FILL IN THE BLANK. a value-returning statement must have a(n) ____ statement. question 11 options: logical void return assignment

Answers

Answer 1

A value-returning statement must have a return statement.

what is return statement?

The function from which it was called receives the execution flow back in the return statement. There is no requirement that conditional statements be used with this sentence. The moment the statement is executed, the program's flow immediately halts and returns control to the caller. A non-void function must return a return value; a void function's return statement may or may not return anything.

Using a return statement in a function with a void return type: Now the issue of what happens if a return statement is contained within a void return type function arises. Since we are aware of this, we can conclude that a function declaration for which the return type is void will not have a return statement.

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Related Questions

which of the following tactile receptors is found in the dermal papillae? identification of tactile receptors which of the following tactile receptors is found in the dermal papillae? identification of tactile receptors tactile disc ruffini corpuscle free nerve endings tactile corpuscle

Answers

Meissner corpuscle or tactile corpuscle is the tactile receptor found in the dermal papillae.

Professor Georg Meissner and Professor Rudolf Wagner initially identified Meissner corpuscles, often referred to as Wagner-Meissner corpuscles or tactile corpuscles, as a subset of mechanoreceptors in 1852. These unique encapsulated nerve terminals transmit low-frequency vibration and fine touch sensations to the central nervous system from the dermal papillae of glabrous skin (CNS). Meissner corpuscles are crucial for somatosensory acuity, particularly in the palmar skin and digital extremities. This has clinical implications for diabetic neuropathy, peripheral neuropathy, and the aging-related deterioration of dermatological tactile sense.

Meissner corpuscles are ellipsoid mechanoreceptors that are situated 150 micrometres superficially within the dermal papillae. The corpuscles have a long axis that is perpendicular to the skin's surface and are between 20 and 40 micrometres in diameter and 80 and 150 micrometres in length. Less than three corpuscles per papilla, with one corpuscle every two to four dermal papillae. The site of genesis affects the receptors' size and density.

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then major contribution of forensic entomology to death inestigations is

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In situations  forensic entomology where insects have attacked a corpse, the main benefit is to assist in determining the PMI.

For what is forensic entomology most known?

The use of species identification, known growth rates, and data on insect succession to pinpoint the site and roughly establish the time of the victim's death is the main focus of entomology study and case application in forensic science.

What three things can an entomologist use forensics to determine?

Forensic scientists can determine the postmortem index, any shift in the corpse's posture, and the cause of death by observing the insect population and the growing larval stages.

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During the cell cycle, the cell divides its nucleus and chromosomes during. The cytoplasm and cell membrane divide during. Before the cell can divide again, it must grow and synthesize proteins during the phase and duplicate its chromosomes during the phase.

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During the mitotic (M) phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells. M phase involves two distinct division-related processes: mitosis and cytokinesis.

The fluidy substance that fills a cell's inside is called cytoplasm. Salts, water, and numerous organic compounds make up its composition. Membranes surround some intracellular organelles, such as the nucleus and mitochondria, and keep them from coming into contact with the cytoplasm. One cell (the mother) splits into two genetically identical new cells (the daughters) during the process of mitosis, a kind of cell division. In the context of the cell cycle, mitosis refers to the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.

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concept map connective tissues

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Connective tissues are tissues that supports, protects, and gives structure to other tissues and organs in the body. All other types of tissues in the body are supported by connective tissues, which joins or divides them.

Like all tissue types, it is made up of cells encased in a space of liquid known as the extracellular matrix (ECM). In contrast to other types of tissue, connective tissue's cells are loosely rather than densely packed within the ECM.

Types of connective tissue

Two distinct forms of connective tissue are distinguished based on the cells present and the ECM structure.

Connective tissue proper; further broken down into loose and dense connective tissues.Specialised connective tissue; adipose tissues, cartilage, bone, blood,  and reticular.

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Cells that have absorbed melanin to distribute pigmentation to other cells are located in what layer of the skin?.

Answers

Answer:

k

Explanation:

The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________.
A. Muscularis mucosae
B. Serosa
C. Adventitia
D. Lamina propria

Answers

The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the Lamina propria (Option D).

What are the capillary blood vessels?

The capillaries are small vessels capable of transporting oxygen and nutrients to all cells of the body in order to perform cellular respiration, which is fundamental to obtaining energy in the form of ATP.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the small capillary blood vessels that lie in the lamina propria and other tissues in the body are required to transport both oxygen and nutrients.

