Answer:
Cell is made of molecules whereas atoms make up molecules. Cells are the smallest functioning unit in a living organism.
Atom is the smallest unit of matter. Usually, a cell is on the micrometer scale while an atom is in the angstrom scale .
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What is the phase that not all cells enter, but it is a phase where cells are not actively dividing
Answer:
The phase that not all cells enter, but is a phase where cells are not actively dividing is called the G0 or non-dividing phase.
Answer:
G₀ phase
Explanation:
Some types of cells divided slowly or not at all. These cells may exit the G₁ phase and enter a resting phase called G₀ phase. In G₀ phase, a cell is not actively preparing to divide. It's simply doing its job. For some cells, G₀ is a permanent state, while others may restart cell division given the right signals.
Explain how the results from testing Barley High Lysine (BHL) are related to the primary, secondary and tertiary structure of protein?
Answer:
Enhanced derivatives of barley chymotrypsin inhibitor-2 are known as Barley high lysine (BHL) proteins. BHL has tryptophan, threonine, and isoleucine in a folded structure similar as the tertiary structure of protein.
Derivatives of BHL are digestible in gastric juice and other fluid. Denaturation of these proteins shows proteins in gastric fluid minus pepsin which is looks as the secondary structure of protein. It has four soluble protein groups –
a) Albumins
b) globulin fraction in embryo and scutellary proteins
c) Prolamins
d) Glutelin
_____________ is a post-translational modification that occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum or Golgi apparatus to make proteins functional.
Answer:
Lipidation is a post-translational modification that occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum or Golgi apparatus to make proteins functional.
According to scientific evidence, the age of the earth is about how old?
Answer:
I believe it to be around 400 billion years old.
Explanation:
Los mamíferos marinos, que a diferencia de los peces tienen sangre caliente, han perdido el pelaje como adaptación a la vida en el agua. Para compensar la falta de la cubierta de pelo desarrollaron gruesas capas de grasa debajo de la piel que ayudan a evitar la pérdida de calor corporal. ¿Con qué función de los lípidos se relaciona esta adaptación? Justificar.
Answer:
Please Translate it in english, so i can easyly answer it.
Explanation:
thank you.
which is more vulnerable to disturbances, a simple food web with only a few species or a more complex one
Answer:
few species
Explanation:
in a complex one im not sure as to how the question measures complexity but a complex one may have more options and more things to adapt to
Aspirin may still irritate the stomach as a side effect. What functional group in the molecule is responsible for this effect
Answer:
The functional group that irritates the stomach is known as the salicylic acid molecule.
Explanation:
The energy source for active transport is ________ , while the force driving facilitated diffusion is ________.
Answer:
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Explanation:
Absolute zero temperature is not the zero energy temperature.explain
The absolute zero is the temperature at which molecular motion ceases i.e translational kinetic of molecules become zero, but the molecules possess the potential energy, according to the Kinetic theory of gases. Thus, the absolute zero is not the zero energy temperature.
What must happen before meiosis can begin ?
we should conserve environment give reason
Answer:
for healthy living and long life
Mutations that result in the death of the individual are known as
Answer:
Mutations that cause the death of an organism are called lethals — and it doesn't get more negative than that.
3. A bacterial isolate from a urine specimen was grown in culture, Gram stained, and then tested for its ability to ferment sugars and hydrolyze various subtrates. What approach to bacterial identification is this an example of
Answer:
Phenotypic approach for bacterial identification
Explanation:
Bacterial identification can be done by conventional methods, which are based on phenotypical characteristics. These methods are much affordable and reasonable.
Phenotypical identification is based on bacteria´s observable characteristics, such as their morphology, development, and biochemical/metabolic properties.
It is important to consider that these methods do not provide absolute certainty. They can only indicate the genera or species to which the bacteria under study may belong.
Some primary evidence is usually used for fast bacteria identification:
Gram staining, morphology, growth at different media or different incubation atmospheres, glucose fermentation, spores production, motion, aerobiosis/anaerobiosis, among others.Knowing that the bacteria in the exposed example was isolated and grown in culture, then Gram-stained and tested for biochemical reaction, we can assume that the approach for its identification is phenotypic.
