD / d    -----( 1)

condition for 5 th minimum  d sin θ ' = 5λ

                                        d( y ' / D ) = 5λ

                                            y ' = 5λD / d    -----( 2)

given   y ' - y  = Y

[5λD / d] -[λD / d]= Y

4λD / d = Y

from this wavelength of the light  λ = Yd / 4D

                                                   = 525.86 * [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] m

                                                   = 525.86 nm

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1:Phosphorus enters the biosphere through the process of ____________ which produces a bioavailable form of the nutrient.
a: phosphorylation
b: phosphorus fixation
c: weathering of phosphorus containing rocks
d: mycorrhizal fixation
2: Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they:
a: are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.
b: allow for the cycling of the nutrients within the biosphere.
c: None of these choices are true.
d: are involved in processes that return the nutrients to their major reservoirs.
3: What is the difference between population size and effective population size (Ne)?
a: The effective population size is idealized so that there are more females than males.
b: The effective population size is usually larger than the population size.
c: In effective population size, only the females are counted because you can tell who the offspring are from.
d: In the effective population size, those individuals that do not reproduce are not counted.

Answers

Weathering. Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.

Since the main source of phosphorus is found in rocks, the first step of the phosphorus cycle involves the extraction of phosphorus from the rocks by weathering. Weather events, such as rain and other sources of erosion, result in phosphorus being washed into the soil.Effective population size (Ne) is one of the most important parameter in population genetics and conservation biology. It translates census sizes of a real population into the size of an idealized population showing the same rate of loss of genetic diversity as the real population under study.Ne is defined as the size of an ideal Wright–Fisher population exhibiting the same amount of genetic drift and inbreeding as the population under consideration (Wright, 1931). Ne may be complicated to estimate in most populations because of age structure, generation overlap and iteroparity.

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Evaluate these statements about Koch's postulates, which are used to establish a causative link between a specific microbe and a specific disease. Which of them are true? Select all that apply. The microbe must be present in individuals suffering from the disease and absent from healthy individuals. The microbe does not have to be isolated from the experimental animal as long as the disease is present. If organisms from the pure culture are injected into a healthy experimental animal, the disease symptoms should appear. O The microbe must be isolated and grown in pure culture.

Answers

Koch's postulates used to establish a causative link between a specific microbe and a specific disease include :

1. Microbe should be present in individuals suffering from disease and absent from healthy peoples.

2. If organisms from pure culture are injected into a healthy experimental organism, the disease symptoms must appear.

3. The microbe should be isolated and grown in pure culture.

A disease is a selected bizarre condition that negatively influences the structure or feature of all or a part of an organism, and that isn't right now because of any external injury.

Symptoms of illness are regularly not at once the end result of contamination, but a set of advanced responses – sickness behavior with the aid of the body – that helps clear infection and sell healing.

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Rank each of the following in order of INCREASING electronegativity
*
Fr, Ca, Co
Co, Ca, Fr
Fr, Co, Ca

Answers

Fr < Ca < Co in order of INCREASING electronegativity.

What is electronegativity?

Electronegativity is a measure of the tendency of an atom or molecule to attract electrons to itself. It is a property of atoms and molecules that is related to their electron configuration and is a measure of their ability to attract electrons from other atoms or molecules. Electronegativity is typically expressed on a scale from 0 to 4, with 0 representing the least electronegative and 4 representing the most electronegative. The elements with the highest electronegativity values are fluorine, oxygen, and nitrogen. Electronegativity can be used to predict the type of bond that will occur between two atoms or molecules, with higher electronegativity values indicating more covalent bonds and lower electronegativity values indicating more ionic bonds. Electronegativity is also used to predict the polarity of molecules, with highly electronegative atoms or molecules having an unequal electron distribution and thus being polar.

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oncogenes directly promote cancer by causing unregulated cell proliferation, while tumor suppressor mutations only promote cancer indirectly by causing genetic instability.