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Nitrogen has an atomic number of seven. How many electron shells does it likely have?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. Four

Answers

Nitrogen has two electron shells.

What are electron shells?

An atom's outermost region, which surrounds the atomic nucleus, is known as the electron shell. It consists of a collection of atomic orbitals with the same value of the fundamental quantum number, n. One or more electron subshells, also known as sublevels, exist within electron shells.

It is used to explain the distinct area that electrons occupy around an atom's nucleus and is sometimes referred to as an orbital or atomic shell. Because electrons contain energy, electron shells are occasionally referred to as energy levels. The energy of electrons decreases as they get further away from the nucleus.

There are a maximum of two electrons per s subshell. At most 6 electrons can fit in each p subshell. Maximum number of electrons in each d subshell is 10. Maximum number of electrons in a f subshell is 14.

Therefore, Nitrogen has two electron shells.

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place each choice in its correct position on the typical multipolar neuron in the figure. place the anatomical names of neuron structures above the neuron. place the events that occur at the bracketed locations below the neuron.

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Multipolar neurons are neurons from the central nervous system. They are composed of an ovoid cell body with several dendrites emerging from it, a long axon, and axon terminals. Graded potential occurs in the neuronal soma, while action potential occurs in the axon.  

What is a multipolar neuron?

Neurons are formed in general by

A cellular body, soma,Dendrites, which are cytoplasmic extensions that receive stimuli from other cells, and An axon, which is a long formation capable of conducting the electrochemical signals.

Multipolar neurons are the ones that have a single axon and several dendrites.

Dendrites emerge from an ovoidal soma, and extend in different directions, creating a net and increasing the neuronal area to receive stimuli.

Axons are very large and covered by Schwann cells, facilitating impulse transmission.

These neurons are usually located in the central nervous system and integrate information coming from other nerve cells.

Every neuron forms connections with other neurons. These connections are known as synapsis.

As it happens in every synapsis between neurons when a presynaptic neuron sends information, a neurotransmitter is released.

Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that travel through the synaptic cleft to the junctional area of the other neuron and bind to its receptors in the postsynaptic membrane.

This binding produces a depolarization of the cell called an excitatory postsynaptic potential.

Graded potential initiates in the soma and dendrites.An action potential is initiated in the axon and spreads to the rest of the membrane depolarizing it.

In the image,

Anatomical names from the left to the right: dendrite, body cell, initial segment of the axon, axon, axon terminals.

Events from the left to the right: graded potential, action potential.

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lactic acid was generated by the leg muscles after a bunch of hard squats and is now circulating in the blood which of the following is likely to occur as a compensation of this lactic acid buildup

Answers

The following are likely to occur as a compensation of lactic acid buildup:

Decreased urinary pHIncreased H+ in bloodIncreased hyperventilationIncreased H+ selection

What is lactic acid?
Red blood cells
and muscle cells are the principal producers of lactic acid. When oxygen levels are low, it develops when the body metabolizes carbohydrates for energy.

In the body, lactic acid serves three basic purposes:

as a significant source of energy for mitochondria as a starting point for the production of glucose as a signalling molecule

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Which organelles are found in an animal cell?check all that apply. Endoplasmic reticulumcentriolescell wallvacuoleslysosomesmitochondriachloroplastscell membrane.

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The organelles present in an animal cell are-endoplasmic reticulum, centrioles, vacuoles, lysosomes, mitochondria, and cell membrane.

The endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane. It facilitates the production of chemical compounds as well as their transport into and out of the nucleus.

During meiosis and mitosis, centrioles are crucial to cell division.

Vacuoles play a key role in the storage of waste materials and aid in regulating the pH of the cell.

The waste molecules are broken down into simpler substances by lysosomes.

The mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell because they contribute to the production of ATP, which the cell uses as energy for a variety of tasks.

The cell's protective barrier is the cell membrane. It controls how things get into and out of the cell.

The complete question is:

Which organelles are found in an animal cell? check all that apply.

(A). Endoplasmic reticulum

(B). Centrioles

(C). Cell wall

(D). Vacuoles

(E). Lysosomes

(F). Mitochondrial

(G). Chloroplasts

(H). Cell membrane

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Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation
replicates DNA
transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation
transfers DNA vertically, to new cells
transcribes DNA to RNA

Answers

Answer: B

Explanation:

Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. So, the correct option is B.

What is Conjugation?

Bacterial conjugation is defined as the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact or a bridge-like connection between two cells that occurs through a pilus. It is a parasexual mode of reproduction in bacteria.

