The scenario in which a company has launched a new cell phone that comes with a new model of earphones with the noise-cancellation feature that can be used with older models of phones best illustrates the concept of backward compatibility.
Backward compatibility refers to the ability of a product or technology to work seamlessly with earlier versions of the same product or technology. In this case, the new earphones with noise-cancellation feature can be used with older models of celvokay's phones. This means that customers who have older models of celvokay's phones can use the new earphones without any issues. This shows that celvokay's products are backward compatible.
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which of the following will not function properly if there is a time mismatch error?answerevent logging windows login security certificates program installation
Security certificates won't operate correctly in the event of a time mismatch fault.
What is meant by program installation?Installation methods come in four varieties: direct, parallel, single-location, and phased.In most cases, installation entails copying or creating code (program) from installation files to new files on the local computer so that the operating system can access them more easily, creating the necessary directories, registering environment variables, providing a separate program for uninstallation, etc.An install program also referred to as a "setup program" or "installer," is a piece of software that gets a software package ready for the computer. Unless the app is a standalone utility tool, it is composed of a number of files that are often kept in a hierarchy of folders on the user's computer.To learn more about program installation, refer to:
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what command would you use in ubuntu linux to get permission to install software?
To get permission to install software on Ubuntu Linux, you would need to use the sudo command. Sudo stands for "superuser do" and allows you to execute commands as the superuser or administrator.
Here are the steps to use the sudo command:Open a terminal window by pressing Ctrl+Alt+T on your keyboard.Type in the command you want to run, for example, "sudo apt-get install [package name]".Press Enter on your keyboard.You will be prompted to enter your password. Type in your user password and press Enter.If the password is correct, the command will be executed with administrative privileges, allowing you to install the software.Note: Only use the sudo command for commands that require administrative privileges. Using the sudo command can be dangerous, so it's important to be careful and only use it when necessary.
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select all of the following properties about multidimensional scaling (mds) that are true. group of answer choices A. mds always reduces a high-dimensional space to a 2d projectionB. an mds projection can be rotated and/or reflected without changing how it is interpreted C. mds removes outliers from the dataset, so none appear in the 2d projection each of the points in D. the mds 2d projection correspond to a high-dimensional column from the original dataframe in the 2d projection created by mds, the axes have no meaning in the 2d projection created by mds, the axes correspond to high-dimensional variance axes
The following are the true properties of multidimensional scaling (MDS) in the given question: An MDS projection can be rotated and/or reflected without changing how it is interpreted In the 2D projection created by MDS, the axes correspond to high-dimensional variance axes.
1. An MDS always reduces a high-dimensional space to a 2D projection. This statement is false as MDS can reduce high-dimensional space to 3D projection as well.
2. MDS removes outliers from the dataset, so none appear in the 2D projection. This statement is false.
3. Each of the points in the MDS 2D projection corresponds to a high-dimensional column from the original data frame. This statement is false.
4. In the 2D projection created by MDS, the axes have no meaning. This statement is false. Multidimensional scaling (MDS) is a way to visualize similarities and differences between sets of data points. MDS reduces a high-dimensional dataset to a low-dimensional dataset for visualization purposes. The properties of MDS include that it can be rotated and/or reflected without changing how it is interpreted, and the axes correspond to high-dimensional variance axes in the 2D projection created by MDS.
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which of these is a requirement for a computer to access the internet? i istart text, i, end text. a wired connection using either an ethernet or fiber optic cable ii iistart text, i, i, end text. a monthly payment to the internet engineering task force iii iiistart text, i, i, i, end text. the ability to connect that computer to another internet-connected device
Among the three options, the requirement for a computer to access the internet is a wired connection using either an ethernet or fiber optic cable (option i).
Why is this so?This is because a wired connection allows the computer to connect to a modem or router, which then connects to the internet service provider (ISP) and provides access to the internet.
A monthly payment to the Internet Engineering Task Force (option ii) is not a requirement for accessing the internet. The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) is a standards organization that develops and promotes internet standards, but it does not provide internet access.
