Find the value of x

X =

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

cot x = adjacent side / opposite side

So cot 180 = x / 0 which is undefined.

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

As for estimation, you may round 39.76 to the whole number, resulting in 40.

7.94 to 8

40 / 8 = 5

5 is your answer for the result of estimation

Answer:

15 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Suly watched a film that was 90 minutes long. Then, she stopped at the [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]mark. This means that we have to find [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] of 90 minutes to find the amount of time Suly watched before the pizza man arrived. So therefore, the answer is 15 minutes.

Have a nice day. : )

Answer:

15 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Steps:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

c^2 - a^2 = b^2

19^2 - 12^2 = b^2

361 - 144 = 217

[tex]\sqrt{217\\}[/tex] = 14.7309198627

Round to the nearest hundredth = 14.73

Hope this helps!

[tex] \frac{dx}{dt} = 28.2 \: \frac{m}{hr}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let y = height of the pole = 35 m (constant)

x = length of the shadow

They are related as

[tex] \tan \theta = \frac{y}{x} [/tex]

or

[tex]x = \frac{y}{ \tan\theta } = y \cot \theta[/tex]

Taking the time derivative of the above expression and keeping in mind that y is constant, we get

[tex] \frac{dx}{dt} = y( - \csc^{2} \theta) \frac{d \theta}{dt} [/tex]

Before we plug in the numbers, let's convert the degree unit into radians:

[tex]40° \times ( \frac{\pi \: rad}{180°}) = \frac{2\pi}{9} \: radians[/tex]

Since the angle is decreasing, then d(theta)/dt is negative. Therefore, the rate at which the shadow is lengthening is

[tex] \frac{dx}{dt} = (35 \: m)( - \csc^{2} \frac{2\pi}{9} )( - \frac{1}{3} \frac{rad}{hr} )[/tex]

or

[tex] \frac{dx}{dt} = 28.2 \: \frac{m}{hr} [/tex]

tan= opp/adjacent

tan= 9/3

tan^-1 (9/3) =72°

Step-by-step explanation:

53 is the correct answer

Answer:

A. 0.2346

Step-by-step explanation:

add all of the batting averages and divide by 5 (bc there are 5 of them)

Answer:

27 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

216/8=27

Answer:

Hello There!!

Step-by-step explanation:

(8×27=216) 8 pages=1 hour (1×27)

216 pages= 27 hours

There is 24 hours in one day and there is 3 hours left so the answer is 1 day and 3 hours.

hope this helps,have a great day!!

~Pinky~

Answer:

y= 12x+3

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope-intercept equation is basically y=mx+b

m is the slope and b is the intercept.

Plug the numbers in for those 2 and there's your answer :)

Answer:

y = 12x + 3

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

Here m = 12 and c = 3 , then

y = 12x + 3

Answer:

Non of these.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: It's C basically they just have to mirror each other, i hope i helped

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: I believe the answer is D.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A. LHS,

3×(4+6)

3×10

30

NOW,

RHS,

(3×4)+(3×6)

12+18

30

Therefore, A is ans

Answer:

3:1

Step-by-step explanation:

It’s three times the original

Answer:

[tex]a^{12}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Identity Used :   [tex]a^x \times a^y = a^{x+ y}[/tex]

       [tex]a^5 \times a^7 = a^{5 + 7} = a^{12}[/tex]

Answer:

Yes, multiplying every length of a Pythagorean triple by the same whole number results in a Pythagorean triple

Step-by-step explanation:

The given side lengths are;

21, 28, and 35

From the given side lengths, the greatest common factor = 7

Therefore, we have;

3 × 7, 4 × 7, and 5 × 7

A Pythagorean triple is formed by three numbers, 'a', 'b', and, 'c', which are both positive and integers, that are related as follows;

c² = a² + b²

Therefore, for the three numbers, we get;

3, 4, and 5 is a Pythagorean triple

5² = 3² + 4²

Multiplying both sides by 7² gives;

(5)² × (7)² = (3)² × (7)² + (4)² × (7)²

By the laws of indices, (a·b)ⁿ = aⁿ × bⁿ

Therefore;

(5 × 7)² = (3 × 7)² + (4 × 7)²

Therefore, multiplying every length of the Pythagorean triple by the same whole number results in a Pythagorean triple.

