Answer:
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION:
-creates genetically unique offspring
-organism needs time to reach adulthood to reproduce
-requires the contribution of two parents
ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION:
-creates genetically identical offspring
-organism doesn’t have to waste energy to find a mate
-requires the contribution of a single parent
Explanation:
Living organisms employ two types of reproduction to produce their offsprings. They are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction.
Sexual reproduction is that reproduction involving the fusion of two sex cells from opposite sex individuals i.e. male and female. Sexual reproduction forms offsprings with unique genetic contents, which is as result of the meiotic process that each individual organism undergoes to produce gametes or sex cells (sperm and eggs). Since there must be a fusion of gametic cells, sexual reproduction requires the contribution of two parents (a male and a female). Also, the parents only undergo meiosis to produce gametes at certain points in their life. Hence, they have to wait to reach adulthood to do that.
On the other hand, asexual reproduction involves only the contribution of one parent as the fusion of genetic material is not needed. Hence, the offsprings form by cellular division that makes it genetically identical to the parent cell. Energy is not needed to find a mate, the organism simply reproduces on its own by dividing into daughter cells.
A cell biologist examines a diploid cell from a barley plant during prometaphase of mitosis and determines that 28 chromatids are present. The role of meiosis in this plant is to (Check all that apply)
Answer:
A cell biologist examines a diploid cell from a barley plant during prometaphase of mitosis and determines that 28 chromatids are present. The role of meiosis in this plant is to reduce the number of chromosomes per cell from 14 to 7.
Explanation:
Meiosis is a process that happens in two different phases, and there are many more steps in every phase. This procedure reduces the number from diploid to haploid, that's why the number of chromosomes per cell reduces from 14 to 7. Thanks to this process we have diversity in every organism that has sexual reproduction.
Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that necrosis:_______ a. requires the reception of an extracellular signal. b. causes DNA to fragment. c. causes cells to swell and burst, whereas apoptotic cells shrink and condense.d. involves a caspase cascade
Answer:
c. causes cells to swell and burst, whereas apoptotic cells shrink and condense
Explanation:
These two mechanism are responsible for death of cells in multi cellular organisms.Apoptosis is naturally occurring process which is well organised and programmed.It is ensures the automatic death of old and worn out cells, needed for certain cellular developments. This is demonstrated by DNA fragmentation,cell shrinkage,and the break down of the nuclear walls.It can be initiated through two pathways of intrinsic and extrinsic,The latter leads to death from internal factors,while in the former is when external factor causes the death .
However,when cell death is influenced by external factors(toxins) in the cell environments,which lead to unpredictable or unregulated process leading to cell death ,the process is called Necrosis.it is demonstrated with the swelling and busting of the cell.and characterised with inflammation. It is an accidental death which causes injuries to the cells and tissues.
The ostrich is a bird. However, it has traits that are different from those of the birds we typically see flying around our neighborhoods. Using credible sources, investigate the environment and adaptations of ostriches to explain how they evolved to survive in their environment.
Answer:
According to National Geographic, ostriches are a part of a very small group of birds that cannot fly because unlike most birds, their small wings are not strong enough to carry their body for flight and their breastbone isn't balanced enough for flying. Birds that are unable to fly are called ratites.
A number of scientists namely Thomas Huxley, Richard Owen, and others have tried to show that these ratites are actually related to each other and eventually, it was discovered that they all had one thing in common, the way the bones at the roof of the mouth were arranged was similar to that of reptiles rather than other birds.
Richard Owen found and assembled the remains of an extinct ostrich skeleton which was an extinct moa and contrary to already held opinion, one ratite known as tinamous did not really fit with the profile of a ratite because it could fly, even though almost grudgingly and they possessed keeled sternum which suggests that they evolved from flying birds.
DNA tests showed that tinamous evolved within ratites and not necessarily as a separate entity. The tests also showed that moas and tinamous are related.
It was also speculated that the division of the supercontinent Pangaea southern side led to the separation of flightless ratite ancestors, causing each landlocked group to evolve and become the flightless birds we know today such as the ostrich, rheas, etc.