The ability to connect that computer to another internet-connected device (option iii) is also not a requirement for accessing the internet, although it may be necessary for some specific applications or scenarios.
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Answer:
lll only
Explanation:
i got it right
you are an employee for asianet solutions,which is an ISP, Rickwell infrastructures has hired asianet solution to establish a network connection in its organization. you gave been sent to its office to stack up the routers,servers,and switches. which of the following options would you use in such a scenario?
A.rack
B. VoIP
C. patch panel
D. Demare
In the given scenario of establishing a network connection in Rickwell infrastructures' office, the option that would be used is option A. rack.
A rack is a metal frame used to stack and organize network equipment such as routers, switches, and servers in a data center or server room.
What is a router?
A router is a networking device that connects multiple networks together, such as connecting a home network to the internet or connecting multiple networks within a larger organization. It directs traffic between these networks by forwarding data packets between them.
A rack is a piece of equipment that is used to hold and organize various types of hardware components such as routers, switches, and servers in a data center or network closet. It is designed to maximize space efficiency, reduce cable clutter, and simplify maintenance and troubleshooting.
A technology called VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) enables customers to place voice and video calls over the internet as opposed to conventional phone lines.
A patch panel is a device that is used to connect multiple network devices together and allows for easy reconfiguration of the network. It is typically used in larger network installations and would not be necessary for setting up a small network in an office.
Demare is not a term or technology related to network hardware installation or configuration.
Therefore, the correct option for this scenario is A. rack.
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you are working in powershell on a windows server 2016 domain controller. you need to create a group managed service account that will be used by a new service that you will install later on the server. which cmdlet should you use to do this?
To create a group managed service account in PowerShell on a Windows Server 2016 domain controller, you should use the New-ADServiceAccount cmdlet.
The New-ADServiceAccount cmdlet creates a new service account in Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS). It is designed specifically for creating group managed service accounts (gMSAs), which are a type of service account that can be used to manage services running on multiple servers.
Here's an example of how to use the New-ADServiceAccount cmdlet to create a new gMSA:
New-ADServiceAccount -Name MyServiceAccount -Enabled $true -DNSHostName MyServer.mydomain.com -PrincipalsAllowedToRetrieveManagedPassword "MyServer$"
In this example, MyServiceAccount is the name of the new gMSA that will be created. The -Enabled $true parameter specifies that the account should be enabled. The -DNSHostName MyServer.mydomain.com parameter specifies the DNS name of the server that will use the gMSA. The -PrincipalsAllowedToRetrieveManagedPassword "MyServer$" parameter specifies which computers are allowed to retrieve the gMSA password for use by services running on those computers.
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how to tell if someone blocked your number without texting them
Answer:
It depends based on the application
Explanation:
For example, with WA, their profile picture is removed and you can only see their name. You can't see when they're last online, or if they are online at that moment. If you do decide to send a text, it will only show 1 mark instead of 2. IG will hide the message thread that you have previously had with said person for both of you. On SC, if you search for their username, it won't show up with any results.
Tim has been contracted to install a wireless connection at the head office of Travis Roadways. The head office is located in between two manufacturing units because of which there is a lot of noise in the wireless spectrum. The management has requested Tim to ensure that the network connection provides reliable delivery of time-sensitive data so that they can conduct meetings with other branch divisions via video streaming. Analyze the RSSI (received signal strength indicator) level required for Tim to establish the connection functional as per the requirements.
Group of answer choices
a. The RSSI level should at least be -50 dBm.
b. The RSSI level should at least be -90 dBm.
c. The RSSI level should at least be -70 dBm.
d. The RSSI level should at least be -80 dBm.
The RSSI (received signal strength indicator) level required for Tim to establish the connection functional as per the requirements is -70 dBm. The correct answer is Option C.
What is RSSI?Received Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) is an estimated measurement of the signal quality received by the wireless device antenna. A wireless device antenna with a low RSSI value might need a new or improved antenna. RSSI is measured in dBm (decibel milliwatts) and is shown as a negative number because it indicates the degree of signal loss (-50 dBm is a stronger signal than -80 dBm).
