Find a • b. a = 5i + 7j, b = -4i + 3j 1 41

Answer:

Only one solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 3x +2

y -2x =4

y - 2x = 4

=> y = 2x +4

y = 3x + 2

y = 2x + 4

Since both equations are not the same, so the answer cannot be "infinitely many solutions".

They both intersect each other 1 point, so it cannot be "no solutions".

So the answer is "Only 1 solution".

Answer and Step-by-step explanation: The null and alternative hypothesis for this test are:

[tex]H_{0}: s_{1}^{2} = s_{2}^{2}[/tex]

[tex]H_{a}: s_{1}^{2} > s_{2}^{2}[/tex]

To test it, use F-test statistics and compare variances of each treatment.

Calculate F-value:

[tex]F=\frac{s^{2}_{1}}{s^{2}_{2}}[/tex]

[tex]F=\frac{1.26^{2}}{0.93^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]F=\frac{1.5876}{0.8649}[/tex]

F = 1.8356

The critical value of F is given by a F-distribution table with:

degree of freedom (row): 20 - 1 = 19

degree of freedom (column): 20 - 1 = 19

And a significance level: α = 0.05

[tex]F_{critical}[/tex] = 2.2341

Comparing both values of F:

1.856 < 2.2341

i.e. F-value calculated is less than F-value of the table.

Therefore, failed to reject [tex]H_{0}[/tex], meaning there is no sufficient data to support the claim that sham treatment have pain reductions which vary more than for those using magnets treatment.

Answer:

The Taylor series of f(x) around the point a, can be written as:

[tex]f(x) = f(a) + \frac{df}{dx}(a)*(x -a) + (1/2!)\frac{d^2f}{dx^2}(a)*(x - a)^2 + .....[/tex]

Here we have:

f(x) = 4*cos(x)

a = 7*pi

then, let's calculate each part:

f(a) = 4*cos(7*pi) = -4

df/dx = -4*sin(x)

(df/dx)(a) = -4*sin(7*pi) = 0

(d^2f)/(dx^2) = -4*cos(x)

(d^2f)/(dx^2)(a) = -4*cos(7*pi) = 4

Here we already can see two things:

the odd derivatives will have a sin(x) function that is zero when evaluated in x = 7*pi, and we also can see that the sign will alternate between consecutive terms.

so we only will work with the even powers of the series:

f(x) = -4 + (1/2!)*4*(x - 7*pi)^2 - (1/4!)*4*(x - 7*pi)^4 + ....

So we can write it as:

f(x) = ∑fₙ

Such that the n-th term can written as:

[tex]fn = (-1)^{2n + 1}*4*(x - 7*pi)^{2n}[/tex]

In this exercise we must calculate the Taylor series for the given function in this way;

[tex]f_n= (-1)^{2n+1}(4)(x-7\pi)^{2n}[/tex]

The Taylor series of f(x) around the point a, can be written as:

[tex]f(x) = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a)+\frac{1}{2!} f''(a)(x-a)^2+....[/tex]

Here we have:

[tex]f(x) = 4cos(x)\\a = 7\pi[/tex]

Then, let's calculate each part:

[tex]f(a) = 4cos(7\pi) = -4\\df/dx = -4sin(x)\\(df/dx)(a) = -4sin(7\pi) = 0\\(d^2f)/(dx^2) = -4cos(x)\\(d^2f)/(dx^2)(a) = -4cos(7\pi) = 4[/tex]

Here we already can see two things:

1) The odd derivatives will have a sin(x) function that is zero when evaluated in [tex]x=7\pi[/tex].

2) We also can see that the sign will alternate between consecutive terms.

So we only will work with the even powers of the series:

[tex]f(x) = -4 + (1/2!)*4*(x - 7\pi)^2 - (1/4!)*4*(x - 7\pi)^4 + ....[/tex]

So we can write it as:

[tex]f(x)=\sum f_n[/tex]

Such that the n-th term can written as:

[tex]f_n= (-1)^{2n+1}(4)(x-7\pi)^{2n}[/tex]

See more abour Taylor series at: brainly.com/question/6953942

Answer:

Yes.

It is 1.45 x 10^-7 or 0.000000145

Hope it helps!