Answers

Oncogenes are genes that are involved in the development of cancer. They have the ability to promote cell growth and division, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation.

This results in the formation of a tumor. Tumor suppressor mutations, on the other hand, occur when tumor suppressor genes are either mutated or inactivated. These genes are responsible for regulating cell growth and division, and when they are mutated or inactivated, it can lead to genetic instability, which can eventually lead to tumor formation. Therefore, oncogenes promote cancer directly by causing uncontrolled cell proliferation, while tumor suppressor mutations promote cancer indirectly by causing genetic instability.

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If an allele is_____, only one copy of the allele is needed. if the allele is ____ , two copies are needed.

Answers

If an allele is dominant, only one copy of the allele is needed for it to be expressed in an individual. If the allele is recessive, two copies are needed for it to be expressed in an individual.

A dominant allele is an allele that is expressed in an individual regardless of the presence of another allele on the same gene. This means that if an individual has one dominant allele and one recessive allele, the dominant allele will be expressed in the individual. An example of a dominant allele is the allele for having brown eyes. If an individual has one copy of the brown eye allele, they will have brown eyes regardless of whether they carry another allele for blue eyes or not.

A recessive allele is an allele that is only expressed in an individual when two copies of the allele are present. This means that if an individual has one dominant allele and one recessive allele, the dominant allele will be expressed in the individual and the recessive allele will not. An example of a recessive allele is the allele for having blue eyes. If an individual has one copy of the blue eye allele, they will have brown eyes unless they also have a second copy of the blue eye allele.

The presence of dominant and recessive alleles is the basis for genetic inheritance. Dominant alleles are usually more common than recessive alleles and therefore, the traits associated with dominant alleles are more likely to be expressed in individuals. This means that, in a population, an individual is more likely to have brown eyes than blue eyes.

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Which of the following is/are true statements: O In a positive bacteriological stain, dye does not bind the surface of the cell O Spheres, rods, and spirals are the basic shapes of bacteria O The optical density of a bacterial solution is proportional to the cell concentration O Streak plates spread bacteria so thinly that individual cells are separated from each other O A diluted bacterial suspension is required for successful spread plates

Answers

The following is/are true statements are Spheres, rods, and spirals are the basic shapes of bacteria about the bacteria.

Bacteria are labeled into 5 organizations consistent with their primary shapes: round (cocci), rod (bacilli), spiral (spirilla), comma (vibrios) or corkscrew (spirochaetes). The micro organism are commonly of 4 types: Cocci (round micro organism), Bacilli (rod-formed micro organism), Spirilla (spiral or twisted micro organism), Vibrio(comma-formed).

Individual micro organism can anticipate certainly considered one among 3 primary shapes: round (coccus), rodlike (bacillus), or curved (vibrio, spirillum, or spirochete).Spheres, rods, and spirals are the primary shapes of micro organism.

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Which of the following activities would have the biggest positive impact on a person's cardiorespiratory fitness?
Select one: A. yoga B. walking C. weightlifting D. push-ups

Answers

A. yoga. Yoga practices outperform other aerobic exercises in some cardiorespiratory fitness metrics, according to current CVD preventive guidelines.

Which exercises strengthen the heart and lungs?

Exercises that are "pure" aerobic exercises include walking, jogging, running, cycling, swimming, aerobics, rowing, stair climbing, hiking, cross-country skiing, and many styles of dancing. Sports like tennis, basketball, and soccer can help you get better cardiovascular shape.

Does yoga increase your ability to run?

Yoga is equivalent to modest levels of physical activity, according to a clinical experiment that was published in 2007 in BMC Complementary and Alternative Medicine, and is insufficient to increase cardiovascular fitness.

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2. Which are the three main sources of water pollution?
O municipal, industrial, oil spills
O agricultural, thermal, domestic
O agricultural, municipal, industrial
agricultural, thermal, oil spills

Answers

While farms and fossil fuel power plants are the main causes of diffuse pollution, sewage and waste water treatment are the main point sources of pollution to water (via the air).