What is the RSSI level required to establish the connection functional as per the requirements?Based on the provided requirements, Tim must guarantee that the network connection is stable and can transmit time-sensitive data. Tim must determine the minimum RSSI level that is acceptable for this operation. The acceptable RSSI level is -70 dBm.
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true or false? the recovery time objective (rto) expresses the maximum allowable time in which to recover the function after a major interruption. true false
The given statement "the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) expresses the maximum allowable time in which to recover the function after a major interruption." is true. It is because the Recovery Time Objective is defined as the maximum amount of time it should take to recover a system or application after a disruption in service or a disaster occurs.
The Recovery Time Objective expresses the allowable downtime or service interruption that an organization can tolerate before the consequences become unacceptable. The RTO is a critical metric in disaster recovery planning and helps organizations determine their recovery strategies and solutions.
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Your organization is based in the United States and wants to take advantage of cloud services and hyperscale. However, your organization must abide by strict data sovereignty requirements. Your organization plans to adopt Azure Stack and use it internally and to consume public cloud services using Azure cloud in the United States. Which of the following cloud deployment models does your organization plan to adopt?
Your organization plans to adopt the hybrid cloud deployment model.
Azure Stack is a hybrid cloud platform that allows businesses to offer Azure services from their data centers. It allows companies to take advantage of the power of Azure's hyper-scale cloud infrastructure while also meeting regulatory and compliance requirements. Azure Stack provides consistent Azure services, which include infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) and platform-as-a-service (PaaS) services, as well as DevOps tools, that can be delivered on-premises or in the cloud.
Azure Stack deployment modelsAzure Stack deployment can be in three different models: Integrated systems, Azure Stack Hub, and Azure Stack HCI. The difference between these models is their use cases. Organizations can deploy Azure Stack in the following cloud deployment models: Private cloud public cloud hybrid cloud your organization is based in the United States and must follow strict data sovereignty requirements.
Your organization plans to use Azure Stack internally while also consuming public cloud services using Azure cloud. The hybrid cloud deployment model, in this case, is the best option. It enables companies to combine public cloud offerings with on-premises solutions. The hybrid cloud approach also allows organizations to address data security concerns while also allowing for cloud scaling and agility. It can be more cost-effective than a private cloud deployment model while also delivering more security than public cloud deployment models.
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when an organization seeks transference of information security risk, it is likely to make which purchase? server hard drives penetration testing services company vehicles with anti-lock brakes cyberliability insurance
When an organization seeks transference of information security risk, it is likely to purchase (F) cyber liability insurance.
Cyber liability insurance helps organizations protect against financial losses from cybersecurity incidents such as data breaches, network damage, and cyber extortion. The insurance policy covers the cost of legal fees, customer notification, credit monitoring, data recovery, and any other costs associated with the breach. By purchasing cyber liability insurance, the organization transfers the financial risk of a cybersecurity incident to the insurance company, reducing its own financial liability.
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A user submitted a support ticket that states all of the printouts from a laser printer appear to have double images imposed on them. A review of past printer support tickets shows that a maintenance kit has not been installed in more than a year. Which of the following printer consumables is MOST likely causing the issue?
A. Separation pad
B. Transfer roller
C. Ink cartridge
D. Fuser
Option d is correct, Fuser is the printer consumables which is most likely causing the issue.
The issue described, where printouts have double images imposed on them, is a common symptom of a faulty fuser in a laser printer.
The fuser is responsible for bonding toner to the paper, and if it is not functioning properly, it can cause double images or smudging on the printouts.
Given the lack of maintenance kit installation for over a year, it is highly likely that the fuser needs to be replaced or repaired.
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collection of computers that are infected by malware and remotely controlled so they can act together at the same time is definition of ?
Botnet is a collection of computers that are infected by malware and remotely controlled so they can act together at the same time.
A botnet is a collection of Internet-connected devices, including computers, servers, and mobile devices, that are infected with malware and are remotely controlled by a cybercriminal, usually without the owner's knowledge.
