Answer:
Inflammatory process: When the body is invaded by germs or a bacterial infection, the body’s immune system will respond to it by creating antibodies and sending white blood cells to fight the germs or infection. As the immune system interacts with the invading pathogen, the infection site will go through the inflammatory process. This process will vary, depending on area that is being affected. It usually will consist of an injury response, an immune response, tissue healing and wound repair. As the body goes through bacterial or physical trauma, it will immediately respond by sending white blood cells to the area. Produced in the lymph nodes and in bone marrow, white blood cells are released into the bloodstream, devouring and cannibalizing the invading pathogens. As part of the inflammatory process, the localized area usually will become tender and particularly sore. If the trauma is on the skin, then the area also will be prone to discoloration. The inflammatory process is closely linked to the immune system. The immune system will dilate the blood vessels, forcing blood that is rich with oxygen and white blood cells to surround the trauma area. Inflammation is the accumulation of white blood cells as they surround and kill the invading pathogen. As the trauma area heals, there will be a certain amount of pus. The pus is a collection of dead cells from the invading pathogen as well as cells produced by the immune system. Some swelling usually will occur during the inflammatory process. Protein and water will surround the area, making the area inflamed and slightly disfigured. The protein will contain antibodies to protect the area from being re-infected and will encourage tissue growth and healing. Pain can be an ongoing component of the inflammatory process. As the physiological aspects of the trauma area change, the area can be continuously painful and tender. The inflammatory process usually ends as soon as the invading pathogen is eradicated or as soon as the trauma area heals. Pus formations will usually stop, the area will become stable, and inflammation will subside.
Role of neutrophils & monocytes:
Tissue Macrophage Is a First Line of Defense Against Infection. Within minutes after inflammation begins, the macrophages already present in the tissues, whether histiocytes in the subcutaneous tissues, alveolar macrophages in the lungs, microglia in the brain, or others, immediately begin their phagocytic actions.
When activated by the products of infection and inflammation, the first effect is rapid enlargement of each of these cells. Next, many of the previously sessile macrophages break loose from their attachments and become mobile, forming the first line of defense against infection during the first hour or so. The numbers of these early mobilized macrophages often are not great, but they are lifesaving.
Neutrophil Invasion of the Inflamed Area Is a Second Line of Defense. Within the first hour or so after inflammation begins, large numbers of neutrophils begin to invade the inflamed area from the blood. This is caused by products from the inflamed tissues that initiate the following reactions: (1) They alter the inside surface of the capillary endothelium, causing neutrophils to stick to the capillary walls in the inflamed area. This effect is called margination. (2) They cause the intercellular attachments between the endothelial cells of the capillaries and small venules to loosen, allowing openings large enough for neutrophils to pass by diapedesis directly from the blood into the tissue spaces. (3) Other products of inflammation then cause chemotaxis of the neutrophils toward the injured tissues, as explained earlier. Thus, within several hours after tissue damage begins, the area becomes well supplied with neutrophils. Because the blood neutrophils are already mature cells, they are ready to immediately begin their scavenger functions for killing bacteria and removing foreign matter.
Lactobacillus in yogurt, some Escherichia coli in the intestines of humans and animals, and Rhizobium that fixes atmosphere nitrogen are all considered beneficial bacteria. Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a True b False
Answer: a. True.
Explanation:
Lactobacillus is a genus of gram-positive, facultative or microaerophilic bacteria that produce lactic acid. They are normally found in different parts of the body such as the mouth, digestive tract and vagina. Lactobacilli usually do not cause disease, although they can cause dental caries. Some lactobacilli have a homofermentative metabolism, that is, they produce lactic acid from sugars, which makes their environment acidic and inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria. Some species of Lactobacillus are used in the industry for the production of yogurt, cheese and other fermented foods.
Escherichia coli is a bacterium that is part of the microbiota of the gastrointestinal tract of various animals. It is a gram-negative bacillus, facultative anaerobe, and the most abundant commensal of the microbiota of the gastrointestinal tract where, together with other microorganisms, it is essential for the correct functioning of the digestive process. It also participates in the production of B and K vitamins.