The donor bacterium contains a DNA sequence known as a fertility factor or F-factor that allows the donor to produce a thin, tubelike structure called a pilus, which the donor uses to contact the recipient. does for. The pilus then draws the two bacteria together in which the donor bacterium transfers genetic material to the recipient bacterium.

Thus, Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. So, the correct option is B.

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In an asexual life cycle, cells reproduce by meiosis. fertilization. All of the answer choices are correct. meiosis and fertilization. mitosis.

Answers

Answer:

k

Explanation:

What would happen to a cell that didn’t replicate its dna before cell division?

Answers

The cell will not proceed with the further processes.

What is equational division?

Chromosome replication and equal distribution between the two daughter cells occur during the cell division process known as mitosis. Each daughter cell has the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, making them diploid. Thus, mitosis is also referred to as equational division.

Unequal division will result if the cell didn't replicate prior to actually cell division. As a result of the checkpoints, it won't move on to the next step. The checkpoint will later start the apoptosis process, which results in programmed cell death.

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Question 1
Which one of the following is true of tRNAs? (Concept 17.4)
a. TRNAs are extremely small molecules.
b. Each tRNA binds a particular amino acid.
c. There are four types of tRNA.
d. tRNAs carry special sequences known as codons.
e. All of the above.

Answers

Answer: E

Explanation: I believe the answer is E but you may want to double check my logic. Each tRNA has to bind to a specific amino acid and they themselves are extremely small molecules. The tRNA carries the amino acid that corresponds to each codon, do I'm not exactly sure if that's correct. And finally there are 4 types of RNA, not tRNA, but technically there are at least 4 types of tRNA as there can be up to 20 different types.

which bones unite to form the highlighted bone?

Answers

The highlighted bone is named the sternum. The sternum, which lies in the middle of the chest, is where the ribs connect to the body.

Which joint does the humerus's highlighted bone form?

The humeral head's ball and glenoid's socket connect at the glenohumeral joint. The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles' tendons make up the rotator cuff, which joins the humerus to the scapula. Muscle and bone are joined via tendon.

What develops in the indicated curvature?

When a child is able to sit up on their own, the lumbar curvature that is highlighted begins to develop. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation.

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Which of the following is NOT a result of increased ATP in the pancreatic beta cell?
Group of answer choices
insulin release
vesicle fusion
potassium release
calcium intake

Answers

Vesicle fusion is NOT a result of increased ATP in the pancreatic beta cell.

What is ATP?

Cells consume and store energy from adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the energy source. An adenine-based nitrogenous base, ribose sugar, and three serially bound phosphate groups make up the nucleoside triphosphate structure of ATP.

When macromolecules like proteins and lipids are moved into and out of the cell, ATP is an essential component of the process. Active transport mechanisms that move these molecules over a concentration gradient are powered by the energy released during ATP hydrolysis.

Therefore, Vesicle fusion is NOT a result of increased ATP in the pancreatic beta cell.

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Covalent modification generally turns off genes by attracting proteins that bind to methylated cytosines and block gene transcription.
a) DNA Methylation
b) miRNA
c) RNAi
d) tRNA

Answers

The correct option among the following was DNA Methylation.

define DNA Methylation ?  

A biological process called DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to the DNA molecule. Without altering the sequence, methylation can modify the activity of a DNA region. DNA methylation often suppresses gene transcription when it occurs at a gene promoter. DNA methylation plays an important role in a variety of critical processes in mammals, including ageing, cancer, X-chromosome inactivation, genomic imprinting, and transposable element suppression.

Adenine and cytosine are the two nucleobases on which natural, enzymatic DNA methylation occurs as of 2016. N6-methyladenine[1], 5-methylcytosine[2], and N4-methylcytosine are the modified bases. [3]

The DNA nucleotide cytosine is methylated to create 5-methylcytosine at position 5 on the pyrimidine ring. This is the same place that separates thymine from the homologous RNA base uracil, which has no methyl group. 5-Methylcytosine undergoes spontaneous deamination and is changed into thymine. A T:G mismatch emerges from this. If A is substituted for G, the original C:G pair becomes a T:A pair, thus altering a base and producing a mutation. Repair mechanisms then fix it back to the original C:G pair.

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hippoboscidae have wings that will fall off once they reach their final host. we call these wings.

Answers

These are deciduous wings.

The principal characteristic of the fowl's wings is to provide them with the potential to fly. All birds have two wings, however, that does not mean flying.