Answer:
An ostrich is an extremely large bird that lives in Africa. It can’t fly, but it has powerful legs that allow it to outrun most predators. Its flexible knees and two-toed feet enable it to run easily. An ostrich has strong leg muscles that it can use to kick large predators. It has claws on its wings to defend itself from predators and thick feathers to keep it warm at night. Ostriches have thick eyelids that protect their eyes from sandstorms.
Explanation:
Which statement about malaria and sickle-cell anemia is correct? (1 point)
Malaria causes a decreased incidence of sickle-cell anemia,
Sickle-cell anemia causes an increased incidence of malaria.
Sickle-cell anemia is correlated with an increased incidence of malana
Malaria is correlated with a decreased incidence of sickle cell anemia
Answer:
sickle cell anemia cause an increase risk of malaria
Explanation:
Which of the following accurately describes this element?
Answer:
Answer Expert Verified
The correct statements are: - Elements are made up of only one type of atom. - Each element has a unique chemical symbol. - Elements can be identified by their atomic number.
Activity 12-5: A Dihybrid Punnett Square. Consider your answers in the previous question. In a separate piece of paper, solve the Punnett square for a cross between two heterozygous individuals (BbRr x BbRr); write the genotypes of the gametes along the top and the side of the square and fill in the squares.
Answer:
See the answer below
Explanation:
For each heterozygous parent with the genotype BbRr, the possible gametes are: BR, Br, bR, and br. A set of these gametes from one of the parents will be lined up along the top of the Punnet's square while another set from the other parent will be lined up along the side of the square.
The result is shown in the attached image.
During genetic engineering, how do Restriction enzymes know what base pairs to act on? A. Ligase bonds it to the correct spot. B. They don’t, the scientist must target it manually. C. They bond to the Recognition site. D. It recognizes the sticky ends.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Restriction enzymes, also known as restriction endonucleases or DNA-cutter identify the base pairs to act on by targeting and binding to the recognition site in a gene.
The recognition site in a gene/DNA consists of four to eight palindromic nucleotide sequence. It is a region that the restriction enzyme cuts during the genetic engineering process in order to produce sticky or blunt ends. A gene might contain more than one recognition site.
Restriction enzymes are usually found in prokaryotic organisms, especially bacteria where they function primarily as defense molecules against bacteriophages.
Correct option: C
"If an organism were to die in an environment that had no saprotrophs or detritivores, what would you expect to see if you observed the area 2 weeks later?"
Answer: The options are not given, here are the options.
A. There will be no difference as compared to an area that has saprotrophs and detritivores. •
B. There would be nothing left, it will have completely decomposed. •
C. The body would remain, and be just as it was when it died except for weathering. •
D. The body would be decomposing at about half the normal speed.
The correct option is C.
The body would remain, and be just as it was when it died except for weathering.
Explanation:
"If an organism were to die in an environment that had no saprotrophs or detritivores, The body would remain, and be just as it was when it died except for weathering because detrivores and feed on organic matter and excrete the nutrients, without detrivores and saprotroph the the organic matter in the dead organisms will still remain the same.
Detrivores are organisms that feed on dead organic matter and releasing nutrients to the ecosystem through it's wastes.
Saprotroph are decomposers that survive on or in dead organic matter secreting enzymes and releasing nutrients to the ecosystem. Examples is fungi.
Without detrivore and and saprotroph the dead organisms will remain the same except from weathering be side weathering is carried out through the activities of air, water or some agents.
if a wild game animal is slaughtered under usda guidelines can it be prepared and served A:No. A wild game animal can never be served B:Yes a wild game animal can be served C:No wild game animals cannot be eated D:Maybe if you seek usda permission
Answer: C:) No wild game animals cannot be eated
Explanation: hope that helps (:
How is the mechanism of hearing different if the handle of the tuning fork is held on the mastoid process instead of holding the tuning fork tines near the ear canal?
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The sound enters the inner ear directly when it is held on the mastoid process, which is a change in the hearing mechanism. It is done for Rinne test.
What is a tuning fork?A tuning fork is a U-shaped metal object that has a handle of metal below it. It is used in hearing tests.
Thus, the difference in the mechanism of hearing when it is held on the mastoid process is the sound gets directly into the inner ear. It is done for the Rinne test.
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____________________ syndrome occurs when inflamed and swollen tendons are caught in the narrow space between the bones of the shoulder joint.
Answer:
Tendonitis
Explanation:
When a part of the body becomes too overused it can cause the tendons(fiborous connective tissue) to swell and fluid will accumulate around the tendon which connects muscle to bone. Along with this the lining of the tendon can become inflamed which causes Tenosynovitis.
Draw concentric circles and label the four layers of the gut. Also label the hole at the inner most circle. List what is in these four layers.
Explanation:
here is your answer hopes it's helps u
We can find four principal layers composing the digestive tube walls. From the lumen to the exterior: Mucosa, Submucosa, Muscle, and Serosa Layers.
-----------------------------
There are four principal layers composing the digestive tube walls.
From the lumen to the exterior of the tube, we can find,
Mucosa Layer
Composed of lining epithelium, a propria lamina of connective tissue, and a smooth muscle layer.
The epithelium works as a barrier that separates the lumen from the organ.
Propria lamina has glands, vessels that get the absorbed substances, and immune system elements.
The smooth muscle delimitates the mucose from the submucosa layer. It produces movements that are independent of the rest of the organ's movements.
Submucosa Layer
Dense connective tissue is placed under the mucosa.
It has bigger vessels that ramification to the mucose, muscle layer, and serosa layer.
In certain areas, this layer also has glands.
Muscle Layer
Composed of two or three concentric smooth muscle layers that differ in their orientation.
The contraction of these layers mixes and propels the content of the lumen of the digestive tube.
Serosa layer
Connective tissue membrane covered by simple plane epithelium.
High caliber vessels are placed in this layer and limphatic vessels.
There are regions of the digestive tube where there is no serosa layer. Instead, there is a connective tissue named the adventitious layer.
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Which organisms transform nitrogen to a form that is useful to plants?
bacteria
animals
fungi
humans
Answer:
Bacteria
Explanation:
Nitrogen fixation is the step of the nitrogen cycle that occurs with the help of microbes. Bacteria transform the nitrogen into a usable form for the plants. Thus, option a is correct.
What are nitrogen-fixing bacteria?The nitrogen cycle is the part of the biogeochemical cycle that converts nitrogen into other forms that can be used by plants. The nitrogen is converted through the nitrogen-fixing bacterias.
The nitrogen-fixing bacterias are heterotrophic in nature that lives freely in the soil. A few examples are Bacillus, Azotobacter, Clostridium, etc. These bacterias transform the atmospheric nitrogen into usable compounds called ammonia which is the fixed nitrogen and can be used by the plants.
Therefore, nitrogen-fixing bacterias transform nitrogen.
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The origin and the insertion are made up of __________.
Answer:tendon
I think so..
can someone tell me what crabs these are.
Answer:
Loxorhynchus grandis
While cooking, Lisa spills boiling water on her hand. Her skin turns blotchy with blisters. Which type of burn does she have? A. first-degree burn B. second-degree burn C. third-degree burn
Answer:
B
Explanation: First degree only makes the skin turn red
Can carbon dioxide or carbon monoxide cause carbon poisoning?
Explanation:
carbon monoxide can cause carbon poisoning.
If the Gulf Stream stopped running, how would the climates of North America and Europe be affected?
Answer: Land would become infertile, habitat loss, & environmental changes
Explanation:
Because there wouldn't be alot of water to keep the soil moist, therefore the ground would begin to harden and get dry. :)
If the Gulf Stream stopped, the climates of North America and Europe would be colder and drier.
The gulf stream is a huge current of warm and fast-moving ocean water. This ocean current plays a key role in regulating temperatures across the globe and has an impact on the frequency and intensity of storms and rainfall. The collapse and stoppage of this stream will cause an array of problems, including but not limited to:
Reduced rainfallLower temperaturesFewer stormsAreas that would be particularly affected by this are North America and Europe. This is due to the direction that the gulf stream flows, carrying warm water along these boundaries.
The vast amount of warm water carried by this stream explains how it is able to affect the average temperatures of these coastal areas, with the disappearance of the stream, temperatures in North America and Europe would initially decrease.
The warm water carried by this current is also responsible for increased rainfall. Warm water on the surface of the ocean is heated by the sun and evaporates, creating clouds, which then provide rain. The absence of this current would dramatically affect cloud formation and reduce the amount of rain severely. This can lead to droughts and reduced agriculture.
Though Fewer storms may seem like a positive impact, it is not entirely. Storms play a crucial part (together with ocean currents) in regulating global temperatures, as well as provide a source of rainfall to end droughts and promote biodiversity in areas that depend on water and humid climates.
The gulf stream is important for maintaining climates and rainfall. If it were to stop, climates in North America and Europe would be colder and drier.
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Explain why it is necessary to include only one chain-terminating/synthesis-terminating nucleotide in each well of the electrophoresis instrument.
Answer:
Explanation:
Generally for the formation of phosphosdiester bond between two nucleotide molecules 3'-OH group is needed between the sugar molecule of one nucleotide and the OH group of the sugar present in the other nucleotide above it. However,in the single chain terminating molecule The 3'-OH is lacking.
Hence,DNA polymerace enzyme(which catalysis DNA replication) will not be able to elongate the DNA molecules, through replications with the addition of di-deoxynucleotidetriphosphates (ddNTP). Thus inhibiting replication and therefore chain terminations,
Does climate change tend to be more abrupt or gradual? Explain your response.
Answer:
Gradual**
Explanation:
This seems to be an opinion based question but i mean if you look back at history in the early ages or pre- industrialization the worls had very little pollution but gradually as factories cars and other things started being invented we as humans started releasing harmful substances into our atmosphere which began slowly craving away at the ozone layer and til date we are doing the same thing and are facing climate change/ global warming. The world did not suddenly face this problem.
I hope this makes sense
What causes potential energy that accumulates in a fault to transfer to the surface during an earthquake? A. refraction B. Triangulation C. Seismic waves D. Lithostatic pressure
Answer: C.
Explanation: Seismic waves causes potential energy that accumulates in a fault to transfer to the surface during an earthquake.
Seismic waves cause potential energy that accumulates in a fault to transfer to the surface during an earthquake. So, the correct option is C.
What are Seismic waves?A seismic wave is defined as a wave of acoustic energy that travels through the Earth or any other planetary body that can be generated by an earthquake, volcanic eruption, magma movement, a large landslide, and a large man-made explosion that produces low frequency acoustics energy.
There are three basic types of seismic waves which are as follows:
P-wavesS-waves Surface waves.P-waves and S-waves are sometimes collectively referred to as body waves.
Thus, Seismic waves cause potential energy that accumulates in a fault to transfer to the surface during an earthquake. So, the correct option is C.
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A response to an unconditioned stimulus that occurs naturally without learning is known as a(n) __________ response.
A. neutral
B. conditioned
C. reconditioned
D. unconditioned
Answer:
it is going o be B. conditioned
Answer:
D
Explanation:
edge
What are two theories proposed to explain Primate Origins and how do they relate to traits we see in modern primates
Answer:
The level of specialization is given by the function.
The function of the organ makes the cell as it becomes mature, its more specific function becomes.
First, a stem cell differentiates itself into a hepatic or neuronal cell, thus generating that its functions are limited compared to the rest of the stem cells.
After this process, throughout the cell development and maturation of the organ, its cells become more specific in a single activity.
Explanation:
The differentiation of the stem cells is regulated by the genetic code, the migration of these during the embryonic stage of the mouse and the external stimulation that these stem cells perceive.
Note the mechanism of absorption (passive or active transport) of the following food breakdown products, and indicate by a check mark whether the absorption would result in their movement into the blood capillaries of the lymphatic capillaries (lacteals).
Substance Mechanism of absorption Blood Lymph
Monosaccharides
Fatty acids and glycerol
Amino acids
Water
Ca2+ , Na+ , Ca2+
Answer:
The absorption of monosaccharides takes place via facilitated and cotransport mechanism and is transported through blood capillaries present in the villi.
The absorption of glycerol and fatty acids takes place through diffusion and the majority of them are transported via lymph capillaries, while some are transported through blood capillaries.
The absorption of amino acids takes place via a cotransport mechanism with sodium ions and is transported through blood capillaries.
The absorption of water takes place by the process of osmosis via diffusion and is transported with the help of blood capillaries.
The absorption of calcium and sodium ions takes place via an active transport mechanism, while the absorption of chlorine takes place via the process of diffusion. The transportation of all these ions takes place with the help of blood capillaries.
if a person who is blood type O marries a person who is blood type A, what are the possible blood types their children could have
Answer:
The possible blood types their children could have are A or 0.
Explanation:
The I gene determines the blood type of a person. I is the dominant allele, while i is the recessive allele.
IA dominant over i. The person presents A type of antigens. IB dominant over i. The person presents B type of antigens. IA and IB are codominant. The person presents both types of antigens, A and B. i is the recessive allele. The person does not present any antigen.Cross: a person who is blood type O with a person who is blood type A
Parental) ii x IA-
Gametes) i i IA -
Punnet Square) IA -
i IAi -i
i IAi -i
The - symbol represents the possibility of either IA allele or i allele. This is, the parental with blood type A might have the genotype IAIA or IAi
F1) 2/4 = 1/2 IAi
2/4 = 1/2 -i (-i could be either IAi or ii, depending on the genotype of the parental with blood type A)
Option 1: ii x IAIAF1) 100% IAi (The whole progeny will have blood type A)
Option 2: ii x IAiF1) 50% IAi (Half of the progeny will have blood type A)
50% ii (Halfa of the progeny will have blood type 0)
The possible blood types their children could have are A or 0.
The client has experienced a stroke, and her speech is now garbled. The client may have experienced damage to which of the following?
A. Brainstem
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Frontal lobe
D. Cerebellum
Answer:
C
Explanation:
A person with garbled speech may have experienced damage to the frontal lobe portion of the brain.
This is because the left portion of the frontal lobe of the brain is an area that has been touted to be responsible for the control of speech in humans. Research in the past has shown that damage to that region of the brain affects the formation of spontaneous speech as well as motor speech control.
Hence, garbled speech in someone that has experienced stroke can be attributed to damage to the frontal lobe.
Correct option: C.
Complete each sentence by putting the labels to the appropriate blanks. Then place each sentence in a logical order beginning with blood entering the right side of the heart.
a. Blood enters the right ventricle from the right atrium through the right atrioventricular valve which is also known as the_________.
b. From the left ventricle, the blood is pumped up to the___________ through the left semilunar valve which is sometimes referred to as the___________.
c. Beginning with the return from the systemic circulation, blood enters the________.
d. The right ventricle contracts next, which forces blood up through the right semilunar valve which is otherwise known as the__________.
e. After circulating through the blood returns to the_______.
f. From the left atrium, blood moves through the left________ which is also referred to as the________ or mitral valve.
1. bicuspid
2. tricuspid valve
3. right atrioventricular valve
4. right atrium
5. aortic valve
6. left atrioventricular valve
7. atrioventricular valve
8. pulmonary valve
9. left atrium
10. aorta
11. pulmonary capillaries
12. systemic capillaries
Answer:
c. Beginning with the return from the systemic circulation, blood enters the right atrium.
a. Blood enters the right ventricle from the right atrium through the right atrioventricular valve which is also known as the tricuspid valve
d. The right ventricle contracts next, which forces blood up through the right semilunar valve which is otherwise known as the pulmonary valve .
e. After circulating through the pulmonary capillaries, the blood returns to the left atrium.
f. From the left atrium, blood moves through the left atrioventricular valve which is also referred to as the bicuspid or mitral valve.
b. From the left ventricle, the blood is pumped up to aorta the through the left semilunar valve which is sometimes referred to as the aortic valve.