Rhizobium is a genus of gram-negative soil bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen and live in symbiosis with certain plants (such as leguminous plants) in their roots, after a process of infection induced by the plant itself through the secretion of lectin, to which they provide the nitrogen necessary for the plant to live and which in return gives it shelter. Fixation is the combination of molecular nitrogen (N2) with hydrogen or oxygen to give ammonium or oxides that are incorporated into the biosphere. Molecular nitrogen, which is the major component of the atmosphere, is inert and not directly usable by most living things. Therefore, it involves the incorporation of a significant amount of nitrogen into the biosphere.
Therefore, all three are considered beneficial.
A genetic trait might be caused by incomplete dominance if:
A. red-, white-, and pink-flowered plants grow from the seeds of a
blue-flowered plant.
B. pinks, white, and red-flowered plants grow from the seeds of a
pink-flowered plant.
C. two plants with red flowers are the parents of plants with either
red flowers or white flowers.
O D. two plants with red-and-white flowers are the parents of plants
with either white flowers or pink flowers.
hola como estan soy nueva
Answer:
Buena gracias
Explanation:
In a changing environment, which of the following would be beneficial for the survival of a species?
O offspring with a variety of phenotypes
O offspring with little variation in phenotype
O offspring that closely resemble their parents
O offspring that are adapted to a specific environment
The last one
Explanation:
Offspring that are adapted to a specific environment is the beneficial for the survival of a species.
What is species?A species is an organism's fundamental unit of classification, taxonomic rank, and biodiversity. The biggest group of organisms in which any two individuals of the right sexes or mating types can conceive a fertile offspring, usually by sexual reproduction, is referred to as a species.
A species can also be identified by its karyotype, DNA sequence, anatomy, behavior, or ecological niche. In addition, since fossil reproduction cannot be studied, paleontologists use the chronospecies idea.
There are between 8 and 8.7 million different species of eukaryotes, according to the most recent accurate estimate.
All species are given a two-part name, or "binomial," with the exception of viruses.
Therefore, Offspring that are adapted to a specific environment is the beneficial for the survival of a species.
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How do Earth's spheres interact as systems, both within each sphere and with other spheres?
Answer:
All the spheres interact with other spheres. For example, rain (hydrosphere) falls from clouds in the atmosphere to the lithosphere and forms streams and rivers that provide drinking water for wildlife and humans as well as water for plant growth (biosphere). ... water evaporates from the ocean into atmosphere.
The development of vascular tissues helped plants become more successful
on land by
A. enabling gametes to live longer without a water supply
B. making the conversion of sunlight to sugar possible
C. causing them to become sporophytes
D. allowing water to move throughout a plant within its body
Can y’all please assist me.
Tools, skills, and science knowledge is known as what?
Answer:
I think the answer is capital
What protects the living organisms on the earth from extreme heat and extreme cold?
Scientists have observed many close similarities in the DNA sequences of whales and dolphins. This observation is evidence of which idea?
Dolphins, porpoises, and whales all are in the group of marine animals known as cetaceans. Scientists saw many close similarities in the DNA sequences of whales and dolphins. This observation is proof of whales and dolphins both evolved from a relatively recent common ancestor.
What is cetaceans?Cetacean are members of an aquatic group of mammals commonly known as whales, dolphins, and porpoises.
The ancient Greeks stated that cetaceans can breathe air, give birth to live young, produce milk, and have hair. These are all features of mammals.
As the scientist observed the close similarities in the DNA sequences of both the whales and the dolphins. This shows the proof that whales and dolphins both evolved from a relatively recent common ancestor.
Thus, this is the evidence to reveal the reason behind the similarities in DNA sequences in whale and dolphin.
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which of the following is not possible consequence of surface meaning?
The Nutrition Facts panel provides valuable nutrition information such as serving sizes, nutrient quantities, and Daily Values to assist individuals in making informed food choices. Use the Nutrition Facts panel from a container of cereal below to answer the following questions. Based on one serving, how many grams of total sugar do not come from an added sugar source?
Answer:
The right answer is "3 grams".
Explanation:
Yet another portion doesn't supply about 3 g of sugar from such an increased proportion.
That would be the reason why sugar has been biologically active throughout the cereal's static environment.All cereals that are given above 6 g of sugar for each serving are determined to be harmful as well as reacted by either a cereal that has very little sugar.Hownis the total magnification of a cell calculated
Answer:
The total magnification of a cell is calculated by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens (also known as eyepiece lens) and the objective lens.
