Demand characteristics can threaten internal validity because the results ____ can be explained by reactivity instead of the treatment conditions correlate with those that threaten external validity may be specific to the experimenter who has the expectations may not generalize to situations where demand characteristics are different

Answer:

$1,600

Explanation:

Best deals incorporation has a total of 10 units in the ending merchandise inventory on December 31

The units were bought in the month of November at a price of $160 for each unit

The replacement cost of the item is $162

Inventory is always recorded when the cost is low

Therefore, the amount that is to be reported as the merchandise inventory can be calculated as follows

=10 units × $160

= $1,600

Hence the amount reported as the merchandise inventory on the balance sheet is $1,600

Answer: $4.58

Explanation:

The required return is said to be evenly divided between a capital gains yield and a dividend yield.

That means that Dividend Yield = 7%

Capital gains yield = 7%

The Dividend Yield is based on the next dividend and given the expected return the dividend is;

Expected Return = Dividend Yield + Capital gains yield

Expected Return = Dividend(1 + g)/stock price + Capital gains yield

0.14 = Dividend ( 1 + 0.07)/70 + 0.07

70 * (0.14 - 0.07 ) = Dividend ( 1.07)

4.9 =  Dividend ( 1.07)

Dividend = 4.9/1.07

Dividend = $4.58

Answer:

20

Explanation:

The formula for Economic order quantity ( EOQ ) = √2DS/H,

Where,

D annual demand = 40 units

S Ordering cost = $5

H Holding cost = $1

Hence ,

EOQ = √ 2 × 40 units × $5 / 1$

= √ $400 / $1

= 20

Answer:

Principal paid in the first payment =$2,656.52

Explanation:

Loan Amortization: A loan repayment method structured such that a series of equal periodic installments will be paid for certain number of periods to offset both the loan principal amount and the accrued interest.  

We will use the following relationships:

Interest paid = Interest rate × loan balance

Principal paid = Monthly installment - Interest paid

Monthly installment  = Loan amount/Annuity factor

Annuity factor = (1- (1+r)^(-n))/r

r - annual interest rate

n- number of period = 12× 5 = 60

Monthly interest rate - 8.86/12 =0.738 %

Loan amount = 13,381

Annuity factor = (1 - (1.00738)^(-60) )/ 0.00738=48.336

Monthly interest payment = Loan amount/Annuity factor

                                         13,381/48.336=2,755.32

Interest due in the first month = interest rate × loan amount

                      =  0.738 %×  13,381 =98.796

Principal aid in the first year = Monthly installment - interest due 1st month

                      = 2,755.32 - 98.796 = 2,656.52

Principal paid in the first payment =$2,656.52

The question is incomplete:

If Farmer Brown plants no seeds on his farm, he gets no harvest. If he plants 1 bag of seeds, he gets 5 bushels of wheat. If he plants 2 bags, he gets 9 bushels. If he plants 3 bags, he gets 12 bushels. A bag of seeds costs $120, and seeds are his only cost.

Farmer Brown's total-cost curve is

a. increasing at an increasing rate.

b. increasing at a decreasing rate.

c. increasing at a constant rate.

d. decreasing.

Answer:

a. increasing at an increasing rate.

Explanation:

To determine the answer, you can create a graph with the information given hich is attached.

You can see that the curve is increasing and because of that you can eliminate option d that is decreasing. Then, you have to consider that increasing at a constant rate would show an straight line which is not the case. Also, increasing at a decreasing rate would show a decreasing slope which is not what you see in the graph. Because of that, the answer is that Farmer Brown’s total cost curve is increasing at an increasing rate because the graphs shows an increasing slope.

Answer:

1. Refer to Instruction, how many euros will the U.S. investor acquire with his initial $500,000 investment?

$500,000 / $1.30 = €384,615.38

2. Refer to Instruction, at an average price of €60/share, how many shares of stock will the investor be able to purchase?

€384,615 / €60 = 6,410.25

3. Refer to Instruction, at the end of the year the investor sells his stock that now has an average price per share of €57. What is the investor's average rate of return before converting the stock back into dollars?

(€57 - €60) / €60 = -5%

4. Refer to Instruction, at the end of the year the investor sells his stock that now has an average price per share of €57. What is the investor's average rate of return after converting the stock back into dollars?

[(6,410 x €57) + €15] x $1.35 = $493,269.75

($493,269.75 - $500,000) / $500,000 = -1.35%

Answer:

a. Return on Investment

ROI= Operating income/Average invested assets

Beverage Division ROI = 358 / (2,680+2,602) /2

= 358 / 2,641

= 0.13555

= 13.56%

Cheese Division ROI = 643 / (4,473 + 4,409)/2

= 643 / 4,441

= 0.14478

= 14.48%

b.  Profit margin

Profit Margin= Operating income / Sales

Beverage Division = 358 / 2690

= 0.13309

=13.31%

Cheese Division = 643 / 3934

= 0.16345

= 16.35%

c. Investment turnover for the year

Investment turnover = Sales / Average invested assets

Beverage Division = 2690 / 2641 = 1.02

Cheese Division = 3934 / 4441 = 0.89

d.                            Beverage$'m        Cheese'million

Average Assets          2641                         4441

Targeted return           8%                             8%

Target income             211                            355

Residual Income      Beverage'm       Cheese'm

Operating income       358                       643

Less: Target income    211                        355

Residual Income         147                        288

Answer: C. II and III

Explanation:

As the shares were acquired by the officer on the open market, they are considered Control Stock. Sale of Control Stock falls under the purview of Rule 144 of the SEC that governs the sale of restricted, unregistered, and control securities so a Form 144 will need to be filed with the Sec making III correct.

Furthermore, control stock are not subject to a holding period requirement so option II is correct as well. Option C is therefore the best answer.

Answer:

1693.25

Explanation:

The computation of the current price of the item and the price 9 years from today is shown below:-

p(t) = 1,200 × (1.039)^t

Now, the current price can be found by putting t = 0

p(0) is

[tex]1,200\times (1.039)^0 = $1,200[/tex]

The price 10 years from today

p(9) is

[tex]1,200\times (1.039)^9[/tex]

Now we will solve the above equation

= 1,200 × 1.411041958

= 1693.25035

or

= 1693.25

Answer:

Sullivan's Island Company

a. Sullivan's Island Company Income Statement for the year ended December 31, 2017:

                                             Pounds            US $

Rent Revenue                      86,400           184,896

Repairs to building                3,600               7,704

Depreciation - Building       28,400             60,776

Interest on Notes                20,000            42,800

Net Income                          34,400              73,616

b. Sullivan's Island Company Statement of Retained Earnings for the year ended December 31, 2017:

                                             Pounds            US $

Net Income                          34,400              73,616

Dividends                               5,100               10,914

Retained Earnings             29,300             62,702

c.  Sullivan's Island Company Balance Sheet as of December 31, 2017:

                                             Pounds            US $

Assets:

Cash                                     63,300           138,102

Rent Receivable                   14,400             31,392

Building                             284,000         596,400

Less Depreciation             -28,400           -60,776

Total Assets                     333,300            705,118

Liabilities:

Notes Interest Payable     20,000             42,800

Notes Payable                200,000           420,000

Common Stock                 84,000            176,400

Retained Earnings            29,300             62,702

Foreign Exchange Translation Gain            3,216

Total Liabilities + Equity 333,300             705,118

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Currency exchange rates for 1 pound follow:

January 1, 2017 $    2.10 = 1 Pound

October 1, 2017       2.15 = 1

December 31, 2017 2.18 = 1

Average for 2017    2.14 = 1

Cash Account:

                                             Pounds            US $

Jan. 1 Common Stock          84,000           176,400

Jan. 1 Notes Payable         200,000         420,000

Jan. 1 Building                   -284,000       -596,400

Oct. 1 Building Repairs          -3600             -7,740

Dec. 31 Rent received         72,000          156,960

Dec. 31 Dividends                 -5,100              -11,118

Dec. 31 Balance                 63,300           138,102

b) Sullivan recorded some unrealized foreign exchange translation gain of $3,216.  This is due to translation differences.