(The relationship can also be shown using similar triangles, as multiplying the side lengths of a triangle by the same whole number, gives a similar triangle, having the same relationship between its sides)

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's do it for smaller numbers first.

0 people -> 0 high fives

1 people -> 0 high fives

2 people -> 1 high fives

3 people -> person 1 high fives 2 then 3

And person 2 high fives 3

->2+1= 3 high fives

4 people -> person 1 high fives 2,3, then 4

And person 2 high fives 3 then 4

And 3 high fives 4

->3+2+1=6

5 people -> person 1 high fives 2,3,4, then 5

And person 2 high fives 3,4, 5

And 3 high fives 4,5

And 4 high fives 5

-> 4+3+2+1=10

So for n people there would be (n-1)+(n-2)+....+3+2+1 high fives or (n-1)n/2 people.

Test:

3 people -> (3-1)3/2=(2)3/2=3

4 people -> (4-1)4/2=(3)4/2=6

5 people -> (5-1)5/2=(4)5/2=10

10 people-> (10-1)10/2=(9)10/2=90/2=45

or you could do 9+8+7+6+5+4+3+2+1 which also gives 45.

The other person has a great answer. Here's another approach.

Let's say we're selecting 2 people to fill slots A and B.

Slot A has 10 choices and slot B has 9 choices (since we can't pick the same person again to fill both slots simultaneously).

We have 10*9 = 90 ways to do this if order mattered.

However, we don't care about the order so we actually have 90/2 = 45 ways

---------------------------

Put another way: we can form a table that has 10 rows and 10 columns.

This table has 10*10 = 100 cells inside it.

Cross off the main diagonal that runs from the upper left corner to the bottom right corner. Any of these cells represent a certain person handshaking with themself, which we don't consider.

We cross of 10 items along this diagonal so we have 100-10 = 90 cells leftover.

Now consider that person A shaking with B can be notated as AB. This is identical to BA because the order doesn't matter. So we have twice as many handshakes counted.

That's why we divide by 2 to go from 90 to 90/2 = 45

-----------------------------

Another way to find the answer is to use the nCr combination formula with n = 10 and r = 2.

Yet another way to find the answer is look at Pascal's triangle. Find the row that has 1,10,45... in it at the start. These values correspond to r = 0, 1 and 2 respectively. We can see that 45 is when r = 2, which means we have 2 people shaking hands and there are 45 ways to have ten people shake hands.

So there are many approaches you can take with this problem.

Answer:

32, 43

Step-by-step explanation:

Your welcome! :)

Answer:

The answer is 45,60.

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use a square chart to answer this question.

I will zoom in to the particular ones we need.

[tex] {6}^{2} = 36[/tex]

[tex]{7}^{2} = 49[/tex]

[tex] {8}^{2} = 64[/tex]

7 is the square root of 49.

45 lies in between 36 and 49 so its square root is more than 6 but less than 7. It is around 6.708 to the nearest thousandth.

Meanwhile, 60 lies in between 49 and 64 so its square root is more than 7 but less than 8. It is around 7.746 to the nearest thousandth.

Hence, we can say that 7 lies in between the square root of 45 and the square root of 60.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

b is an inscribed angle. The rule for this is that the measure of an inscribed angle is half the measure of the arc it intercepts. The arc it intercepts is 56 degrees, so the measure of angle b is half of that at 28

Answer:

[tex]x = 38.1[/tex]

[tex]y = 23.4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The given triangle is a right triangle. This is indicated by the box around one of the angles, signifying that the angle measure is (9) degrees. By its definition, a right triangle is a triangle with a (90) degree angle, thus the given triangle is a right triangle. In this situation, one can use right-angle trigonometry to find the value of the unknown side. In essence, right triangle trigonometry provides one with a series of ratios to describe the relationship between the sides and angles of the right trinagle. These ratios are the following,

[tex]sin(\theta)=\frac{opposite}{hypotenuse}\\\\cos(\theta)=\frac{adjacent}{hypotenuse}\\\\tan(\theta)=\frac{opposite}{adjacent}[/tex]

Keep in mind that the way a side is named is relative to the angle it is being described from. Thus, the (opposite) and (adjacent) sides acquire different names based on the angle relative to them. However, the (hypotenuse) is the hypotenuse no matter the angle, as the hypotenuse is the side opposite the right angle.