Answer:

It is 1.45 x 10^-7 or 0.000000145

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The 5th term of a sequence is defined as the term with n = 5.  So for this sequence, a sub 5 = 5/6

Answer:

Rational

Step-by-step explanation:

Rational number consists of

-5/6 is a Fraction and we can also simply it to a Decimal.

Hope this helps ;) ❤❤❤

Answer:

C, 39.3 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets first find the area of the rectangle part of the house.

To find the area of a rectangle its base × height.

So its 6×4=24 in².

Now lets find the area of the top triangle.

Area for a triangle is (base × height)/2.

The height is 3 inches, because its 7-4. While the base is 6 inches.

(6×3)/2=9 in².

To find the area of the half circle the formula, (piR²)/2.

The radius of the circle is 2 because its half of the diamter which is 4.

(pi2²)/2=6.283 in².

Now we just need to add up the area of every part,

24+9+6.283=39.283in²

Answer:

The second option.

Step-by-step explanation:

The first option consists of a line that extends at both opposite sides to infinity, with no precise end.

The third option is a ray that has an endpoint of A, and extends to infinity towards B.

The fourth option is a line segment. It has two endpoints, B and A.

The second portion is a ray that has an endpoint B, and extends towards A in one direction, to infinity.

The answer is the 2nd option.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First you have to find the medians which is when you put the numbers in number order and find the one in the middle.

Class A: 60,65,70,70,75,80,80,85,90,90

=77.5

Class B: 75,85,85,85,90,90,90,90,95,100

=90

That the class B is more advanced, and they probably studied.

Hi

35/100= 140/ X

X = 100*140 /35

X= 14000/35

X= 400

There are 400 computer in the compagny.

Answer:

A. y + 2= x

Step-by-step explanation:

Which equation is represented by the graph shown in the image?

A. y + 2= x

B. y + 1= x

C. y - 1= x

D. y - 2= x

Please show ALL work! <3

The graph shown has a slope of +1 and a y intercept of -2.

All given answer choices have a slope of +1, so that's not the problem.

We need one that has a y-intercept of -2, or the equation should be

y = x-2, or equivalently y+2 = x

which corresponds to answer choice A.

Answer:

height of the candle after 6 hours= 18.6 centimeters

Step-by-step explanation:

the function gives a line with a slope of −0.4.

the height of the candle after 11 hours is 16.6 centimeters.

after 6 hours, the height will be

But slope= y2-y1/x2-x1

Y2 is the unknown

Y1 = 16.6

X1= 11 hours

X2= 6 hours

y2-y1/x2-x1= -0.4

(Y2-16.6)/(6-11)= -0.4

(Y2-16.6)/(-5)= -0.4

(Y2-16.6)= -5( -0.4)

(Y2-16.6)= 2

Y2 = 2+16.6

Y2 = 18.6 centimeters

height of the candle after 6 hours= 18.6 centimeters

Answer:

5/36 ; 1/12 ; 2/9 ; yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following :

Roll of two fair dice : green and red

Probability = (number of required outcomes / number of total possible outcomes)

(a) What is the probability of getting a sum of 6?

Number of required outcomes = 5

P(sum of 6) = 5/36

b.) What is the probability of getting a sum of 10?

Number of required outcomes = 3

P(sum of 10) = 3 / 36 = 1/12

c.) What is the probability of getting a sum of 6 or 10?

P(getting a sum of 6) + P(getting a sum of 10)

(5/36) + (1/12) = (5 + 3) / 36

= 8/36 = 2/9

The events are mutually exclusive because each event cannot occur at the same time.

Answer: it says that if two different paths connect the same two points.

Step-by-step explanation:

It says that is two different paths connect the same two points, and a function holomorphic everywhere in between the two paths, then the two path integrals of the functions will be same.