Answer:

Before tax cost of debt=3.72%

After-tax cost of debt =2.87 %

Explanation:

The yield to maturity to Maturity van be worked out using the formula below:

YM =( C + F-P/n) ÷ ( 1/2× (F+P))

C- annual coupon,  

F- face value ,

P- current price,  

n- number of years to maturity

YM - Yield to maturity

DATA

C- 4%× 100 = 4, P- 105, F- 100

AYM = 4 + (100-105)/27 ÷ 1/2× (100+105)

=0.0372 ×  100= 3.72%

Yield to maturity =3.72%

Before tax cost of debt = Yield to maturity

Before tax cost of debt=3.72%

After tax cost of debt =Before tax cost of debt × (1-T)

Before tax cost of debt = 3.72%

Tax rate = 23%

After-tax cost of debt = 3.72%× (1-0.23) =2.87 %

After-tax cost of debt =2.87 %

Answer:

IRR for A= 35.33%

IRR for B = 31.88%

Explanation:

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

IRR can be calculated using a finacial calculator :

IRR for cash flow A

Cash flow in year 0 = −$ 68,000

Cash flow in year 1 = $44,000

Cash flow in year 2 = $38,000

Cash flow in year 3 = $25,000

Cash flow in year 4 = $15,600

IRR = 35.33%

IRR for cash flow A

Cash flow in year 0 = −$ 68,000

Cash flow in year 1 = $30,200

Cash flow in year 2 =  34,200

Cash flow in year 3 = $40,000

Cash flow in year 4 = $24,200

IRR = 31.88%

To find the IRR using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button

Answer:

See the answer and explanation below

Explanation:

A price-taking firm is a firm in a perfectly competitive market where all firms are price takers. That is, no firm in a perfectly competitive can influence the price as only the market determines the price.

The short run supply curve for a price-taking firm refers to the short marginal cost (SMC) curve at and above the shutdown point.

Note: See the attached graph for the shut run supply curve. Also note that point E in the attached graph is the shutdown point.

The shutdown point is the point where the short run marginal cost (SMC) is equal to the average variable cost (AVC) (i.e. where MC = AVC = Shutdown point).

This indicates that the short-run supply curve for a price-taking firm is the part of the SMC curve that lies above AVC curve.

The part of the SMC curve that lies below the AVC or the shutdown point is not part of the short run supply curve of a price-taking firm, because the firm is not engaging in any production at that point.

Therefore, the short run supply curve of a price-taking firm is the increasing portion of the short run MC curve above the shutdown point.

This follows the law of supply which states that more quantity of the product of a firm will be supplied when there is a rise in the market price.

In summary, the short run supply curve of a price-taking firm is the positively-sloped portion of the short-run marginal cost curve

Answer:

respond aggressively by cutting prices ; will do nothing and leave prices unchanged.

Explanation:

The kinked demand curve was developed by an economist, Sweezy to addressing price inflexibility associated with an oligopolist market. In an oligopolist market, prices tends to remain unchanged over a long period of time even when costs are declining. The kinked demand curve hypothesis states that a firm faces a demand curve with a kink at the prevailing price level. This means that the curve is more elastic above the kink and less elastic below it. Here, there is less response to a price increase compared to much response to a price decrease.

According to the assumption under kinked demand curve, each firm in an oligopoly believes that if a firm cut price below the prevailing level, then competitors will follow suit. This is because competitors feels that if they do not cut their prices too, then their customers will leave them and buy from the competitor that is selling at lower price.

It is also assumed that, if a firm increases the price of his goods and services above the prevailing level, then competitors will not follow suit. This means that if a firm increases the price of his goods and services, there will be reduction in sales hence competitors will not increase their price. This because customers will patronize firms with the same or similar products hence increase competitors sales.

Answer:

Multiple-step income statement for 2018.

Sales revenue                                                                  1,300,000

Cost of goods sold                                                           (720,000)

Gross Profit                                                                        580,000

Less Operating Expenses :

Gain on sale of investments                          50,000

Selling expenses                                          (160,000)

General and administrative expenses         (75,000)      (185,000)

Operating Profit                                                                  395,000

Less Non - Operating Expenses :

Interest revenue                                            30,000

Interest expense                                          (40,000)

Income tax expense                                   (130,000)      (140,000)

Net Income / (Loss)                                                           225,000

Explanation:

The Multi-step Income statement shows separately Profit derived from Primary Activities (Operating Profit) of the company against profit and the profit derived from the Secondary Activities (Net Profit) of the company.

Answer:

Expected market return = 17%

Explanation:

Given the Jump master’s beta = 1.50

Risk free rate = 2%

Market risk premium  = 10%

To find the expected return we have to use the below formula.

Expected market return = Riskfree rate + Beta × Market risk premium

Now insert all the values in order to get the expected market return.

Expected market return = 2 + 1.50 × 10

Expected market return = 17%

Answer:

13,288

Explanation:

The computation of the amount that industry produced in the core segment is shown below:

It can be determined in two ways i.e.

= 6,444 + 6,444

= 13,288

And, the other method is

= 6,444 × 2

= 13,288

In both the methods, the answer would remain the same

Hence, the 13,288 should be produced by the industry for the next year production

Answer and Explanation:

The Journal entry is shown below:-

1. Cash Dr, $15,000

          To Notes payable $15,000

(Being note payable is recorded)

2. Salaries expense Dr, $3,000

        To Federal income tax payable $750 (25% × $3,000)

        To Social security tax payable $186  (6.2% × $3000)

        To Medicare tax payable $43.50   (1.45% × $3,000)

         To Health insurance premium payable $250

         To Salaries payable $1770.50

(Being salaries expense is recorded)

Payroll tax expense Dr, 409.50

            To Social security tax payable $186 (6.2% × $3,000)

             To Medicare tax payable $43.5  (1.45% × $3,000)

             To FUTA tax payable $18 (0.6% × $3,000)

             To SUTA tax payable $162 (5.4% × $3,000)

(Being payroll tax expense is recorded)

3. Salaries payable Dr, $1,770.50

            To Cash $1,770.50

(Being cash paid is recorded)

Federal income tax payable Dr, $750

Social security tax payable Dr, $372

Medicare tax payable $87

Health insurance premium payable Dr, $250

FUTA tax payable Dr, $18

SUTA tax payable Dr, $162

                  To Cash $1,639

(Being cash paid is recorded)

4. Interest expense Dr, $300 ($15,000 × 6% × 4 ÷ 12)

              To Interest payable $300

(Being interest expense is recorded)

5. Note payable Dr, $15,000

    Interest payable Dr, $300

    Interest expense $600    ($15000 × 6% × 8 ÷ 12)

                    To Cash $15,900

(Being cash paid is recorded)

Answer: C. Involve the team in creating ground rules for the meetings.

Explanation:

The meetings have seemingly descended into anarchy and as such needs to be controlled in an orderly manner to make any sort of progress. One way this can be done is through the setting of ground rules. These rules need to be accepted and inclusive of people's qualms or else the arguments will continue.

When the rules are made therefore, the inputs of the entire team should be taken into consideration and this is what the Project manager needs to do. Setting all inclusive rules also helps the team understand each other better during the discussions are point of views will be seen and understood better.

Answer:

The level of operating income (EBIT) where the firm will be indifferent between the two plans is $33 million.

Explanation:

Indifferent level of EBIT refers to the EBIT level where the he Earnings Per Share (EPS) two alternative financial plans are the same.

Indifferent level of EBIT can be calculated using the following formula:

[(EBIT - FB) * (1 - T)] / SA = [(EBIT - FB) * (1 - T)] / SB .................... (1)

Where:

EBIT = Indifference level of EBIT

FA = Fixed interest costs under plan B = Interest on existing debt = $150 * 8% = $12 million

FB = Fixed interest costs under plan A = Interest on existing debt + Interest on new debt = ($150 * 8%) + ($60 * 10%) = $18 million

T = Tax rate = 40%, or 0.40

SA = Number of equity shares outstanding under Plan B = Existing number of shares + New number of shares = 10 million + ($60 million / $15) = 10 million + 4 million = 14 million

SB = Number of equity shares outstanding under Plan A = Existing number of shares = 10 million