WILL GIVE BRAINLIST TO CORRECT ANSWER
Two of the three points of the cell theory are listed below.
• All new cells come from preexisting ones.
• Cells are the basic units of life.
Which of the following is the third point of the cell theory?
O A. All living cells are surrounded by a rigid cell wall.
O B. All living things have many cells.
O C. All living cells have a nucleus.
D. All living things are made of at least one cell.
Answer:
All living things have a nucleus.
Explanation:
Answer:
All living things have a nucleus.
Explanation:
Ape-x
period between two periods of mitosis
Answer:
The period between mitosis divisions - that is , G1 , S and G2 - is known as interphase....What is the average for the following set of measurements?
3.1 ml, 2.7 mL, 4.6 mL, 1.9 mL, 8.7 ml?
Answer:
The average is 4.2
Explanation:
What are some factors/processes that contribute to genetic Variation:
Meiosis
Crossing Over
Mitosis
Protein Synthesis
Examine the mechanism of carbonic anhydrase. If the Zn2 were removed from the active site, and replaced with either Cu , Cd2 , or Fe3 would you expect the enzyme to still be functional
Answer: No
Explanation:
Carbonic anhydrase (CA; carbonate hydro-lyase) is a zinc-containing enzyme that catalyzes the reversible hydration of carbon dioxide: CO2+ H2O<-->HCO3(-)+H+. The enzyme is the target for drugs, such as acetazolamide, methazolamide, and dichlorphenamide, for the treatment of glaucoma.
The zinc ion is located in a cone-shaped cavity and coordinated to three histidyl residues and a solvent molecule. Inhibitors bind at or near the metal center guided by a hydrogen-bonded system comprising Glu-106 and Thr-199. The catalytic mechanism of CA II has been studied in particular detail. It involves an attack of zinc-bound OH- on a CO2 molecule loosely bound in a hydrophobic pocket. The resulting zinc-coordinated HCO3- ion is displaced from the metal ion by H2O. The rate-limiting step is an intramolecular proton transfer from the zinc-bound water molecule to His-64, which serves as a proton shuttle between the metal center and buffer molecules in the reaction medium.
Which statement describes a feedback mechanism involving the human pancreas?
1
The production of estrogen stimulates the formation of gametes for sexual reproduction.
2
The level of oxygen in the blood is related to heart rate
3
The level of sugar in the blood is affected by the amount of insulin in the blood
The production of urine allows for excretion of cell waste
The level of sugar in the blood is affected by the amount of insulin in the blood describes a feedback mechanism involving the human pancreas.
What is Pancreas?This acts as an organ and a gland and is involved in the production of insulin which regulates sugar level in the blood.
It decreases the sugar level which is why option 3 was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The middle portion of unspecialized mesoderm from which cartilage, bone, and blood develop is called . The mature cells that live in cartilage and maintain the matrix around them are . is a type of cartilage with a net of collagen fibers to help resist compression and tension. Any tissues that exist in layers and form linings or coverings fall into the category of . is the type of connective tissue that forms a structural net to support other cells. Submit Request Answer Provide Feedback Next
Answer:
The correct terms or tissues are :
mesenchyme
chondrocytes
fibrocartilage
stratified epithelia
reticular connective tissue
Explanation:
1. Mesenchyme is comprised of loose cells embedded in a mesh of proteins and fluid that makes the middle portion of the unspecialized mesoderm from which cartilage, bone, and blood develop.
2. The mature cells that live in cartilage and maintain the matrix around them are chondrocytes.
3. Fibrocartilage is a type of cartilage with a net of collagen fibers to help resist compression and tension.
4. Any tissues that exist in layers and form linings or coverings fall into the category of stratified epithelia.
5.. Reticular connective tissue is the type of connective tissue that is a supportive structural network fibre to support other cells.
The average amino acid length of proteins in Escherichia coli is 235. Therefore, according to the video, the elongation time for an average E. coli protein would be about _______seconds.