The term "botnet" is a combination of "robot" and "network."Botnets are commonly used for malicious purposes, such as launching Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attacks, stealing personal and financial information, spreading spam, and distributing additional malware.Botnets are often built with botnet kits, which are readily available in underground marketplaces. These kits include the tools required to create and manage a botnet.Bots, also known as zombies, are the individual devices that are a part of a botnet. Each bot can receive instructions from the botnet's command and control server and execute them.
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the most distinguishing feature of the use of a client-server processing model over an old mainframe configuration is
The most distinguishing feature of the use of a client-server processing model over an old mainframe configuration is the distribution of computing power.
What is a client-server processing model?A client-server processing model is a distributed application structure that partitions tasks or workload between service providers and service requesters, called clients. Each computer in the client-server model operates as either a client or a server. The server provides services to the clients, such as data sharing, data manipulation, and data storage.
The client requests services from the server, allowing for the distribution of processing responsibilities between the two entities. In this model, the server is responsible for storing data, while the client is responsible for data retrieval. A mainframe configuration is an older computing model that is centralized, where the mainframe performs all computing activities.
All users are linked to the mainframe, which stores all data and applications, as well as handles all processing responsibilities. Mainframes can handle a large amount of data and have a lot of processing power, but they are inflexible and can be difficult to scale. The distribution of computing power is the most distinguishing feature of the use of a client-server processing model over an old mainframe configuration.
In the client-server model, processing power is distributed between the client and the server. In a mainframe configuration, however, all computing power is centralized, with the mainframe handling all processing responsibilities.
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unified communications (uc) is an umbrella term for integrated, multi-media communications controlled by an individual user for both business and social purposes. uc integrates all of the following except? Select one: a.Social media. b.Data. c.Voice. d.Video
Unified communications (UC) is an umbrella term for integrated, multi-media communications controlled by an individual user for both business and social purposes. UC integrates all of the following except: b. data.
Unified Communications (UC) is an all-in-one communications system that combines the integration of real-time communication tools like voice, instant messaging (IM), video conferencing, desktop sharing, data sharing, and more, with non-real-time communication tools like email, voicemail, SMS, and fax.The primary objective of Unified Communications (UC) is to unify all communication channels and tools, making communication more straightforward, faster, and more efficient. UC technology also integrates these different channels into a single interface or platform, allowing users to access and manage them all from one place. Therefore, UC integrates all of the following except data.
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which tool would help assess a student’s oral language competence and provide documentation of progress?
It may consist of transcripts of conversations, written assignments, recordings of oral language evaluations, and other documentation of the student's language competence.
The process of gathering, compiling, and preserving written or digital records of information is referred to as documentation. It is a necessary tool for a variety of occupations, such as those in healthcare, education, and business. Documentation is essential in the context of education for monitoring student progress, recording learning goals, and assessing results. It enables educators to document observations, evaluations, and other information that can be utilised to decide on instructional approaches and student requirements. Due to the fact that it serves as a record of the actions and decisions made, documentation also aids in ensuring accountability and transparency. Communication, cooperation, and decision-making can all be improved with the use of effective documentation techniques, both inside and outside of the classroom.
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Your network consists of three domain sin a single fores: eastsim.com, acct.eastsim.com, and dev.eastsim.com.You have formed a partnership with another company. They also have three domains: westsim.com, mktg.westsim.com, and sales.westsim.com.Because of the partnership, users in all domains for the eastsim.com forest need access to resources in all three domains in the partner network. Users in the partner network should not have access to any of your domains.You need to create the trust from the eastsim.com network. What should you do? (Select three.)Create external trusts from eastsim.com to each of the domains in westsim.com.Do not use selective authentication.Create the trust as an outgoing trust.Create the trust as an incoming trust.Create a forest trust between eastsim.com and westsim.com.Use selective authentication.
To create a trust from the eastsim.com network, you should do the following: Create the trust as an outgoing trust. Create the trust as an incoming trust. Create a forest trust between eastsim.com and westsim.com.
These three are the options that you need to choose to create a trust from the eastsim.com network. What is an incoming trust?An incoming trust is established to allow a trusted domain to utilize resources on the local domain. It allows resources in the local domain to be used by the trusted domain's users and computers.