Explanation:
c. Beginning with the return from the systemic circulation, blood enters the right atrium.
a. Blood enters the right ventricle from the right atrium through the right atrioventricular valve which is also known as the tricuspid valve
d. The right ventricle contracts next, which forces blood up through the right semilunar valve which is otherwise known as the pulmonary valve .
e. After circulating through the pulmonary capillaries, the blood returns to the left atrium.
f. From the left atrium, blood moves through the left atrioventricular valve which is also referred to as the bicuspid or mitral valve.
b. From the left ventricle, the blood is pumped up to aorta the through the left semilunar valve which is sometimes referred to as the aortic valve.
Which hormone released by the highlighted structure stimulates the release of TSH from the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)? Which hormone released by the highlighted structure stimulates the release of TSH from the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)? TRH CRH GHIH GHRH
Answer:
Explanation:
hypothalamus release thyrotropin releasing hormone(TRH) which stimulate the pituitary gland to release TSH
The activity of the thyroid gland is regulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), also called thyrotropin. TSH is released from the anterior pituitary in response to thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
How do you stimulate TSH production?Eating a portion of Essential Fats at every meal which includes extra olive oil, flaxseed oil, raw unsalted nuts and seeds, avocados, and oily fish, will improve thyroid hormone levels as our cell receptors become more able to take up thyroid hormone.
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This food web reveals that, as matter flows
through trophic levels,
A. matter from consumers, such as the green lynx
spider, is eventually recycled by decomposers,
such as a fungus.
B.matter from producers, such as the cutleaf daisy,
is immediately recycled by decomposers, such
as a bacterium.
C. matters from all organisms, such as the Bald
eagle, is dissipated at each level and none of it
is recycled.
D. matter from the Sun is recycled after many years
by consumers, such as a Bachman's sparrow.
Answer:
There is no food web attached to this question but it can be answered because matter flows uniformly through trophic levels in all food webs.
The correct answer is;
A. matter from consumers, such as the green lynx spider, is eventually recycled by decomposers, such as a fungus.
Explanation:
A food web is an interconnected series of food chain showing how organisms feed on one another to obtain energy. A food web always start with a unique set of autotrophic organisms i.e. capable of producing their own food called PRODUCERS. Producers such as the cutleaf daisy in this question create the organic matter via the process of photosynthesis, which gets transferred to organisms that feed on them called CONSUMERS e.g green lynx spider
Consumers are heterotrophic i.e rely on other organisms for source of energy. As they feed on other organisms and get fed on, the matter gets transferred until the last consumer dies. The dead matter in the dead organism gets decomposed by organisms called decomposers e.g fungi and it gets recycled back into the soil as nutrients for use by plants.
Therefore, dead matter from consumers, such as the green lynx spider, is eventually recycled by decomposers, such as a fungus.
12. Phenotypes, such as eye color, are controlled by multiple genes. If eye color was controlled by the number of genes indicated below, how many possible genotypes would there be?
Answer:
Following are the answer to this question:
Explanation:
In the given question some data is missing so, the answer to this question can be defined as follows:
In the question first, we explain Phenotypes and genotypes then we defined the above choices solution:
The Phenotype relates to the physical attributes of the organism that are observable and include nature, development, and behavior of the organism. The genotype is the organism's genetic structure, which decides a person's hereditary potentials and limitations from such an embryo to adult life.The choices description can be defined as follows:
In choice 1, The 5 genes are equal to 32 genotypes. In choice 2, The 10 genes are equal to 1024 genotypes. In choice 3, The 20 genes are equal to 1048576 genotypes.The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
1. Phenotypes, such as eye color, are controlled by multiple genes. If eye color was controlled by the number of genes indicated below, how many possible genotypes would there be?
5 Genes:
10 Genes:
20 Genes:
In the given question, the possible genotypes will be 32, 1024 and 1048576.
The calculations of the number of genotypes:The color of the eye is controlled by many genes. The individuals observable traits like height and color of the eye is known as a phenotype. The genetic contribution to the phenotype is known as the genotype.
The number of genotypes can be determined by using the formula,
2ⁿ.
In case when n is 5, then the number of possible genotypes will be,
2⁵ = 32
In case when n is 10, then the number of possible genotypes will be,
2¹⁰ = 1024
In case when n is 20, then the number of possible genotypes will be,
2²⁰ = 1048576
Thus, the number of possible genotypes is 32, 1024 and 1048576.
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