Answer:

The answer is

[tex]A = 4.53 \times {10}^{17} \: {m}^{2} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the Earth's moon is a sphere

Surface area of a sphere from the question is given by

A = 4πr²

where r is the radius

To find the radius using the diameter we use the formula

radius = diameter / 2

[tex]radius \: = \frac{3.8 \times {10}^{8} }{2} [/tex]

[tex]radius = 1.9 \times {10}^{8} \: m[/tex]

π = 3.14

Substitute these values into the above formula

That's

[tex]A = 4 \times 3.14 \times ({1.9 \times {10}^{8} })^{2} [/tex]

We have the final answer as

[tex]A = 4.53 \times {10}^{17} \: {m}^{2} [/tex]

Hope this helps you

Answer:

A) 0.12. Yes. Choosing a green and blue M&M is possible

B) 0.43. Yes. Choosing a yellow and red M&M is possible

C) 0.78

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all, the summation of the distribution of all colours is;

Σ(all colors ) = 22% + 20% + 23% + 10% + 6% + 6% + 13% = 100%, or 1.

Thus;

a) P(green candy or blue candy) is;

P(GREEN ∪ BLUE) = P(G) + P(BL)

P(GREEN ∪ BLUE) = 6%+6%

P(GREEN ∪ BLUE) = 12% or 0.12

Now, due to the fact that we have to choose ONE candy and only ONE candy at random, then they are mutually exclusive: Yes. Choosing a green and blue M&M is possible

b)P(yellow candy or red candy is;

P(YELLOW ∪ RED) = P(Y) + P(R)

P(YELLOW ∪ RED) = 20% + 23% = 43% or 0.43

Yes. Choosing a yellow and red M&M is possible

c) P(NOT PURPLE)

the probability of having a purple is;

P(PURPLE) = 22% or 0.22

So, the Probability of NOT having a PURPLE is 1 - 0.22 = 0.78

Answer:

sin(4π/21)

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Rearrange expression

sin(π/3)cos(π/7) - cos(π/3)sin(π/7)

Step 2: Use sin(A ± B)

sin(π/3 - π/7)

Step 3: Evaluate

sin(4π/21)

And we have our answer!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The sequence of the problem above is an arithmetic sequence

For an nth term in an arithmetic sequence

F(n) = a + ( n - 1)d

where a is the first term

n is the number of terms

d is the common difference

To find the equation first find the common difference

0.65 - 0.5 = 0.15 or 0.80 - 0.65 = 0.15

The first term is 0.5

Substitute the values into the above formula

That's

f(n) = 0.5 + (n - 1)0.15

f(n) = 0.5 + 0.15n - 0.15

The final answer is

Hope this helps you

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Took the math test on edge

Answer:

The answer is

Step-by-step explanation:

First factor (x+1)² out of the expression

That's

[tex] \frac{ ({x + 1})^{2} (6 \cos( \frac{\pi}{3} )) {x}^{2} - {x}^{3} \times 2 \sin( \frac{\pi}{2} ) }{ ({x + 1})^{2} } [/tex]

Reduce the expression by (x + 1)²

We have

[tex]6 \cos( \frac{\pi}{3} ) \times {x}^{2} - {x}^{3} \times 2 \sin( \frac{\pi}{2} ) [/tex]

Using trigonometric values table

[tex] \cos( \frac{\pi}{3} ) = \frac{1}{2} [/tex]

[tex] \sin( \frac{\pi}{2} ) = 1[/tex]

So we have

[tex]6 \times \frac{1}{2} \times {x}^{2} - {x}^{3} \times 2 \times 1[/tex]

Simplify

We have the final answer as

[tex] {3x}^{2} - 2 {x}^{3} [/tex]

Hope this helps you

Answer:

126°

Step-by-step explanation:

If that angle is 27, so is angle a.

180-27-27=126

Find the circumference:

Circumference = 2 x PI x radius:

Circumference = 2 x 3.14 x 16 = 100.48 inches.

A full circle is 360 degrees, a 45 degree angle is 1/8 of a full circle.

Arc length = 100.48 / 8 = 12.56 inches.