How do sinkholes form? Be sure to provide a detailed explanation of sinkhole formation.
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Over hundreds of thousands of years, layers of rocks like bedrock and limestone erode. Then, a hole or cavity forms when it erodes. Slowly, the matter above the cavity falls in. This causes it to expand. Drought is also another reason that sinkholes form in the ground.
Answer:
Sample Answer edge 2021
Explanation:
When it rains, rainwater, which is slightly acidic, soaks into the ground and becomes more acidic as it moves through the soil. When this water comes in contact with the bedrock, it reacts with the limestone, dissolving it. As the water flows through the ground, it carries the dissolved limestone away with it, enlarging the natural holes and cracks that were already present in the rock. Over time, large cavities may form in the bedrock. Sinkholes often form when the overlying sediments become too heavy for the ceiling of an underground cavity to support. The ceiling gives way and the overlying sediments collapse into the cavity.
02-Why is it important to meet the members Of your extended family?
Answer:
because they are our heart and supporting members
what is defferenciated cell and and undeferenciated cell.with example
Answer:
Differentiated cells refer to the specialized cells in multicellular organisms modified to carry out a particular function, such as transporting a certain substance or executing a specific task, while undifferentiated cells refer to the stem cells capable of giving rise to indefinitely more cells of the same type,.
example of differentiated cell=zygote to embryo then a comlex foetusexample of undifferentiated cell= embryonic stem cell.hope it helpsstay safe healthy and happy.the value 10.00 has sigificant figuers
Answer:
1.e 1,0,0,0
Explanation:
it's just that
Which of the following is a risk associated with making our lifestyle more convenient?
Increased use of technology
O Decrease in environmental hazards
Increased use of science
Increased pollution in the air, water, soil
Answer:
Increased pollution in the air, water, soil.
What is rcbL, and why is it a particularly useful molecule for studying evolutionary relationships in plants and green algae
Answer:
RBCL denotes for 'rubisco protein.' It is characterized as 'a plant enzyme which catalyzes both the fixing of carbon dioxide found in atmosphere during photosynthesis and the reverse process of photorespiration.' It plays a very significant role in studying, as well as, in evaluating relations associated with phylogenetics in plants primarily along with green algae as it assists them to produce energy molecules by using carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. It has therefore been the key factor behind a number of organic carbon that is discovered in our surrounding biosphere.
Review Questions
1. If a diploid eukaryotic cell contains 14 pairs of chromosomes for a total of 2n = 28, how
many chromosomes will be in the resulting products of cellular division if the cell
undergoes: mitosis?meiosis?
2. If a haploid eukaryotic cell contains 10 chromosomes for a total of n = 10. How many
chromosomes will be in the resulting daughter cells if this cell undergoes mitosis?
3. By what process do homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their DNA during
meiosis?
4. In what phase does the answer to #3 occur?
5. How many mature ova will be produced from each primary oocyte?
6. How many mature sperm will be produced from each primary spermatocyte?
7. Do the homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis I or meiosis II?
8. Do the sister chromatids separate during meiosis I or meiosis II?
9. What is a polar body?
10. List the phases of mitosis and briefly describe what happens in each phase:
Answer:
6==. During spermatogenesis, four sperm result from each primary spermatocyte, which divides into two haploid secondary spermatocytes; these cells will go through a second meiotic division to produce four spermatids
The most common Class II variant is the F508del variant, which is missing the 508th amino acid in the protein but has an otherwise normal sequence. Loss of this amino acid leads to misfolding of the protein, and the misfolded protein is not properly transported to the membrane. Based on this information, how many nucleotides are deleted in the CFTR allele encoding this variant?
Answer:
The correct answer is - 3 (two codons of 507th that are U, C, and the first nucleotide of 508th codon U).
Explanation:
Each amino acid is coded by a three-nucleotide base long codon. So in the case of the F508del variant, there is a deletion of three nucleotides that is encoded for phenylalanine amino acid.
In this isoleucine is encoded by 507th codon that is AUG and 508th codon is UUU codes for Isoleucine.
In this case, two codons of 507th are U, C, and the first nucleotide of 508th codon U. So overall three nucleotides are deleted in the F508del variant..
Explain the processes that occur in the nucleus.
Answer:
A nuclear reactor is driven by the splitting of atoms, a process called fission, where a particle (a 'neutron') is fired at an atom, which then fissions into two smaller atoms and some additional neutrons. ... The fissioning of atoms in the chain reaction also releases a large amount of energy as heat.
Ariella is a 12-year-old whose BMI-for-age is above the 95th percentile. What conclusion could be drawn? a. She is at risk for undernutrition b. Her body fat percentage is in an unhealthy range. c. She is going through a growth spurt. d. She is at risk for future obesity.
Answer:
She is at risk for future obesity
Explanation:
The correct conclusion could be drawn is she is at risk for future obesity. BMI is a body mass index that is derived from the mass and height of the person.
How BMI is calculated?The formula is BMI = kg/m2
Where kg is a person’s weight in kilograms and m² their height in meters squared.
BMI categoriesUnderweight = <18.5Normal weight = 18.5–24.9Overweight = 25–29.9Obesity = BMI of 30 or greaterThus, it is concluded that Ariella is at a risk for future obesity according to her BMI percentile.
Learn more about BMI here:
https://brainly.com/question/2064513
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what is the difference between cell elongation and plasmolysis?
What are cut flowers?
Answer:
Cut flowers are flowers or flower buds that have been cut from the plant bearing it. It is usually removed from the plant for decorative use.
Explanation:
Which of the following events contributes to the termination of a signal generated by the binding of a ligand to a receptor tyrosine kinase? Only one answer is correct
1. Phosphatases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
2. Kinases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
3. Kinases phosphorylate key residues.
4. The receptor tyrosine kinase dimerizes.
5. GTPase removes a phosphoryl group from GTP.
6. Phosphatases phosphorylate key residues.
Answer:
1. Phosphatases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
Explanation:
Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs) are high-affinity transmembrane protein receptors that bind to a wide variety of ligands (e.g., growth factors, cytokines, hormones). These receptors (RTKs) have a transmembrane domain and therefore these proteins act as membrane receptors, as well as exhibit catalytic activity. The intracellular C terminal region of RTKs contains catalytic domains responsible for both autophosphorylation and tyrosine phosphorylation of their protein substrates. Moreover, Protein Tyrosine Phosphatase (PTPs) are critical enzymes that remove phosphate groups from tyrosine residues in different substrates (including RTKs), thereby regulating key signaling pathways such as cell proliferation, cell differentiation, and cell-cell adhesion.
The membrane potential that occurs when neurotransmitters bind to their receptors is called _______.
Answer:
action potential
Explanation:
Transmission of a signal within a neuron (from dendrite to axon terminal) is carried by a brief reversal of the resting membrane potential called an action potential. When neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors located on a neuron's dendrites, ion channels open.
Answer:
I guess action potential is the correct one
Select all of the characteristic monosaccharide features that are absent in this molecule: H O H CO о -C-H H-C -O CH H-C- -O H H-C-H H
Answer:
Carboxyl functional group.
Explanation:
Carboxyl functional group is the feature or characteristic which us absent in the monosaccharide. The carboxyl group is an organic, functional group comprising of a carbon atom which is double-bonded to an oxygen atom and have singly bond with a hydroxyl group. In other words we can say that it is a carbonyl group (C=O) that has a hydroxyl group (O-H) which is attached to the carbon atom.
If the lymph system did not do its job, what would be one of the consequences?
Answer:
"*Because the lymphatic system collects excess tissue fluid, if it were not working, swelling (edema) would occur in the tissues. The thymus cleanses the blood from the cardiovascular system of cellular debris and bacteria."
Describe the difference between the five types of managed care plans
Answer:
You choose a primary care doctor who coordinates most of your care. Preferred Provider Organizations (PPO) usually pay more if you get care within the network. They still pay part of the cost if you go outside the network. Point of Service (POS) plans let you choose between an HMO or a PPO each time you need care.
