1. Coevolution.
2. Abiogenesis.
3. Endosymbiont Theory.
What do you mean by abiogenesis and coevolution?When two or more species' evolutions are mutually influenced by natural selection, this is known as coevolution. The phrase is occasionally used to refer to gene-culture coevolution as well as two features within the same species influencing one another during evolution. The natural process through which life has developed from non-living matter, such as straightforward organic compounds, is known as abiogenesis or the origin of life.
What does the endosymbiotic theory of eukaryotic cell genesis entail?According to the dominant explanation, known as the endosymbiotic theory, eukaryotes developed when an ancient Archaean cell fused with an aerobic, ancient bacterial cell (without actually eating it).
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avidin is a protein that binds extremely tightly to biotin. therefore, it is a potent inhibitor of biotin-requiring enzymatic reactions. consider glucose biosynthesis from each of the following substrates and predict which of these pathways would be inhibited by avidin. a. lactate b. oxaloacetate c. malate d. fructose-6-phosphate e. phosphoenolpyruvate
The pathway that would be inhabited by avidin is lactate. Therefore, the correct answer is option A.
Biotin is the cofactor that's involved in the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate with the help of the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase.
Lactate is formed when the rate of glycolysis is higher than the rate of oxidation. When that happens, the lactate is converted to form pyruvate with the help of the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase.
Lactate + NAD+ -----> pyruvate + NADH + H+
The pyruvate is then converted to form oxaloacetate in the presence of biotin.
Pyruvate + CO₂ + ATP + H₂O ----> Oxaloacetate + ADP + Pi + 2H+
Avidin binds tightly to the biotin. Thus avidin can inhibit the biosynthesis of glucose from lactate and its pathway.
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The DNA polymerases are positioned over the following DNA segment (which is part of a
much larger molecule) and moving from right to left. If we assume that an Okazaki fragment is
made from this segment, what will be the fragment's sequence? Label it's 5' and 3' ends.
5' - ...CCTTAAGACTAACTACTTACTGGGATC... - 3'
3' - ...GGAATTCTGATTGATGAATGACCCTAG... - 5'
The bottom strand will serve as a template for the okazaki fragment, so the fragment's sequence will be:
5' - ...CCTTAAGACTAACTACTTACTGGGATC... - 3'
The Okazaki fragment will use the bottom strand as a template, hence its sequence will be: 5' -...CCTTAAGACTAACTACTTACTGGGATC... - 3'
The largest subunit has polymerization activity. DNA polymerases position themselves on the next segment of DNA which is part of a much larger molecule and move from right to left. The active site of the enzyme has two parts. At the insertion site, nucleotides are added. After adding, the newly formed base pair migrates to the post-insertion site. There are five DNA polymerases identified in E.coli. All DNA polymerases differ in structure, functions, rate of polymerization, and processivity. DNA polymerase I remove the RNA primer by 5'→3' exonuclease activity and replace the primer by its lagging strand polymerase activity. Explore more. The replication process is a huge task and is important in maintaining the integrity of the genome.
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The biological and biosocial theories seem to have the most immediate promise in dealing with problems of _____
The biological and biosocial theories seem to have the most immediate promise in dealing with problems of postpartum depression.
People of both sexes may have postpartum depression (PPD), also known as postnatal depression, which is a type of mood disorder connected to childbirth. Extreme melancholy, low energy, concern, weeping spells, irritability, and changes in eating or sleeping habits are just a few symptoms. Between one week and one month is the typical postpartum onset period. PPD can be harmful to a newborn infant as well.
Although the precise origin of PPD is unknown, a confluence of biological, psychological, genetic, and social variables is probably to blame. These could include things like hormone adjustments and lack of sleep.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. if both parents are heterozygous for a gene, 1/2 of the time they will contribute a dominant allele to their offspring and 1/2 of the time they will contribute a recessive allele to their offspring. the phenotypes of the resulting offspring will be blank dominant and____recessive.
If both parents are heterozygous for a gene, 1/2 of the time they will contribute a dominant allele to their offspring and 1/2 of the time they will contribute a recessive allele to their offspring. The phenotypes of the resulting offspring will be 50% dominant and 50% recessive.
In genetics, the term "heterozygous" refers to an individual who has two different alleles for a particular gene. For example, if one parent is heterozygous for a gene that determines eye color and has one dominant allele for brown eyes and one recessive allele for blue eyes, and the other parent is also heterozygous for the same gene with one dominant allele for brown eyes and one recessive allele for blue eyes, then each parent has a 50% chance of contributing either the dominant or recessive allele to their offspring.