What is an outgoing trust? An outgoing trust allows the domain to trust other domains. The local domain is trusted by domains in the trusted domain.The forest trust A forest trust can be created to facilitate resource sharing between two forests. The forest trust is established at the forest level and is bi-directional. It implies that users from one forest can access resources in the other forest and vice versa.
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True or false: Given the popularity of the Internet, mobile devices, and the complexity of computer technologies, important business information and IT assets are exposed to risks and attacks from external parties such as hackers, foreigners, competitors, etc. Today's employees are well trained and always support the firm to prevent the attacks.
False. Despite training, employees can still be a source of risk and attack. Additionally, external threats such as hackers, foreigners, and competitors are difficult to mitigate and protect against.
How training affects employee performanceEmployees are not always well trained and can still be a source of risk and attack. Additionally, external threats such as hackers, foreigners, and competitors are difficult to mitigate and protect against.
Employees should be given regular training on how to protect themselves and the company's information, and businesses should have measures in place to protect their data, such as firewalls, encryption and other security measures.
Additionally, businesses should ensure they are using the latest security patches and updates and regularly test their systems for any vulnerabilities.
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Homer is revising some internal documentation at his company. He has been asked to verify whether a certain key performance indicator is currently being met in regard to the average amount of time it takes to repair a device or service after it has experienced a non-fatal error. Which of the following is the term which best describes this KPI? a. MTBF b. RTO C.MTRR d. RPO
The term which best describes the KPI that Homer is revising at his company is RTO because it is a metric used to define the amount of time within which services must be restored after a failure.
RTO stands for Recovery Time Objective. In a disaster recovery strategy, RTO is a critical component for determining how long an enterprise can operate without critical systems before experiencing unacceptable losses.An RTO determines how long an organization's business processes and operations can survive before a service interruption or application outage occurs.
The RTO is based on the criticality of the business process, system availability requirements, and the company's overall business continuity policy. Thus, the Recovery Time Objective is the maximum tolerable length of time that a computer, system, network, or application can be down following a failure before the loss of organization or system functionality has unacceptable consequences.
MTBF, or Mean Time Between Failures, is a statistical measure of the average time a product or system will perform satisfactorily. This measure is widely used in the manufacturing and engineering industries to determine the reliability of a product or system.
MTRR, or Memory Type Range Registers, is a CPU feature that specifies how system memory can be accessed. RPO, or Recovery Point Objective, is a metric used to define the maximum amount of time that an organization's processes or data can be lost following a service interruption or disaster. An RPO determines the amount of data loss an organization can tolerate before experiencing unacceptable business impacts or consequences.
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These questions are from the sql database query,
Find the highest rated apps with a user rating of at least 4. 6, have at least 1000 reviews, and does not have a content rating of ‘Everyone’.
Find the total number of apps for each of the 6 content rating categories.
Find the top 3 highest rated apps in the category of ‘TOOLS’ that have more than 225,000 reviews. Also, include at least 1 positive review for each of the top 3 apps in the visualization
To find the highest rated apps with a user rating of at least 4.6, have at least 1000 reviews, and does not have a content rating of ‘Everyone’, you would need to have access to the app store or platform where the apps are listed.
From there, you would need to filter the apps based on their user rating and the number of reviews they have received. Then, you would need to further filter the apps based on their content rating to exclude those with a rating of ‘Everyone’.
To find the total number of apps for each of the 6 content rating categories, you would need to have access to the app store or platform where the apps are listed. From there, you would need to group the apps based on their content rating and count the number of apps in each group.
To find the top 3 highest rated apps in the category of ‘TOOLS’ that have more than 225,000 reviews, you would need to have access to the app store or platform where the apps are listed. From there, you would need to filter the apps based on their category and the number of reviews they have received. Then, you would need to rank the remaining apps based on their user rating and select the top 3. Finally, you would need to find positive reviews for each of the top 3 apps and include them in a visualization.