Substiuting the values into equation (1) and solve for EBIT, we have:

[(EBIT - 12) * (1 - 0.40)] / 14 = [(EBIT - 18) * (1 - 0.40)] / 10

[(EBIT - 12) * 0.60] / 14 = [(EBIT - 18) * 0.60] / 10

[EBIT0.60 - 7.20] / 14 = [(EBIT0.06 - 10.80] / 10

[EBIT0.60 - 7.20] * 10 = [(EBIT0.06 - 10.80] * 14

EBIT6 - 72 = EBIT8.40 - 151.20

-72 + 151.20 = EBIT8.40 - EBIT6

EBIT2.40 = 79.20

EBIT = 79.20 / 2.40

EBIT = $33 million

Therefore, the level of operating income (EBIT) where the firm will be indifferent between the two plans is $33 million.

Answer:

Annual demand(D) = 1,210

Ordering cost(S) = $26

Annual holding cost (H) = $24

With the order quantity(Q) = 25,

Total cost = Holding cost + ordering cost

= [(Q/2)H] + [(D/Q)S]

= [(25/2)24] + [(1210/25)26]

= $300 + $1258.4

= $1558.4

With the order quantity(Q) = 40,

Total cost = Holding cost + ordering cost

= [(Q/2)H] + [(D/Q)S]

= [(40/2)24] + [(1210/40)26]

= $480 + $786.5

= $1266.5

With the order quantity(Q) = 50,

Total cost = Holding cost + ordering cost

= [(Q/2)H] + [(D/Q)S]

= [(50/2)24] + [(1210/50)26]

= $600 + $605

= $1205

With the order quantity(Q) = 60,

Total cost = Holding cost + ordering cost

= [(Q/2)H] + [(D/Q)S]

= [(60/2)24] + [(1210/60)26]

= $720 + $524.33

= $1244.33

With the order quantity(Q) = 100,

Total cost = Holding cost + ordering cost

= [(Q/2)H] + [(D/Q)S]

= [(100/2)24] + [(1210/100)26]

= $1200 + $314.6

= $1514.6

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that:

A mail-order house uses 18,000 boxes a year.

Carrying costs are 60 cents per box a year =$0.60

and ordering costs are $96.

Determine:

A. The optimal order quantity.

The optimal order quantity can be calculated by using the formula:

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{2DS}{H}}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{2*18000*96}{0.60}}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{3456000}{0.60}}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{5760000}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = 2400 \ boxes[/tex]

B. The number of orders per year.

of boxes: 1,000-1,999 Price per box: $1.25

of boxes: 2,000- 4,999 Price per box: $1.20

of boxes: 5,000- 9,999 Price per box : $1.15

of boxes: 10,000 or more Price per box : $1.10

SInce 2400 boxes lies within ''of boxes: 2,000- 4,999 Price per box: $1.20 ''

Total cost = Carrying cost + ordering cost + Purchasing cost

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{2400}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{2400}) 96+1.20*18000[/tex]

Total cost  = ( 1200) 0.60 + 7.5(96) + 1.20(18000)

Total cost  = 720 + 720 + 21600

Total cost  =  $ 23040

If the order size is 5000, the price per box will be 1.15

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{5000}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{5000}) 96+1.15*18000[/tex]

Total cost = 2500 (0.60) + 3.6 (96) + 20700

Total cost = 1500 + 345.6 + 20700

Total cost = $22545.6

If the order size is 10000 , the price per box will be 1.10

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{10000}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{10000}) 96+1.10*18000[/tex]

Total cost = 5000 (0.60) + 1.8(96)  + 19800

Total cost =  3000 + 172.8 + 19800

Total cost = $22972.8

From the three total cost, the least minimum cost of ordering is: 5000

So; the number of orders per year = total number of boxes per year/ boxes per order

the number of orders per year = 18000/5000

the number of orders per year = 3.6 orders per year

Answer: B) The option premium is greater or equal to its intrinsic value because of the time premium.

Explanation:

The option premium can be calculated by adding the time premium and the intrinsic value. The time premium is the part of the option premium that accounts for the time remaining till the premium matures while the intrinsic value is the difference between the value of underlying asset and the strike price.