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the data:

Temp. 174 176 177 178 178 179 180 181

Ratio 0.86 1.31 1.42 1.01 1.15 1.02 1.00 1.74

Temp. 184 184 184 184 184 185 185 186

Ratio 1.43 1.70 1.57 2.13 2.25 0.76 1.37 0.94

Temp. 186 186 186 188 188 189 190 192

Ratio 1.85 2.02 2.64 1.53 2.48 2.90 1.79 3.16

A)

Using the online linear regression calculator, the lie of best fit which models the data above is :

ŷ = 0.09386X - 15.55523

Where ;

X = independent variable

ŷ = predicted or dependent variable

- 15.55523 = intercept

0.09386 = gradient / slope

B)

Point estimate when tank temperature is 186

ŷ = 0.09386(186) - 15.55523

ŷ = 17.45796 - 15.55523

ŷ = 1.90273

C)

Residual error (y - ŷ), ŷ = 1.90273 when x = 186

(0.94 - 1.90273) = −0.96273

(1.85 - 1.90273) = −0.05273

(2.02 - 1.90273) = 0.11727

(2.64 - 1.90273) = 0.73727

D)

To determine the proportion of observed variation in efficiency ratio, we find the Coefficient of determination R^2, which can be found using the online Coefficient of determination calculator : the r^2 value obtained is 0.4433.

Answer:

(-0.3, 2.3)

Step-by-step explanation:

(-1.8+1.2)/2 = -0.3

(1.9+2.7)/2 = 2.3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the points be A and B

A ( - 1.8 , 1.9 ) ⇒( x₁ , y₁ )

B ( 1.2 , 2.7 )⇒ ( x₂ , y₂ )

Now, let's find the midpoint:

[tex] \mathsf{ (\frac{x1 + x2}{2} \: , \frac{y1 + y2}{2} )}[/tex]

Plug the values

[tex] \mathsf{ = (\frac{ - 1.8 + 1.2}{2} \: , \frac{1.9 + 2.7}{2} )}[/tex]

Calculate

[tex] \mathsf{ = ( \frac{ - 0.6}{2} \: , \frac{4.6}{2} )}[/tex]

[tex] \mathsf{ = (- 0.3 \:, 2.3)}[/tex]

Hope I helped!

Best regards!

Answer:

42  headbands per dancer

Step-by-step explanation:

Selling 1260 headband

Divide by the three coaches

1260/3

420 per coach

Divide by each dancer under a coach

420/10 = 42

Each dancer must sell 42 headbands

Answer:

Below

Step-by-step explanation:

If d is a positive number then the greatest common factor is 108d.

To get it isolate d and d^2 from the numbers.

108 divides 216. (216 = 2×108)

Then the greatest common factor of 216 and 108 is 108.

For d^2 and d we will follow the same strategy

d divides d^2 (d^2 = d*d)

Then the greatest common factor of them is d.

So the greatest common factor will be 108d if and only if d is positive. If not then 108 is the answer

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{108d}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Part 1: Find GCF of variables

The equation gives d ² and d as variables. The GCF rules for variables are:

The GCF for the variables is d.

Part 2: Find GCF of bases (Method #1)

The equation gives 108 and 216 as coefficients. To check for a GCF, use prime factorization trees to find common factors in between the values.

Key: If a number is in bold, it is marked this way because it cannot be divided further AND is a prime number!

Prime Factorization of 108

108 ⇒ 54 & 2

54 ⇒ 27 & 2

27 ⇒ 9 & 3

9 ⇒ 3 & 3

Therefore, the prime factorization of 108 is 2 * 2 * 3 * 3 * 3, or simplified as 2² * 3³.

Prime Factorization of 216

216 ⇒ 108 & 2

108 ⇒ 54 & 2

54 ⇒ 27 & 2

27 ⇒ 9 & 3

9 ⇒ 3 & 3

Therefore, the prime factorization of 216 is 2 * 2 * 2 * 3 * 3 * 3, or simplified as 2³ * 3³.

After completing the prime factorization trees, check for the common factors in between the two values.

The prime factorization of 216 is 2³ * 3³ and the prime factorization of 108 is 2² * 3³.  Follow the same rules for GCFs of variables listed above and declare that the common factor is the factor of 108.

Therefore, the greatest common factor (combining both the coefficient and the variable) is [tex]\boxed{108d}[/tex].

Part 3: Find GCF of bases (Method #2)

This is the quicker method of the two. Simply divide the two coefficients and see if the result is 2. If so, the lesser number is immediately the coefficient.

[tex]\frac{216}{108}=2[/tex]

Therefore, the coefficient of the GCF will be 108.