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1 pts which of the following features distinguishes a lan from a wan? group of answer choices a wan has a limit on the number of users. a wan has low bandwidth. a lan is bigger than a wan. a lan has stringent hardware requirements. a lan connects computers in a single location.
The feature that distinguishes a LAN from a WAN is that (D) "a LAN connects computers in a single location".
A LAN (Local Area Network) is a computer network that connects devices in a small geographical area, such as a home, office, or building. In contrast, a WAN (Wide Area Network) is a network that covers a larger geographical area, such as a city, country, or even the whole world. The main difference between the two is the size of the area they cover and the number of devices they connect. LANs typically have higher bandwidth and faster data transfer rates, while WANs often have lower bandwidth and slower transfer rates due to the distance between devices. Both LANs and WANs can be used to share resources and data, but they are designed to meet different needs.
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) "A LAN connects computers in a single location."
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what immediately follows the start frame delimiter in an ethernet frame?
Answer:
The next field in an Ethernet frame after the Start Frame Delimiter (SFD) is the Destination MAC address. This field is 6 bytes long (48 bits) and tells who the frame is meant for. The Source MAC address field comes after the Destination MAC address field. It is also 6 bytes long and shows who sent the frame. After the Source MAC address field, the frame has the Ethernet Type field. This field shows what kind of protocol is in the Ethernet frame's payload. The Payload field comes after the Ethernet Type field. The Payload can be between 46 and 1500 bytes long. The data that is being sent, like an IP packet or another message from a higher-layer protocol, is in the Payload. The last part of an Ethernet frame is the Frame Check Sequence (FCS), which is a 4-byte (32-bit) field that has a checksum for the whole Ethernet frame to make sure it didn't get messed up while being sent.
a network-attached storage device is like a network-connected hard drive, true or false?
True. In that it offers additional storage space for a network of devices to exchange and access files, a network-attached storage (NAS) device is similar to a network-connected hard drive.
Is a network linked hard drive similar to a network attached storage device?A network drive can be connected via a router, while a NAS can be connected to any device on your network. Network drives function similarly to an external drive attached to your computer even though they lack built-in management software.
Do hard drives count as network devices?Network drives are complete hard drives that are Ethernet-hardwired directly into the network and can be utilised for data storage by any network user who has the necessary authorisation or credentials.
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true/false: c does not perform array bounds checking, making it possible for you to assign a pointer the address of an element out of the boundaries of an array.
The given statement "c does not perform array bounds checking, making it possible for you to assign a pointer the address of an element out of the boundaries of an array" is TRUE.
The array is the set of values of the same data type that can be stored sequentially in memory using a single name. You can consider it as a set of containers that hold a particular type of data with a unique name. For example, an array can store ten values of the int data type. However, it is a bit of a double-edged sword.
On one hand, the array can improve the efficiency of the program's operation, and on the other hand, it can also put the system in danger if not used correctly. One example of it is array bounds checking.
Most programming languages that support arrays perform bounds checking to ensure that the array is only accessed within the bounds of the memory allocated for it. However, in the case of C, it does not perform any such checks, and if you try to access an array's elements beyond its bounds, it will generate an error.
It is also possible to assign a pointer the address of an element out of the boundaries of an array in C. However, the program will not check whether the address is in the array boundaries or not. It can cause a variety of errors, including program crashes or security vulnerabilities.
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true or false vlookup searches for a value in a row in order to return a corresponding piece of information. 1 point
The statement "VLOOKUP searches for a value in a row to return a corresponding piece of information" is True.
VLOOKUP is a Microsoft Excel function that searches for a value in the first column of a table and returns a corresponding value in the same row. VLOOKUP stands for "Vertical Lookup."This function searches for a value in the leftmost column of a table or an array, then returns a value in the same row from a column that you specify. For instance, suppose you have a table of employee information. You could use VLOOKUP to search for an employee's ID number and retrieve their name, address, or phone number.
The VLOOKUP function is an Excel function that searches for a value in the first column of a table, and if found, returns a corresponding value in the same row. The function takes four arguments, all of which are required. The first argument is the lookup value, the second is the table array, the third is the column index number, and the fourth is the optional range lookup argument.