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Besides increasing blood pressure and causing drinking, angiotensin II stimulates the release of ______, which is crucial to Na+ conservation
Besides increasing blood pressure and causing drinking, angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone.
A steroid hormone made by means of the adrenal cortex. It allows for managing the balance of water and salts within the kidney by using preserving sodium and liberating potassium from the frame. Too much aldosterone can purpose excessive blood strain and a build-up of fluid in body tissues.
In hyperaldosteronism, overproduction of the hormone aldosterone leads to fluid retention and improved blood pressure, weak point, and, rarely, periods of paralysis. Hyperaldosteronism can be a result of a tumor in the adrenal gland or can be a response to some illnesses.
Aldosterone reasons sodium to be absorbed and potassium to be excreted into the lumen through principal cells.
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Which of the following is NOT an Ecological Role of Marsh Grasses?
a. Clean up detritus
b. Prevent shoreline erosion
c. Serve as refuge and nurser
d. Stabilize coastal sediments
e. Remove excess nutrients from runoff
Marshes are wetlands that are frequently or continuously inundated with water and are distinguished by emergent soft-stemmed flora that is adapted to soggy soil conditions. Thus, option E is correct.
What an ecological role of Marsh Grasses?Water quality is maintained by wetlands, and sediments can settle out of suspension because marsh grasses impede run-off. Excess nutrients are removed from the soil by marsh plants, while heavy metals can be removed from water by marsh mud. Wetlands aid in flood management and lessen storm-related erosion.
There are many distinct types of marshes, including freshwater and saltwater ones, coastal and inland, coastal and inland, from prairie potholes to the Everglades.
Therefore, to remove excess nutrients from run-off is not an Ecological Role of Marsh Grasses.
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Which of the following are abiotic factors that determine the organisms that can exist in marine environments?
O amount of oxygen and salt concentration
O amount of carbon dioxide and amount of decomposers
O amount of moisture and variety of consumers
O amount of algae and range of temperature
Answer:
O amount of moisture and variety of consumersAbiotic factors include sunlight, temperature, moisture, wind or water currents, soil type, and nutrient availability.What is the main benefit of an upwelling in the ocean?
OA.
OB.
O C.
OD.
It creates strong tides in coastal regions.
It increases the salinity of the water in an area.
It brings new nutrients into an underwater region.
It wipes out an ecosystem, allowing for secondary succession.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
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There are two types of systems: open and closed. An open system is one in which energy can be transferred between the system and its surroundings. The stovetop system is open because heat can be lost into the air. A closed system is one that cannot transfer energy to its surroundings. Biological organisms are open systems.
Biological organisms are open systems. Through the consumption of energy-storing molecules and the release of energy to the environment through labor, they exchange energy with their surroundings.
Energy is governed by the rules of physics, just like everything else in the physical universe. The movement of energy inside and between all systems in the universe is governed by the principles of thermodynamics. Cells are biological systems on their own. One way to think about systems is as having some degree of order open systems. A system needs energy to be brought into order. The lower the entropy, the more organized a Biological organisms.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of mitochondria that suggests that they might have evolved from free living bacteria? A. The plasma membrane of a mitochondrion, forming the surface of this organelle, is the site of many important steps of cellular respiration. B. Mitochondria have cell walls. C. Mitochondria have their own DNA. D. Mitochondria rely upon proteins as their source of energy.
C. Mitochondria have their own DNA. suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria.
The majority of the chemical energy required to power the cell's biochemical reactions is generated by mitochondria, which are organelles of the cell that are bound by a membrane (mitochondrion, singular). A small molecule known as adenosine triphosphate (ATP) stores the chemical energy produced by the mitochondria.
Mitochondria and Chloroplasts Could Have Been Primitive Bacterial Cells: This is supported by compelling evidence. The endosymbiotic theory describes this evidence. They have their own transcriptional and translational machinery as well as their own DNA, which is circular like that of bacteria. Bacterial membrane components, mitochondrial ribosomes, and transfer RNA molecules are comparable. Bacterial membrane components, mitochondrial ribosomes, and transfer RNA molecules are comparable.
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if tyrosine levels in a cns neuron were reduced, the synthesis of which of the following molecules might also be reduced
If tyrosine levels in a CNS neuron were reduced, the synthesis of dopamine molecules might also be reduced.