Then, follow the process described for variables to determine that the GCF of the variables is d.

Therefore, the GCF is [tex]\boxed{108d}[/tex].

Answer:

300%

Step-by-step explanation:

1 year = 12 months

percent = part/whole * 100%

percent = 12/4 * 100% = 300%

Answer:

please can u follow me I've started following you

Answer:

8 feet deep

Step-by-step explanation:

volume = length x width x depth

3496 = 23 x 19 x d

3496 = 437 x d

divide both sides by 437

d = 8

Answer:

(3x+11)/ (5x-9)

Step-by-step explanation:

The numerator is what is on the top of the bar in the middle

(3x+11)/ (5x-9)

Answer:

[tex]\large \boxed{\mathrm{Option \ B}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The numerator of a fraction is the top section of the fraction.

Answer:

[tex]\mathbf{P(x>6) = 0.0265}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

A baseball player has a batting average (probability of getting on base per time at bat) of 0.215

i.e

let x to be the random variable,

consider [tex]x_1 = \left \{ {{1} \atop {0}} \right.[/tex]  to be if the baseball player has a batting average or otherwise.

Then

p(x₁ = 1) = 0.125

What is the probability that they will get on base more than 6 of the next 15 at bats

So

[tex]\mathtt{x_i \sim Binomial (n,p)}[/tex]

where; n =  15 and p = 0.125

P(x>6) = P(x ≥ 7)

[tex]P(x>6) = \sum \limits ^{15}_{x=7} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 - \sum \limits ^{6}_{x=7} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 - \sum \limits ^{6}_{x=0} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 -0.9735[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{P(x>6) = 0.0265}[/tex]

Answer:

the least integer for n is 2

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given;

f(x) = ln(1+x)

centered at x=0

Pn(0.2)

Error < 0.01

We will use the format;

[[Max(f^(n+1) (c))]/(n + 1)!] × 0.2^(n+1) < 0.01

So;

f(x) = ln(1+x)

First derivative: f'(x) = 1/(x + 1) < 0! = 1

2nd derivative: f"(x) = -1/(x + 1)² < 1! = 1

3rd derivative: f"'(x) = 2/(x + 1)³ < 2! = 2

4th derivative: f""(x) = -6/(x + 1)⁴ < 3! = 6

This follows that;

Max|f^(n+1) (c)| < n!

Thus, error is;

(n!/(n + 1)!) × 0.2^(n + 1) < 0.01

This gives;

(1/(n + 1)) × 0.2^(n + 1) < 0.01

Let's try n = 1

(1/(1 + 1)) × 0.2^(1 + 1) = 0.02

This is greater than 0.01 and so it will not work.

Let's try n = 2

(1/(2 + 1)) × 0.2^(2 + 1) = 0.00267

This is less than 0.01.

So,the least integer for n is 2

In this exercise we have to use the knowledge of Taylor Polynomial to calculate the requested function, this way we will have;

the least integer for n is 2    

The function given in this exercise corresponds to:

[tex]f(x) = ln(1+x)[/tex]

knowing that the x point will be centered on:

[tex]x=0\\Pn(0,2)\\Error < 0.01[/tex]

By rewriting the equation we have to:

[tex][[Max(f^{(n+1)} (c))]/(n + 1)!] *0.2^{(n+1)} < 0.01[/tex]

So doing the derivatives related to the first function given in the exercise we have to:

[tex]f(x) = ln(1+x)[/tex]

Following this we have to:

[tex]Max|f^{(n+1)} (c)| < n![/tex]

Thus, error is;

[tex](n!/(n + 1)!) * 0.2^{(n + 1)} < 0.01[/tex]

[tex](1/(n + 1))* 0.2^{(n + 1)} < 0.01[/tex]  

Let's try n = 1

[tex](1/(1 + 1)) *0.2^{(1 + 1)} = 0.02[/tex]

This is greater than 0.01 and so it will not work. Let's try n = 2

[tex](1/(2 + 1)) * 0.2^{(2 + 1)} = 0.00267[/tex]

This is less than 0.01. So,the least integer for n is 2.

See more about Taylor polynomial at brainly.com/question/23842376