Each of the wings includes a thin membrane supported by using a system of veins. The membrane is shaped by way of layers of integument carefully apposed, while the veins are fashioned where the 2 layers stay separate; now and again the lower cuticle is thicker and extra heavily sclerotized underneath a vein.

There are 4 preferred wing shapes that are not unusual in birds: Passive soaring, energetic hovering, elliptical wings, and high-speed wings.

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a woman has been trying to conceive for several years, unsuccessfully. at a fertility clinic, they discover that she has blocked fallopian tubes. using modern technologies, some of her eggs are removed, fertilized with her husband's sperm, and implanted into her uterus. the procedure is successful, but the couple discovers that their new son is color-blind and has blood type o. the woman claims that the child can't be theirs since she has blood type a and her husband has type b. also, neither parent is color-blind, although one grandparent (the woman's father) is also color-blind. in regard to the baby's color blindness, a sex-linked recessive trait, you explain that

Answers

Though the parents have blood group A and B , still their son is of blood group and colorblind aswell is possible due to codominance.

What is codominance?

In terms of genetics, codominance is a sort of inheritance in which two distinct expressions (alleles) of the same gene result in distinct features in a person.

Red blood cells with blood type A have a specific antigen (class of protein) on their membrane. Red cells in type B blood have a unique antigen on their membrane, but neither is present in type O blood.

The type O gene is "recessive" because if you only have one copy of the O gene and one copy of the A gene, you will still have A antigens on your cell membranes. You must have two O parent cells in order to belong to group O. However, group O continues to be more prevalent merely because it is the ancestor form.

The X chromosome is where color blindness is most frequently inherited as a recessive trait. In genetics, this is referred to as X-linked recessive inheritance. As a result, men tend to be affected by the illness more frequently than women (8% male, 0.5% female). Males only get one X chromosome, thus even while the recessive trait is present, there isn't another X chromosome that would provide a dominant trait of normal color vision. On the other hand, most female offspring have a propensity to develop into what are known as "carriers," which are people who have the recessive gene (color blindness) as well as the dominant gene (normal color vision), resulting in the expression of the dominant feature.

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correctly label the following parts of the large intestine.

Answers

Answer:

ok

Explanation:


Which of the following is a description of trait of an area with a low carrying
capacity?
A. Most people have refrigerators in their homes.
B. Homes are large and have few people in them.
C. Food is usually shipped in from far away.
D. People spend hours each day collecting water.

Answers

The description of trait of an area with a low carrying capacity is that people spend hours each day collecting water. This is because of scarcity of water as the area  is running low on carrying capacity.

What is carrying capacity?

We know that the environment was not designed to support the existence of an unlimited number of individuals. There is a definite of number of individuals that can be supported by a given environment.

The number of individual organisms that can be supported by a given environment is what we call the carrying capacity of the environment. Now we know that as long as the environment has not exceeded the carrying capacity, the resources would remain sufficient for individuals in the environment.

The resources in an environment would become scarce and difficult to get if the carrying capacity is low.

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Answer:

D. people spend hours each day collecting water

Explanation:

i just did this

TRUE/FALSE. single-cell profiling of tumor heterogeneity and the microenvironment in advanced non-small cell lung cance

Answers

The statement is False, i.e. single-cell profiling of tumor heterogeneity and the microenvironment in advanced non-small cell lung cancer.

Tumor cells can vary in their cellular shape, gene expression, metabolism, motility, proliferation, and metastatic potential, among other physical and behavioral characteristics. Tumor heterogeneity is the term for this phenomenon. This phenomenon has an impact on tumors both within them and between them (inter-tumor heterogeneity) (intra-tumour heterogeneity). Every time a cell multiplies, whether it be healthy or cancerous, a few mutations are picked up, creating a diverse population of cancer cells. This minor degree of intra-tumor heterogeneity is a clear outcome of the flaw in DNA replication. Because cancer cells vary greatly in their characteristics, creating effective treatment programs is substantially more difficult. But research into recognizing and explaining heterogeneity can help us better understand the origins and progression of disease. This could then serve as guidance for the creation of more complex treatment plans that account for heterogeneity to yield higher efficacy. A population of tumor cells only contains a small subset of cells that are tumorigenic, claims the cancer stem cell paradigm (able to form tumours). These cells, which have the ability to self-renew and differentiate into progeny that are not tumorigenic, are known as cancer stem cells (CSCs).

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Answer and match them

Answers

Answer:

Answered (?)

Explanation:

1. C

2. E (?)

3. F

4. D

5. B

6. A

I wasn't sure about E because for me I would say that means 'extinction' but that's not an answer, I tried my best and hope this helps!

_____ provides employees with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use in their present jobs. a. Development b. Recruiting c. Networking d. Training

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Which of the following statements are true about an IV set up? a. Line markings indicate how much fluid has infused into the patient. b. The injection port provides needle-less entry into the IV tubing. c. The IV bag includes information about the type and volume of IV solution d. The slide clamp compresses the tubing to allow IV flow rate to be increased or decreased e. The line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0"

Answers

The correct statements about the IV set are:

Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".

What is an infusion set?

It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.

Features of IV set:

Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml. Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free material

Hence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements

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The correct statements about the IV set are: option a, c and e.

Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?

It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.

Features of IV set:

Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml.Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free material

Hence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements

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Calcium is involved in all of the following functions except:
a. Calcium provides energy for cells.
b. Calcium deposits into bones and teeth to provide a rigid structure.
c. Calcium is necessary for blood clotting.
d. Calcium is necessary for muscle contraction and relaxation.
e. Calcium is necessary for nerve functioning.

Answers

Answer:

A. Calcium provides energy for cells

Explanation:

With the process of elimination, we can rule B, C, D, and E because they are all involved with calcium

B: Calcium is crucial for bone and teeth structure (it’s one of the main components of bone and teeth)

C: One role calcium plays in blood clotting is platelet activation

D: Calcium causes contraction by reacting with regulatory proteins in the muscle, which causes muscle contraction/relaxation

E: Calcium is necessary for nerve functioning because it contributes to providing a depolarizing signal and contributes to synaptic activity

Calcium is involved in all of the functions except Calcium provides energy for cells. So, the correct option is (A).

What is the role of Calcium in the body?

Calcium is important for the structure of bones and teeth as it is one of the main components of bone and teeth. It plays a role in blood clotting is platelet activation. Calcium causes contraction by reacting with regulatory proteins in muscles, causing muscle contraction/relaxation.

It is essential for nerve functioning as it contributes to providing a depolarizing signal and contributes to synaptic activity. Calcium deficiency can affect all parts of the body resulting in weak nails, slow hair growth, and fragile, thin skin.

It plays an important role in both neurotransmitter release and muscle contraction. So, calcium deficiency can bring about seizures in people.

Thus, Calcium is involved in all of the functions except Calcium provides energy for cells. So, the correct option is (A).

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outline the process of transcription in the nucleus including the

Answers

Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three steps of transcription that are depicted here. Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three stages of transcription.

What are the four steps in the transcription process?

The process of copying DNA to create a complementary strand of RNA is called transcription. After that, RNA is translated to become proteins. Initiation, promoter removal, elongation, and termination are the four main phases of transcription.

In what transcription does the nucleus engage?

Transcription takes place in the cell's nucleus since the genes are bound there, but the mRNA transcript needs to be delivered to the cytoplasm. In prokaryotes, which include bacteria and archaea, transcription takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell since these organisms lack organelles and membrane-bound nuclei.

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What is the function of glucagon

Answers

Glucagon counteracts the actions of insulin by by increasing blood glucose levels.

What is glucagon?

Glucagon is a peptide hormone, produced by alpha cells of the pancreas. It increases concentration of glucose and fatty acids in the bloodstream. It is considered to be the main catabolic hormone of the body. It is also used as a medication to treat a number of health conditions.

Insulin is also produced from the pancreas and it's function is to regulate the level of blood glucose in the blood stream. As alpha cell produces glucagon, beta cells produces insulin.

The main function of glucagon is to counter the effect of insulin by stimulating hepatic glucose production which will increase the blood glucose level.

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Researchers performing __________ insert a weak electric current into the brain to stimulate it. a. lesioning b. esb c. eeg d. pet please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d

Answers

Researchers performing ESB technique insert a weak electric current into the brain to stimulate it.

What does ESB contain in psychology?

Electrical stimulation of the mind (ESB) is a method which includes the creation of a susceptible electric modern into precise places withinside the mind via way of means of the use of more than one microelectrode to use brief pulses of electrical currents supposed to imitate the herbal glide of impulses via the neural pathways.

What contribution do ESBs make to our understanding of the brain?

Electrical brain stimulation (ESB) is useful in a variety of settings, including neurosurgery and experimental research. Neurosurgeons can use this procedure to help doctors determine which brain tissue needs to be removed.