As the time premium can be zero but never negative, the option premium can either be greater than its intrinsic value or equal to it. It cannot be lower than it because of the time premium.

Answer:

B) Liquidity

Explanation:

Liquidity is the ability of quickly buy or sell a stock without any price change.

Liquidity in a small-capitalization stock that has low trading volume is generally low that causes a problem for traders. It is so because in small capitalization, traders are unable to understand potential pitfalls and blindly invest in small-capitalization stocks which do not give profit as expected and the liquidity becomes low.

Hence, the correct answer is B) Liquidity.

Answer:

a performance reward.

Explanation:

A performance reward is a type of employee reward system. Companies generally reward employees in an attempt to motivate them to work more, harder or more efficiently. E.g. a company may reward salespeople that close 100 sales per week, regardless of the type of sales made. This type of reward is based on the gross amount of work carried out by the employee.

In Leslie's case, she is being rewarded for being an efficient employee. The parameter for measuring her efficiency is that 80% of the test calls that she makes are handed properly. She is not rewarded on the number of test calls, but instead on how she handled them.

This is an example of a performance reward if Leslie is going to be rewarded with a 20% bonus for handling 80% of the test calls.

A performance reward is a reward that a customer receives in an organization which is based on how well they have performed in the business.

The reward system here has stated that if Leslie is able to meet up with the target that the business has placed for her to reach she would be rewarded with a bonus of 20% when she receives her next salary.

Read more on https://brainly.com/question/15188590?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

Any amount withdrawn above the cost basis is taxable

Explanation:

This woman is above 59½ years at age 60. If she was least than 60, she would be owing a 10% penalty on the taxable amount of this withdrawal. But since she is above this age she has to pay income taxes on the whole taxable amount of the funds she withdrew. Variable annuities would never be taxed the money is withdrawn. Therefore option B is the best answer for This question.

Answer:

D) ability to discourage outside stakeholders.

Explanation:

Emotional Intelligence (EI) is important for effective leaders at all levels or organizations including CEO, as it helps in several organizational functions such as managing employee relations, satisfying employees, influencing people and forging alliances inside and outside the firm.

But a CEO with high level of EI will never discourage outside stakeholders, rather they will encourage their employees to perform better.

Hence, the correct answer is "D".

Answer:

The principal debtor's debt is secondary

Explanation:

The collateral contracts  involves three parties and one promise to perform.

A collateral contract is a separate contract which exists beside the main contract. Largely, where a written contract, the term of agreement base on the contract.

The collateral contracts are independent oral or written contracts that are made between two parties to a separate agreement or between one of the original parties and  a third party.

This type of contract is usually made before or simultaneously with the original contract.

A collateral contract is a secondary agreement added to the original contract that is meant to ensure that the pre-contract promise are met.

Collateral contracts contain terms that conflict with the terms of the primary agreement.

Learn more about Collateral contracts here:

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Answer:

Government spending required  = $2 billion

Explanation:

The required amount of GDP to achieve the full employment GDP =

Potential GDP - Actual

that is 20 - 12 = $8 billion.

But note that a government spending of less than $8 billion would be required to achieve an increase of 8 billion in real GDP. This is so because of   expenditure multiplier effect.

The expenditure multiplier is the amount by which the aggregate output would increase with an increase in any of the expenditure components.

It is calculated as follows;

Multiplier = 1/(1-MPC)

For this question ,

Expenditure multiplier = 1/(1-0.75) = 4

This implies that $1 change in any of the aggregate expenditure would lead a $4 worth of change in GDP.

Government spending required  is determined as

Desired change in real GDP/expenditure multiplier

= $8 billion/4 = $2 billion

Government spending required  = $2 billion

Answer: c.Reject the investment if it returns less than 15% ROI.

Explanation:

Additional investments should yield incremental returns if they are to be accepted. In the previous year, Division A had an Return on Investment of 15%, when an additional investment is being considered, it must bring in more than that 15% if it is to be accepted.

Therefore, if an investment is to give a less than 15% ROI, it should be rejected as it is not bringing additional returns for the Division.