What are the top 3 pollutant kinds that have an impact on water quality?

Groundwater pollution, surface water pollution, suspended matter, oil spills, microbiological pollution, chemical water pollution, thermal pollution, and oxygen-depleting pollution are the main types of water pollution. All of them have the potential to introduce toxins and pollutants into our waterways.

What causes water contamination primarily?

Pollutants that contaminate water sources make the water unsafe for drinking, cooking, cleaning, swimming, and other uses. This is known as water contamination. All types of pollution inevitably have an impact.

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Answer:

C. agricultural, municipal, industrial

Explanation:

Hope this helps you

C is right I did the quiz

Cell cycle regulation: proteins• Cell cycle is controlled by cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)- cyclin and CDKs are specific to each checkpoint in each organism- stop progression if things aren't going right- stop cycle at each check point until cyclin/CDK allow progression

Answers

The correct answer is  Any process that controls the series of events by which a cell goes through the cell cycle is known as Cell cycle regulation.

By phosphorylating the target genes, such as the tumour suppressor protein retinoblastoma, the synthesis of cyclin/CDKs regulates the course of the cell cycle (Rb). The activation of cell-cycle checkpoints in response to DNA damage inhibits the activation of cyclins/CDKs, which is activated by mitogenic signals [8]. Protein kinases called cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) depend on a distinct subunit, the cyclin, which supplies the domains necessary for enzymatic activity. In response to various extracellular and intracellular signals, CDKs modify transcription and play significant roles in the regulation of cell division. The groups of protein kinases known as cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) were initially identified for their function in controlling the cell cycle. Additionally, they control mRNA processing, transcription, and nerve cell differentiation.

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Which of these is ATP?
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of two phosphate groups, ribose, and nitrogenous base adenine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, ribose, and nitrogenous base thymine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, ribose, and nitrogenous base adenine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, deoxyribose, and nitrogenous base adenine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, deoxyribose, and nitrogenous base guanine.

Answers

At the cellular level, energy is used and stored as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenine, ribose, and three serially bound phosphate groups make up the structure of ATP, which is a nucleoside triphosphate.

An organic substance known as a nucleotide is composed of three different subunits: a nucleobase, a sugar with five carbons, and a phosphate group. Either ribose or deoxyribose may be the sugar. So a nucleoside with a phosphate group is a nucleotide. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP), a substance made up of adenosine and three phosphate groups, is hydrolyzed by enzymes to provide energy for several biochemical cellular activities. An amino acid is an organic monomer that is used to construct proteins.Chemical energy is the type of energy found in ATP. Chemical energy is a kind of potential energy that is kept in chemical bonds as stored energy. Adenine nucleotides are joined to three phosphate groups to form the molecule known as ATP, or adenosine triphosphate.

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Consider your own personality and those of people you know. What traits do you enjoy in

Answers

Some character traits reveal positive aspects of a person's underlying values or beliefs.

generosity.

integrity.

loyalty.

devoted.

loving.

kindness.

sincerity.

self-control.

_______-__________ lines produce offspring carrying specific parental traits that remain constant
from generation to generation.

Answers

Purebred or true-breeding lines produce offspring carrying specific parental traits that remain constant from generation to generation.

These lines are created by breeding individuals that consistently produce offspring with the same traits. For example, if a purebred line of plants consistently produces offspring with a particular flower color, then all of the plants in that line will have that flower color. Similarly, if a purebred line of animals consistently produces offspring with a particular coat color, then all of the animals in that line will have that coat color. Purebred lines are used in many areas of biology, including agriculture, animal breeding, and biomedical research.