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why do we need to label the membrane

Answers

The labeling method could help researchers track membrane proteins in living animals. When a scientist labels a membrane protein with a dye, she has to wash the cells a few times to remove dye molecules that aren’t . bound to the protein.
Other Questions
A high-fashion brand is launching a new line of clothing targeting style-conscious preteens. Their mission is to become the most-recognized, bestselling brand for this demographic. Which of the following strategic objectives is most appropriate and realistic for their new venture? Select one.Question options:Improve quality control measures at the corporate levelDevise a focused social media marketing strategyCollaborate with big-box stores for merchandisingIncrease shareholder value by 10% in the first quarter what number multiplied by 23 as a product of 1 What is a very tall building? The 2148 guests at a hotel have the choice to either go on a boat tour or go scuba diving. people decided to go scuba diving. people decided to neither scuba dive nor go on a boat tour. Each boat holds people. How many boats are needed? You are a tax manager and recently assisted the bull audit team the doppler effect is best described as 1. Which of the following is the FIFTH step of CPR? Call 9-1-1 Check for breathing Open the victim's airway Provide mouth-to-mouth breathing2. Which of the following are the common causes of choking? Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals Not chewing food properly, eating slowly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing after eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and not drinking before or during meals3. Which of the following is the correct order when you witness a victim needing CPR? Check the scene, check the victim, call 911, and start compressions immediately Check the scene, call 911, check the victim, and start compressions immediately Call 911, check the scene, check the victim, and start compressions immediately Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately4. What is the main function of the circulatory system? Carbon dioxide leaving the body Moving blood between the heart and lungs Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood Filtering the air as it enters the body5. Which of the following is the 4th leading cause of injury related deaths? Car accident Plane crash Choking Falling6. Which of the following is the SIXTH step of using an AED? Press the shock button Attach the AED pads Open the victim's shirt and wipe the chest dry Tell everyone to "stand clear"7. To administer back blows, what position should the person be in? Bent forward at the waist Standing straight up Bent forward at the knees Laying down8. Which part of your hand should be used to administer back blows? Fist Heel Palm Wrist9. At what rate per minute should compressions be administered? 100 150 200 25010. Which of the following makes up 1 CPR Cycle? 30 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths 30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths 100 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths 100 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths11. Which of the following is the lower respiratory system responsible for? Secreting a mucus that filters, warms, and cleanses the air Heart getting blood out to every cell in the body Getting oxygen to the cells of the body Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood12. When using an AED, after the shock is delivered when should CPR resume? Wait 30 seconds Wait 1 minutes Immediately Do not continue CPR13. Which of the following are considered to be signs of a heart attack? Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the jaw, and chest pain Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the abdomen, and chest pain Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the abdomen, and pain when swallowing14. When possible, what is the preferred method of CPR? Compression-only Single-person Two-person Rescue-breath-only15. Compression-only CPR should only be used on which of the following types of victims? Under the age of 8 Victims you witness collapse Victims you do not witness collapse Collapsed from choking The use of which energy source gave rise to growth of the us transportation industry in the 1800s, resulting in more people being able to migrate to new areas of the country?. Hard disks store and organize files using all the following, except _______.A. tracksB. sectorsC. cylindersD. paths how many baskets did Elijad make during his seoncd game What was constructed to connect the Pacific Ocean and the Atlantic which shorted maritime travel time by over 7,000 miles? a riverboat travels at an average of 14km per hour in still water. the riverboat travels 110km east up the Ohio river and 110km west down the same river in a total of 17.5 hours. To the nearest tenth of a kilometer per hour, what was the speed of the current of the river? the minnesota multiphasic personality inventory is used primarily to provide information about which of the following? What is known as the transformation of chemical substance into another chemical substance? gold has a face-centered cubic unit cell. how many atoms of au are present in each unit cell? express your answer as an integer. assume you purchased a $1000 convertible corporate bond. also assume the bond can be converted to 18.5 shares of the firm's stock. what is the dollar value the stock must reach before investors would consider converting to a common stock. how did the spanish american war end when writing a research essay why is synthesizing sources important Select the correct answer. Which course comes after the entrada? a. Bajativo b. Plato de fondo c. Aperitivo d. Postre. PLEASE HELP!!!!! As you read the diary entries from Dorothy Wordsworth and Samuel Pepys, identify the point of view, main idea, and main sequence of events in each writers entry. Enter your response in the table