Solve for (y) first. One is given the angle measure and the measure of the side opposite the angle measure. One is asked to find the measure of the side adjacent to the angle. Use the ratio of tangent (tan) to achieve this.

[tex]tan(\theta)=\frac{opposite}{adajcent}\\[/tex]

Substitute,

[tex]tan(52)=\frac{30}{y}[/tex]

Inverse operations,

[tex]y=\frac{30}{tan(52)}[/tex]

Simplify,

[tex]y = 23.4386[/tex]

Now solve for the hypotenuse (x). One could use the Pythagorean theorem to do this, but since this is trigonometry, one might as well use the trigonometric ratios. One is given an angle, as well as the side opposite the angle, one is asked to find the hypotenuse. To do this, one can use the trigonometric ratio of sine (sin).

[tex]sin(\theta)=\frac{opposite}{hypotenuse}[/tex]

Substitute,

[tex]sin(52)=\frac{30}{x}[/tex]

Inverse operations,

[tex]x=\frac{30}{sin(52)}[/tex]

Simplify,

[tex]x = 38.0705[/tex]

Answer:

50/50 bc you dont know until he/she is born

The requried probability that exactly 2 out of 3 babies born in the hospital on any given day are male is 0.375 or 37.5%.

Probability can be defined as the ratio of favorable outcomes to the total number of events.

This is a binomial probability problem with n = 3 (three babies) and p = 0.5 (probability of a baby being male).

The probability of exactly 2 out of 3 babies being male can be calculated using the binomial probability formula:

[tex]P(X = 2) = (n choose X) * p^X * (1 - p)^{(n - X)}[/tex]

where "n choose X" is the binomial coefficient, equal to n! / (X! * (n - X)!) and X is the number of successes (in this case, 2).

Substituting the values, we get:

[tex]P(X = 2) = (3 choose 2) * 0.5^2 * (1 - 0.5)^{(3 - 2)}[/tex]

= 3 * 0.25 * 0.5

= 0.375

Therefore, the probability that exactly 2 out of 3 babies born in the hospital on any given day are male is 0.375 or 37.5%.

Learn more about probability here:

brainly.com/question/14290572

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Answer:

0.5328 = 53.28% probability that the length of hatching times is between 15 and 18 days.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Mean of 16 days and standard deviation of 2 days.

This means that [tex]\mu = 16, \sigma = 2[/tex]

Probability that the length of hatching times is between 15 and 18 days.

This is the p-value of Z when X = 18 subtracted by the p-value of Z when X = 15. So

X = 18

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{18 - 16}{2}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1[/tex] has a p-value of 0.8413

X = 15

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{15 - 16}{2}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.5[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.5[/tex] has a p-value of 0.3085

0.8413 - 0.3085 = 0.5328

0.5328 = 53.28% probability that the length of hatching times is between 15 and 18 days.

Answer: No

Step-by-step explanation:

They are not inverses because the slope for g(x) needs to also be negative, which it isn't.

A scale of 1:5000000 means that:

This is mainly used in map or shadow etc. things.

For example in map it is given that the scale is 1mm:5000000mm, then it means that 1mm on the map is equal to 5000000mm in real life. So, you can be asked what does 5mm on map means in real life. So, you have to solve like this:

5 × 5000000 = real life size

25000000mm = real life size

In shadow like question, it can be asked that if 5000000 m of building casts a shadow of 1 m, then how much will be the shadow of a 10000000 m building. So, you have to solve it like this:

(10000000/5000000) × 1 = shadow size

=> 2 × 1 = shadow size

=> 2m = shadow size

You can tell me the specific questions so that I can help.

The scale 1:500 000 mean​s 1 unit on a map represents 500000 in real life

Scales are used to represent big or small measurements on a map or graph

The scale is given as:

1:500 000

The above means that:

1 unit on a map represents 500000 in real life

Read more about scale at:

https://brainly.com/question/3457976

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Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The parabola opens to the right

therefor it will be of the form x = +y^2