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What would be a reasonable outcome following the complete disappearance of wolves? Gray wolf Red fox Pronghorn Coyote Vole Snowshoe hare Grass, willow, berries O a Coyotes may increase because one of their primary predators is gone ob Coyotes may decline because they eat wolves c. Voles may decline as coyotes become less abundant O d. Grass, willow, and berries will increase as more elk become available

Answers

A reasonable outcome following the complete disappearance of wolves is that Coyotes may increase because one of their primary predators is gone which is therefore denoted as option B.

What is a Predator?

This is referred to as a type of organism that primarily obtains food by the killing and consuming of other organisms which is therefore why they are referred to as consumers.

In the food chain given, the wolves are the predators of coyotes which is therefore why when they are absent, it will lead to a corresponding increase in the coyote thereby making it the correct choice.

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Select the mechanism(s) where the concentration of the nucleophile or base has no effect on the reaction rate. a.E1 b.E2 c.SN2 d.S1

Answers

The mechanisms where the concentration of the nucleophile or base has no effect on the reaction rate are E1, E2, dan SN2.

Thus, the correct answers are A, B, and C.

Reаctions in which the concentrаtion of Nucleophile or Bаse hаs no effect on the rаte of reаction depends only on the concentrаtion of substrаte. Such reаctions аre cаlled unimoleculаr substitution or eliminаtion reаctions. The kinetics of such reаction is first order with respect to substrаte.

The mechanisms where the concentration of the nucleophile or base has no effect on the reaction rate are SN* аnd E* becаuse they use cаrbocаtions intermediаtes.

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What is the largest mammal on earth?

Answers

Answer:

The Antarctic blue whale.

Explanation:

Hope it helps!

The Antarctic blue whale

Which landform is created by a river pouring into a larger body of water?
OA. Delta
B. Beach
C. Dune
D. Moraine

Answers

A. Delta is the answer

given our knowledge of hominin evolution, evolutionary biologists have already predicted what future human evolution will look like. t/f

Answers

It is true that given our knowledge of hominin evolution, evolutionary biologists have already predicted what future human evolution will look like.

We will probably live longer, get taller, and have smaller bodies. Despite having smaller brains, we will probably be less aggressive and more agreeable. We'll be friendly and happy, but maybe not very interesting, like a golden retriever. That, at least, is one potential future.

Thomas Mailund, an associate professor of bioinformatics at Aarhus University in Denmark, suggests that we might then evolve to be smaller so that our bodies would require less energy. This would be useful on a planet with a lot of people. Mailund suggests that our evolution might assist us in coping with this. One example: remembering people's names could become a much more valuable skill.

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What is the name of fossil 126

Answers

Answer:

Allosauras is the name of fossil 126

the person who answered this before is correct

Extensive irrigation may contribute to desertification becausethe water dissolves soil nutrients, making them unavailable to plants.water used in irrigation leaves behind toxic substances in the soil.runoff of water leaves silt deposits behind, which reduce the ability of plants to grow.a reduction of water available in the aquifer lowers lake, river, and stream levels.evaporation of water used in irrigation causes salinization of the land, reducing the ability of plants to grow.

Answers

Extensive irrigation may contribute to desertification because evaporation of water used in irrigation causes salinization of the land, reducing the ability of plants to grow.

Thus, the correct answer is E.

What is desertificaion?

Desertificаtion is lаnd degrаdаtion in аrid, semi-аrid, аnd dry sub-humid аreаs, collectively known аs drylаnds, resulting from mаny fаctors, including humаn аctivities аnd climаtic vаriаtions.

While extensive use of wаter from аquifers does creаte mаjor problems, it is evаporаtion of wаter used in irrigаtion thаt cаn leаve behind excess sаlts аnd minerаls, which over time cаn reduce the fertility of the lаnd. The use of drip irrigаtion systems, which reduce wаter usаge, аnd only irrigаting аt night when less of the wаter evаporаtes cаn over time reduce costs, protect the fertility of the lаnd, аnd conserve vаluаble wаter resources.

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Where does photosynthesis occur in a plant?

Answers

Answer:

In plants, photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts, contain the chlorophyll.

Explanation:

Thank you

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