Dopamine is a chemical ejected in the brain that causes euphoria. Having the appropriate amount of dopamine is essential both for your body and your brain. Dopamine assists nerve cells in communicating with one another.
Tyrosine is a nonessential amino acid the body produces from another amino acid called phenylalanine. It is an essential element for the production of many crucial brain chemicals known as neurotransmitters, which would include epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine.
Because tyrosine aids in the production of the mood-altering chemical dopamine, and because individuals who are depressed frequently have low tyrosine levels, tyrosine can be given to treat depression
Tyrosine is thought to boost levels of the neurotransmitters dopamine, adrenaline, and norepinephrine. It may actually boost memory and effectiveness in stressful conditions by enhancing these neurotransmitters
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Complete question :
If tyrosine levels in a CNS neuron were reduced, the synthesis of which of the following molecules might also be reduced?
A: beta-endorphins
B: acetylcholine
C: GABA
D: dopamine
T/F: Kelps with air bladders are common along the western and northwestern Pacific coasts of the United States
Kelps with air bladders are common along the western and northwestern Pacific coasts of the United States it is a true statement
The primary moisture-bearing and rain-producing air mass throughout the year is the maritime Tropical (mT). It moves toward the pole in the winter and is cooled by the earth's surface. As a result, it has low stratus or stratocumulus clouds, drizzle, and poor visibility.
Due to the high-pressure areas that are prominent there, warm, humid maritime tropical (mT) air develops over tropical and subtropical ocean waters. On the other hand, just south and east of the substantial winter oceanic low-pressure regions, cool, moist maritime polar (mP) air develops over the colder subpolar ocean waters.
Humans have long been concerned with forecasting and predicting future weather conditions as a result of the variability of weather phenomena.
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The correct answer is True with air bladders are common along the western and northwestern Pacific coasts of the United States.
The middle intertidal zone is where the tides ebb and flow twice daily and where a wider range of flora and animals, such as sea stars and anemones, may be found. The intertidal zone is home to a variety of creatures, many of which have evolved to thrive in this continuously shifting environment. Mollusks (clams and mussels) and arthropods (crabs) have shells to prevent drying out and being crushed against the rocks by waves. TRUE: The majority of soft-bodied creatures and marine algae live in the low tide zone. The majority of creatures with shells are located in the spray zone.
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which of the following represents the path taken by food after leaving the mouth? question 34 options: pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine pharynx, larynx, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine larynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine larynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
The right answer is option a. Food first enters our bodies through the mouth before moving through the oesophagus and ending up in the stomach. After leaving the stomach, it moves into the small intestine and then the large intestine.
The GI tract is made up of multiple hollow organs that link to one another from the mouth to the anus. The hollow organs that make up the GI tract are the anus, small intestine, large intestine, and stomach. The part of your digestive process that receives food from your mouth is called the pharynx, which is located in your throat. The pharynx is connected to the oesophagus, which transports food to the stomach, and the trachea, also known as the windpipe, which transports air to the lungs.
So, we can conclude that option (a) is the appropriate response.
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In Drosophila, the allele red eyes (bw+) is dominant to the allele for brown eyes (bw). At another gene locus on the same chromosome, the allele for thin wing veins (hv+) is dominant to the allele for heavy wing veins (hv). Flies homozygous for bw and hv+ are crossed to flies homozygous for bw+ and hv to obtain doubly heterozygous F1 progeny. Given that these 2 gene loci are very closely linked, the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation should be closest to a. 9 brown, thin: 3 brown, heavy: 3 red, thin: 1 red, heavy b. 3 red, thin: 1 brown heavy c. 1 brown, thin: 1 brown, heavy: 1 red, thin: 1 red, heavy d. 1 brown, thin: 2 red, thin: 1 red, heavy
The phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation should be closest to the are d. 1 brown, thin: 2 red, thin: 1 red, heavy.
The alleles for eye shadeation and for frame shadeation are at the X chromosome of Drosophila, however now no longer at the Y.
Red eye shadeation (w+) is dominant to white eye shadeation (w), and tan frame shadeation (y+ ) is dominant to yellow frame shadeation (yDrosophila melanogaster has pink eyes. Scientists had been curious approximately the biosynthesis of the pink eye pigments and feature finished some of investigations on those compounds. Scientific contributions made during the last 50 years have stepped forward our know-how of the pink eye pigments.
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Meiotic drive is a phenomenon observed occasionally in which a heterozygous genotype does not produce a 1: 1 proportion of functional gametes, usually because one of the gametic types is not formed or fails to function. Suppose that an allele D shows meiotic drive such that heterozygous Dd genotypes form 3/4 D-bearing and 1/4 d-bearing functional gametes. What is the expected ratio of genotypes in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross under the assumptions stipulated below? (Hint: Use Punnett squares.)
(a) The meiotic drive occurs equally in both sexes.
(b) The meiotic drive occurs only in females.
Answer:
Explanation:
To find the expected ratio of genotypes in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross, you can use Punnett squares.
(a) If the meiotic drive occurs equally in both sexes, you can represent the cross as follows:
F1 generation:
DD x Dd
F2 generation:
DD Dd dd
DD Dd dd
In this case, the expected ratio of genotypes in the F2 generation is 1:2:1, which means that there is a 1/4 chance of producing a DD genotype, a 1/2 chance of producing a Dd genotype, and a 1/4 chance of producing a dd genotype.
(b) If the meiotic drive occurs only in females, you can represent the cross as follows:
F1 generation:
DD x dd
F2 generation:
DD Dd dd
DD Dd dd
In this case, the expected ratio of genotypes in the F2 generation is 3:1, which means that there is a 3/4 chance of producing a DD or Dd genotype and a 1/4 chance of producing a dd genotype.
the bacteria pseudomonas aeruginosa produces a protein that is secreted into its environment. the protein inhibits synthesis of elongation factor 2 (another protein) in humans. this effect may sound dangerous, but it has been considered as a possible treatment for hepatitis b. the protein produced by p. aeruginosa is a(n) endotoxin. exotoxin. biological weapon. biofilm.
The protein produced by P. aeruginosa is an exotoxin, which is a type of toxin that is actively secreted into the environment.
This exotoxin has the unique ability to inhibit the synthesis of elongation factor 2 (EF2) in humans. Although it may sound dangerous, this property has been considered as a possible treatment for hepatitis B due to EF2's role in the replication of the virus. In addition, the protein also has potential applications in cancer treatments. It is believed that the effect of the exotoxin can be used to prevent the growth of tumor cells. Therefore, this protein produced by P. aeruginosa is a useful therapeutic tool for various medical conditions.
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homologous pairs of chromosomes align opposite to each other at the equator of a cell during . metaphase of mitosis telophase ii of meiosis metaphase ii of meiosis metaphase i of meiosis
The homologous pairs of chromosomes align opposite to each other at the equator of a cell during are meiosis metaphase i.
During meiosis I, metaphase I occurs and chromosome pairs line up in the center of the cell. During meiosis II, metaphase II occurs and chromosomes are arranged in the center of the cell. The main difference is that chromosomes are paired in metaphase I and unpaired in metaphase II.
In metaphase I, homologous pairs of chromosomes align on either side of the equatorial plate. Then, in anaphase I, the spindle contracts and the two homologous chromatid pairs are pulled apart from each other and towards the poles of the cell. During telophase I, chromosomes are surrounded by the nucleus.
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______are used by the body as catalysts and lenzymes.
Minerals
Fats
Carbohydrates
Vitmains
Vitamins are used by the body as catalysts and enzymes. The correct option is D.
What are vitamins?Vitamins are organic substances that are generally classified as either fat soluble or water soluble. Fat-soluble vitamins dissolve in fat and build up in the body.
Except for vitamin C, all water-soluble vitamins have a catalytic function, which means they act as coenzymes of enzymes involved in energy transfer or the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins.
Catalysts are substances that change the rate of a chemical reaction while remaining unchanged. Enzymes are proteins that speed up chemical reactions by converting the substrate into the product.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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neurons are collectively grouped and wrapped by an endoneurium. these are then held in bundles collectively referred to as
Neurons are collectively grouped and wrapped by an endoneurium. These are then held in bundles collectively referred to as nerves.
A nerve bundle is wrapped in a layer of connective tissue called the perineurium. The nerve bundles are surrounded by the epineurium, the outer layer of connective tissue.
The endoneurium is a thin layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual nerve fibers within the nerve bundles. Provides structural support for nerve fibers and helps maintain nerve fascicle tissue.
The perineurium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds the nerve bundles. It protects the nerve bundles and provides structural support to the nerves.
The epineurium is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds nerves. It provides additional structural support to nerves and helps protect them from external damage.
Together, these layers of connective tissue help protect and support the nerve fibers within the nerve, allowing them to function properly.
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Which of the following statements about sister chromatids is FALSE?A. They are identical copies.B. They are duplicated chromosomes.C. They are attached at their centromeres.D. They are separated during mitosis.E. They replicate during prophase,
Answer:
Correct answer is E
Explanation:
The sister chromatids replicate during the S phase(synthesis phase) , rather than prophase.
The sequence starts with : interphase G1 , interphase S, interphase G2 , then prophase during mitosis.
In which brain structure does short term memory information processing take place?
A. brainstem
B. medulla
C. hypothalamus
D. hippocampus
In which brain structure does short term memory information processing take place hippocampus
A sophisticated brain structure located deep within the temporal lobe is the hippocampus. It plays a significant part in memory and learning. It is a malleable and delicate structure that is susceptible to various stimuli. According to studies, it is also impacted by a number of neurological and mental problems.What three activities does the hippocampus regulate?
The hippocampus, which is a crucial component of the limbic system, controls learning, memory encoding, memory consolidation, and spatial navigation.According to Schumacher et al. (2018), the hippocampus, which is part of the medial temporal lobe and connected to the amygdala, regulates emotional memory recall and regulation. It has improved functional connectivity with the anterior cingulate or amygdala during emotional regulation and recall of positive memory.
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Which of the following PCR modifications was developed to allow for the amplification of an RNA template ? A ) Multiplex B ) Nested C ) Reverse transcriptase D ) Real - time
Transcriptase in reverse To enable the amplification of an RNA template, PCR modifications were created.
The relatively straightforward polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technology amplifies a DNA template to generate certain DNA fragments in vitro. Amplification of DNA sequences by PCR requires much less time than traditional procedures, which can take days or weeks to clone a DNA sequence into a vector and replicate it in a living cell.
Contrary to conventional biochemical tests, which include nucleic acid detection with radioisotopes, the PCR procedure only needs a little amount of biological material. As a result, PCR can amp up individual sequences at higher levels and with greater sensitivity than earlier techniques did.
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FILL IN THE BLANK Back in the fossil field, you have discovered many fossils that are similar to Neko borgus. You notice, however, that the more recent Neko fossils tend to be larger than those that are more ancient. The most plausible conclusion is that __________.
You have found a lot of fossils that are comparable to Neko borgus back in the fossil field. You observe, however, that more modern Neko fossils seem to be bigger than the ones that are more old. Neko having gone through directional selection is the most logical consequence.
The biological species idea states that organisms may only interbreed and generate viable, fruitful offspring within their own species. Does the Earth's fossil layering serve to assist evolution. Yes, because fossils are deposited in a chronological order, we can track changes in species across time. You have found a lot of fossils that are comparable to Neko borgus back in the fossil field. You observe, however, that more modern Neko fossils seem to be bigger than the ones that are more old. Neko having gone through directional selection is the most logical consequence.The similarity between ancient and modern animals can be demonstrated via fossils. demonstrating the creatures' long-term evolution. Individuals are considered to be members of the same species under the biological organisms concept if they can intermarry in the wild and result in live, fruitful offspring. Prezygotic & postzygotic barriers prevent the reproduction of individuals of different species.
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If a patient is having a hard time digesting a certain lipid known as triacylglycerol. What organ(s)
effect the digestion of this lipid? Why could this be happening?
Categorize the following neurotransmitter/neuromodulator as to its ef belong to more than one category fect on the postsynaptic neuron. Some neurotransmitters may GABA Excitatory Inhibitory Glutamate 00-59-47 Dopamine Glycine Norepinephrine Nitric Oxide Acetylcholine Substance P
A neurotransmitter is a signaling molecule secreted by way of a neuron to have an effect on any other cell across a synapse. The mobile receiving the sign, any major body element or goal cellular, can be any other neuron, but could also be a gland or muscle cell.
Excitatory Inhibitatory
Glutamate - Helps in learning and memory. GABA - Reduces the Activity of neurons.
Dopamine - When it binds to D1 receptors Dopamine - When it binds to D2 receptors.
Glycine Glycine
Norepinephrine - Raises heartbeat and alertness.
Nitric Oxide - Increases blood flow to the brain and reduces oxidative stress there.
Acetylcholine - Activates the motor neurons to move and control muscles.
Substance P - Activates the vomiting center in the Medulla, regulates mood disorders and stress in the body.
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Bandura believes that self-reinforcement and self-punishment can work for people who are likely to feel ____ if they violate standards that they have set for themselves.
Bandura believes that self-reinforcement and self-punishment are effective for people who are more likely to feel guilty for going against the standards they set for themselves.
Self-reinforcement and self-punishment are two strategies for managing and controlling our behavior. Self-reinforcement is the process of rewarding oneself for engaging in desired behaviors. This can include rewarding yourself with a special treat for a job well done, or it could be as simple as feeling a sense of pride or accomplishment for completing a task. Self-punishment, on the other hand, is the process of punishing oneself for engaging in undesired behaviors. This can be done by denying oneself a reward or pleasure, or by actually inflicting physical or psychological pain in response to one’s own behavior.
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the anticodon of a particular trna molecule is the anticodon of a particular trna molecule is complementary to the corresponding mrna codon. complementary to the corresponding triplet in rrna. the part of trna that bonds to a specific amino acid. changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to the trna. catalytic, making the trna a ribozyme.
Answer A is the right choice. A specific tRNA molecule's anticodon complements the corresponding mRNA codon.
The mRNA molecule's matching codon and the anticodon of the tRNA are complementary. As a result, complementary base pairing allows the tRNA to bind to the mRNA codon. The appropriate mRNA codon and the tRNA anticodon are hence complementary. A trinucleotide sequence called an anticodon is found at one end of a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule and is complementary to a corresponding codon in an mRNA sequence.
The tRNA molecules are in charge of pairing amino acids with the proper codons in the mRNA. Each tRNA molecule has two separate ends; one of them attaches to a particular amino acid, while the other one binds to the appropriate mRNA codon.
Therefore, we might conclude that Answer A is the best option. The complementary mRNA codon of a particular tRNA molecule is its anticodon.
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Traits exhibiting simple dominant or recessive inheritance are controlled by the expression of _____ set(s) of allelescodominance
One
invariant
heterozygote
homozygote
Traits exhibiting simple dominant or recessive inheritance are controlled by the expression of invariant set(s) of alleles codominance.
Trait of recessive inheritance is the one that first arises or is visibly displayed in the organism. They can easily manage the invariant expressions . Invariant sets are used to control the characteristics of a person. Codominance, as it associates with genetic characteristics, suggests a kind of heritage wherein two versions (alleles) of a comparative quality are conveyed freely to yield different attributes in an individual. That is, as opposed to one trademark being beating the other, the two characteristics appear, for instance, in a plant or animal that has more than one shade tone.
Codominance in individuals, one codominant characteristic that you can't actually see by taking a gander at an individual, yet many individuals are familiar themselves, is blood classification. Individuals with the Stomach muscle blood classification have one An allele and one B allele. Since the two alleles are communicated simultaneously, their blood classification is Stomach muscle.
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WILL MARK BRAINLIEST
The presence of the mineral iridium in Earth's rocks gives evidence to what events in Earth's history?
Question 3 options:
Solar storm activity
Increased volcanic eruptions
Asteroid impacts
Reversed polarity
The presence of the mineral iridium in Earth's rocks gives evidence to asteroid impacts. Option C
What is Iridium?The element that is called iridium is one of the elements that are contained in the earth's crust. Many of the isotopes of iridium have been found to be radioactive. This is why we can be able to talk about iridium as we are looking at the history of the earth.
The mineral iridium is often present in large amounts and has been part of the geological history of the earth. It has taken part in all the earth events that have been taken place over the geological time scale of the earth and this explains why a study of the element is important as we are looking at the geological timescales of the earth in which we live and carry out activities.
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please select the response below that best reflects the relationship between race and genetic variability
race-specific genetic variation is greater than that between races.
Lewontin came to the following conclusion after conducting this analysis: "Since such racial categorization is now revealed to be of essentially no genetic nor taxonomic relevance either, no reason can be made for its persistence." Phase 1 of the The Human Genome Project (HGP) established that there is no genetic foundation for race and that there is more genetic variety within a race than between them, with the average human population of the world now being 99.9% genetically similar [2]. race-specific genetic variation is greater than that between races.The majority of the diversity (80–85%) among human populations is located within local geographic groupings, according to a seminal 1972 research by Lewontin, whereas variations related to traditional "race" groups make up just a small portion of human genetic differences (1–15%).
(Led by Richard Lewontin, the Human Genome Project found.....
A) More genetic variation within races than between races
B) More genetic variation between races than within races
C) Equal genetic variation for all groups
D) None of these)
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