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____ databases reflect the ever-growing demand for greater scope and depth in the data on which decision support systems increasingly rely. data warehouse.
Data warehouse databases reflect the ever-growing demand for greater scope and depth in the data on which decision support systems increasingly rely.
Data warehouses are specifically designed to support decision-making activities by providing a large, integrated, and historical database that can be used for data analysis, reporting, and business intelligence. They are designed to handle large volumes of data from multiple sources and to provide users with easy access to the data they need. Data warehouses also typically include tools for data cleaning, data integration, and data transformation to ensure that the data is accurate, consistent, and meaningful.
Overall, data warehouses are a critical component of modern decision support systems, enabling organizations to make better decisions based on a deeper understanding of their data.
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what is programs that instruct computers to perform specific operations?
Answer:software, instructions that tell a computer what to do. Software comprises the entire set of programs, procedures, and routines associated with the operation of a computer system. The term was coined to differentiate these instructions from hardware—i.e., the physical components of a computer system.
Explanation:
What is the result of a network technician issuing the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15 on a Cisco router?A. The Cisco router will exclude 15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.B. The Cisco router will allow only the specified IP addresses to be leased to clients.C. The Cisco router will exclude only the 10.0.15.1 and 10.0.15.15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.D. The Cisco router will automatically create a DHCP pool using a /28 mask.
The Cisco router will exclude IP addresses between 10.0.15.1 and 10.0.15.15 from being leased to DHCP clients when a network technician issues the command "ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15" on the Cisco router.
On Cisco routers, you can configure the "ip dhcp excluded-address" command to prevent any particular IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network protocol that automatically allocates IP addresses and other network configuration information to devices on a network. Network administrators can reserve specific IP addresses for other purposes and prevent DHCP clients from receiving those addresses by using the "ip dhcp excluded-address" command. When managing a large number of networked devices, this can be very helpful because it enables administrators to make sure that crucial devices are always given the right IP addresses.
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application software is? group of answer choices tasks like the operating system and utilities specific tasks like word processors, web browser, email, applications, games, etc keyboard and mouse patches
Application software is B: specific tasks like word processors, web browsers, email clients, applications, games, etc.
Unlike the operating system and utilities, which are responsible for managing and maintaining the computer system, application software is designed to provide users with tools to perform specific tasks. Application software can range from simple programs like text editors and calculators to complex applications used in industries like healthcare, finance, and engineering.
Application software is designed to interact with the operating system and other system resources, such as input/output devices, memory, and storage, to perform its tasks. It can be developed for a variety of platforms, including desktop computers, mobile devices, and cloud-based systems.
Keyboard and mouse are input devices used to interact with application software, while patches are updates to software programs designed to fix bugs and vulnerabilities or add new features.
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Using Access, open the Relationships window and identify all of the one-to-many relationships in the database as well as the field used in both tables to make the connection using the following pattern found in SQL, when connecting two tables using WHERE or INNER JOIN clause. An example of one of the relationships is provided as a guide.
To identify all of the one-to-many relationships in the database as well as the field used in both tables to make the connection using the following pattern found in SQL when connecting two tables using the WHERE or INNER JOIN clause in Access, open the Relationships window. Given that an example of one of the relationships is given as a guide, the other relationships can be recognized with the help of the ER Diagram or Table Relationships.
The ER Diagram is a logical or conceptual representation of an enterprise's data. It is used to depict the various connections between tables or entities in the system. For each pair of tables that are linked in a one-to-many relationship, the table on the 'one' side should be listed first, followed by the table on the 'many' side.
Access allows the creation of relationships between tables or entities. The Relationships window allows you to see how the various tables in a database are connected. Relationships are formed based on one or more fields that link two tables. These links are formed by selecting the relevant field in each table that is shared between the two tables in the Relationships window. Here is the pattern:
Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ON Table1.
Field1 = Table2.
Field1
For Example, let's say we have a table of Customers and a table of Orders, where the CustomerID is the field that links the two tables. Here are the relationships:
Customer.CustomerID to Orders.CustomerIDHere's the SQL:
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