How is the small ribosomal unit positioned to allow for translation to start at the proper start codon?Choose one:
A. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
B. The start codon sequence is specifically attracted to the P site.
C. Initiation factors position the mRNA accordingly.
D. The small ribosomal subunit starts at the far 5' end of mRNA where the start codon is located.
Answer:
approximately 15 seconds
A. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
Explanation:
In Escherichia coli, it has been shown that the translation elongation rate is approximately 16 amino acids per ribosome per second (16 x 15 = 240). On the other hand, the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a polypurine stretch of variable length present in prokaryotic cells and acts as a ribosomal binding site for the messenger RNA (mRNA). This sequence can base-pair to a complementary sequence known as the 'anti-Shine-Dalgarno sequence' at the 3' end of the bacterial 16S rRNA subunit and is required to initiate the process of translation by which a polypeptide chain is synthesized. Generally, the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is located from 10 to 8 nucleotides upstream of the start codon (AUG codon). In E. coli, the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is AGGAGGU.
Algal blooms, and the rapid proliferation of photosynthetic plankton can ultimately end up depleting all the oxygen from a body of water
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The proliferation of phytoplankton (microalgae) may decrease the visibility which causes oxygen (O2) depletion because they consume important amounts of O2 during the night and cloudy days. An algal bloom refers to the sudden increase in the population of algae in water bodies. These algae consume O2 and block the sunlight from underwater plants. As the algae die and decompose, O2 concentration in the water decreases, and, in consequence, most aquatic life that depends on oxygen dies.
Answer: true
Explanation:
took the test 2023 edg
What are the sum of all life functions 
Answer:
Regulation, Control, Coordination, Growth, Nutrient, Nutrition, Homeotasis
Use the Lotka-Volterra competition model to determine whether the two species of Paramecium will coexist or drive each other to extinction in the scenario below. In these examples, N1 = N2, and K1 = K2 = 50.
Scenario 1: Determine the outcome of the competitive interaction between P. caudatum and P. aurelia if K1 = K2 = 50, α = 0.3, and β = 0.6.
Scenario 2: Determine the outcome of the competitive interaction between P. caudatum and P. aurelia if K1 = K2 = 50, α = 1.5, and β = 0.6.
Scenario 3: Determine the outcome of the competitive interaction between P. caudatum and P. aurelia if K1 = K2 = 50, α = 0.9, and β = 1.2.
Answer:they drive each other to extinction
Explanation:
reasons why transpiration is important in plant
Soil nutrients are important to photosynthesis because they _____.
help open and close stomata to retain water
increase the absorption of carbon dioxide
help with chlorophyll formation
Answer:
are the plants food
Explanation:
the nutrients is the energy for the plant, they give the plant energy.
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Answer:a,c,d,b
Explanation:room anatomy
Answer:
1. a
2. b
3. b
4. c
Explanation:
Gene regulation is a section of the DNA that contains the genes for the proteins needed for a
specific metabolic pathway.
A True
B False
Answer:
The correct answer is - B. false.
Explanation:
A section or segment of the DNA that contains the genes for the proteins needed for a specific metabolic pathway is called an operon. Gene regulation on other hand is the process of an organism to control which genes are transcribed.
Gene regulation is the ability of turning the genes on or off for transcription. It is regulated by various ways such as chemically modifying genes and using regulatory proteins.
Give three reasons why you might have a situation in which bacterial colonies were found on the first section of a streak plate, but not on sections two and three.
Hi. You have not shown the sections this question refers to, nor have you provided more information about those sections. This makes it difficult for your question to be answered. However, I will try to help you as best I can.
Generally speaking, we can consider that there was no growth of bacterial colonies in sections 2 and 3, because, for some reason, the bacteria was not inoculated in sections 2 and 3. What could also have happened, is that the bacteria in the sections 2 and 3 were eliminated, but the bacteria from section 1 managed to survive and form colonies.
Another possibility is that after inoculating the bacteria in section 1, you didn't handle the bacteria correctly in the other sections, leaving that bacteria to dry out and die.
Finally, the culture media in sections 2 and 3 could be inappropriate for bacteria to develop and form colonies.
The figure describes what kind of evolution method?
A. Natural selection
B. Gene flow
C. Genetic Drift
D. non-random mating
Answer:
gene flow
Explanation:
According to Lamarck, the
characteristics of organisms changed
because of:
A. extinction of competitors
B. a desire or need for that trait
C. special acts of creation
D. genetic mutation
E. chance
Answer:
Maybe..........B?.............
Explanation:
