Foodborne illness outbreaks can be caused by microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites. Determine whether each outbreak was caused by bacteria, viruses, or parasites.

a. A foodservice worker who doesn't wash his hands after handling contaminated seafood causes highly contagious tulike symptoms for passengers on a cruise ship
b. Raw oysters contaminated with Vibrio vulnicus.
c. An infected foodservice handler touches raw vegetables for a salad and transfers the condition that causes jaundice and liver damage to the customer who ordered the salad
d. A broken water main in a port town contaminates a boat's entre water supply with Cryptosporidium.
e. Prepackaged lettuce contaminated with Salmonella.
f. A broken meat thermometer ends up causing dinner guests to eat an undercooked pork roast infected with Thichinella spiralis.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

a. Undefined  

b. Bacteria

c. Viruses

d. Parasite

e. Bacteria

f. Parasite

Explanation:

In the first case is imperative to obtain more information in order to determine the causes of this contagious disease (contaminated seafood may be associated with different types of infections).

Vibrio vulnificus is a Gram-negative pathogenic bacterium associated with the consumption of contaminated oysters. V. vulnificus causes gastroenteritis, necrotizing infections and invasive sepsis.  

Jaundice is a condition caused by hepatitis A, B and E viruses, it is a disease associated with poor liver function and the destruction of red blood cells.  

Cryptosporidium parvum is a protist parasite (Phylum Apicomplexa) that causes the diarrheal disease cryptosporidiosis. C. parvum parasite is present in contaminated foods and water.

Salmonella enterica is a Gram-negative bacterium transmitted by eating contaminated foods, which causes severe diarrhea, fever and abdominal pain. Salmonella infection may also cause inflammatory diseases and dehydration.

Thichinella spiralis is a parasitic nematode that causes the trichinosis, a disease where larvae migrate to muscle, thereby producing muscle pains and serious pathologies. Trichinosis is caused by eating undercooked meat from contaminated animals.


Related Questions

In the DNA isolation process, cells are mixed with sodium chloride (i.e. NaCl) because the sodium (Na ) neutralizes the negative charge of DNA.

a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

this is true it neutralise easily

It is true that in the DNA isolation process, cells are mixed with sodium chloride (i.e. NaCl) because the sodium (Na ) neutralizes the negative charge of DNA.

What is DNA isolation?

DNA extraction is a method of separating DNA from cell membranes, proteins, and other cellular components using physical and/or chemical methods from a sample. In 1869, Friedrich Miescher isolated DNA for the first time.

The ability to extract DNA is critical for studying the genetic causes of disease and developing diagnostics and drugs.

It is also required for forensic science, genome sequencing, detecting bacteria and viruses in the environment, and determining paternity.

Because sodium (Na+) neutralizes the negative charge of DNA, cells are mixed with sodium chloride (i.e. NaCl) during the DNA isolation process. It makes homogenization easier.

Thus, the given statement is true.

For more details regarding DNA isolation, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13126093

#SPJ2

on terms of genetic similarity, which list is ordered from most similar to least similar b. cousin, uncle, mother, non twin sibling, identical twin

Answers

Answer:

Identical Twin, non twin sibling, Mother, Cousin, Then Uncle

Explanation:

Help me please!!! I need this

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - option A. 1 (ovary).

Explanation:

Oocytes or egg are produced in the ovaries during the process of the female gametogenesis in female reproductive system. Ovaries are located on each side of the uterus that are oval and small in shape and size and located lower abdomen.

Among other female reproductive organs these are located above others. The ovaries produce oocytes and hormones It is the site at which primordial germ cell (PGC), become primary oocytes.

Thus, the correct answer is - option A. 1 (ovary).

In the quest to understand the basis of infertility in humans, researchers have identified a mutation in a gene associated with chiasmata. This protein normally acts to promote homologous recombination.Why might a defect in homologous recombination have consequences for fertility?A. The chiasmata halts the whole process of meiosis, if crossover do not form properly.B. Crossover formation is a necessary step in meiosis I to ensure proper chromosome segregationC. A checkpoint requires a certain level of genetic variability for meiosis to proceed.D. Chiasmata are the connections between the centromeres and the centromeres that pull them to each pole of the daughter cells.

Answers

Answer:

B. Crossover formation is a necessary step in meiosis I to ensure proper chromosome segregation

Explanation:

Crossing-over is a unique phenomenon that occurs in the prophase I stage of meiosis I, where non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange their chromosomal segment. The physical point where this exchange occurs is called CHIASMATA. Hence, a mutation that affects the gene associated with the chiasmata will affect the occurrence of crossing over or homologous recombination.

Crossing-over, through the formation of the chiasmata, is responsible for the physical alignment and proper segregation of chromosomes into gametes. Naturally, the chiasmata formed as a result of recombination during meiosis helps ensure that the chromosomes stay together until it is the right time to separate. This way, any chromosomal defect in the resulting gamete is prevented.

However, an error or defect in homologous recombination might give rise to gametes with chromosomal disorder, a condition known as ANEUPLOIDY i.e. missing or additional chromosomes in gametes. This can affect the fertility of the involved human.

Predict what will happen to the following lung volumes and capacities during strenuous exercise. Assume that you are comparing from a baseline of normal resting respiration.


Lung Volume or Capacity Predicted change from resting baseline : Use Increase, Decrease or No Change

TLC (total lung capacity)
No change
VC (Vital capacity)
IC (Inspiratory capacity)
FRC (Functional residual capacity
TV (Tidal volume)
IRV (Inspiratory reserve volume)
ERV (Expiratory reserve volume)
RV (Residual volume)

Answers

Answer:

During intense exercise:

lung capacity increases

vital capacity increases

respiratory capacity increases

functional residual capacity increases

tidal volume increases

the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes decrease as does the residual volume.

Explanation:

Residual volumes decrease because having better lung capacity, better development of the secondary skeletal muscles that collaborate in expiration and inspiration, these are given in a better way, and more effectively.

If these processes take place more efficiently, their potentiality increases and expiration and inspiration move a large current of air into the lungs, thus leaving less reserve airs.

Those people who have increased exhalation or inspiration reserve, have a weak activity of the musculature in the processes and function as "stagnant air" which is synonymous with a lack of physical activity or aerobic capacity.

It is important to clarify that all the above processes are accompanied by an increase in the size of the chest cage

Which of the following is NOT a factor of sustainability?
Group of answer choices

economics

ethics

biodiversity

natural capital

solar energy

Answers

Answer:

natural capital

HOPE IT HELPS!

PLS MARK AS BRAINLIEST!!!

Alexei Romanov suffered from hemophilia, a condition that (1 point)
causes the body to produce too many blood cells due to the body's inability to form fibrin proteins.
o prevents blood from clotting normally due to the body's inability to form fibrin proteins.
O causes the body to produce abnormally shaped red blood cells due to the body's inability to form fibrin proteins.
o prevents the body from absorbing vitamin B12 due to the body's inability to form fibrin proteins.

Answers

Answer:

prevents blood from clotting normally due to the body's inability to form fibrin proteins.

Explanation:

Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which could be inherited and it is characterized by constant bleeding and loss of blood when injuries occur. This is as a result of the inability of the body to form fibril proteins. The fibril proteins are responsible for the production of platelets . The platelets are responsible for the clotting of blood.

This validates haemophilia being a disorder which prevent blood from clotting normally due to the body's inability to form fibrin proteins.

For those who need more answers

1. Adenine

2. Prevents blood from clotting normally due to the bodys inability to form fibrin proteins

3. TCA

4. DNA has the sugars deoxyribose, while RNA has the sugar ribose

5. tRNA carries amino acids to the ribosome and helps form proteins

According to kirk smith a professor of environmental health at the university of california berkley indoor fires increase risks of pneumonia tuberculosis lung cancer and low birth weight in babies born of women expose during pregnancy. What simple solution is being widely promoted to reduce the risk of death?
a) preparing meals using solar cookers.
b) switching from wood to burning crop waste as a fuel source.
c) adding more windows to houses as a source of ventilation.
d) passing a green tax to make homeowners pay for their pollution.
e) providing asthma inhalers to children under the age of 12 years.

Answers

Answer:

preparing meals using solar cookers.

Explanation:

solar cookers  radiates at low rates.Therefore the most of the nutrients in the foods are conserved.Thus most micro nutrients for biochemical activities are retained. Vitamins which can not withstand high temperature are preserved.

Most importantly carcinogens which are usually associated with high heat foods are avoided ,when cook with low heat of solar cookers

The solar cooker is smoke free,therefore irritation of the lungs,lung cancer associated with high heat  cookers is avoided.

Specifically,local Mayan women exposed to high heat smoke cookers, suffers lung cancer,and those with pregnancy gives to infants with low birth weights. Children exposed to theses high heat also experienced acute lower respiratory infections.

Thus the smokeless,low heat solar cooker is safer.

Acidification of the stomach uses all of the following types of transport EXCEPT: A. channels. B. pumps. C. antiporters. AND. symporters. E. All of these are used by parietal cells.

Answers

Answer: Option E.

All of these are used by parietal cells.

Explanation:

Parietal cells are found in the stomach and they produced gastric acid(Hcl)..

HCl is produced when water mixed with carbondioxide in the parietal cell to produced carbonic acid which is catalyses by carbonic anhydrase. The carbonic acid then dissociates into hydrogen ion and carbonate ion.

Parietal cell produce HCl due to histamine (via H2 receptors), acetylcholine (M3 receptors) and gastrin (gastrin receptors).

Therefore it uses channels, pumps, antiporter.

You believe that the cytosolic protein p007 is involved in mediating growth hormone-stimulated proliferation in cells. You wish to establish a cell model using your cultured fibroblasts. Provide clear explanations to the following, each worth 2.5 pts each. a) Describe how you would transfect the growth hormone receptor DNA into your cells to create stable cell lines, and include a description of the benefits of using stable cell lines versus transiently transfected cell line. b) Describe how you would measure specific receptor binding of GH to your stable cell line. c) Describe how you would measure growth hormone-induced proliferation in your stable cell line. Make sure to include controls. d) Describe how you would use RNAi to demonstrate the requirement for p007 in growth-hormone stimulated proliferation. Make sure to include controls.

Answers

Answer:

Following are the answer to this question:

Explanation:

In option a:

There are many ways, which can be defined as follows:  

It keeping cells "qualified," use heat shock and handle ions like Ca and ice incubating.It uses Micro-injection with DNA.  It uses the biolistics or even the process of gene-gun.  

The stable cell charts indicate simple and definitive outcomes when their relationship to specific results. Moreover, relative to temporary cell lines, findings are more reliable and error-free. These lines also easily break and much less.

In option b:

Radio tests including linking tests could be used  

The Ligand Binding Assays is an analysis, that is based on the binding of ligands to antibodies, or other macromolecules. Its existence and distance of formed ligand-receptor complexes are defined using a system of measurement that is usually electrical or fluorescent.

In option c:

The method for measuring the levels of cell growth is accessible and the  Another way is to measure the metabolism within the same cell. So many color pigments were also accessible that can permeate an organism as well as react with some proteins as well as other factors, and that can effectively identify a color final product.  

Throughout relation to the amount of metabolism exercise, cell proliferation could be evaluated by researching one or even more cell markings. The BrdU limited liability assessment is a very well-published illustration.  

Its specific antibody can detect BrdU and high BrdUincorporations levels are linked to high levels of cell proliferation.  Command cell without DNA receptor growth hormone.

In option d:

The cell growth will stop after each use of RNA interference ( RNAi). The p007 formation as well as the effect on growth caused by the intrusion will be a goal. If development is delayed effectively, the theory will be tested successfully to a cell without any of the required DNA. The RNAi is the free cell

Provide one example of quantitative data that can be collected when using a microscope?

Answers

Answer: there 3 ducks by the pond

Explanation:

Quantitative is numbers. how many.

The relative value of grains for animals is determined primarily by metabolizable energy and crude protein content. From the information below, which grain is the best choice for feeding swine?Grain Crude Protein Metabolizable Energy $ Per TonBarley 13.00% 3.000 kcal/kg 170Corn 10.00% 3.600 kcal/kg 160Grain sorghum 12.00% 3,200 kcal/kg 140Wheat 14.00% 3,400 kcal/kg 180

Answers

Answer:

Corn

Explanation:

Good news for corn and soybean hog growers because these two grains are the main ingredients in pork diet and these feedstuffs should be affordable.   According to metabolism, corn has the highest metabolic energy, i.e. 3600 k.cal/kg                Therefore, corn is the best food for swin  so, the correct answer is corn.  

chapter 1 in microscope biology​

Answers

Answer:

100*

Explanation:

it is a bacteria which needs to be seen under a strong microscope.

If an experimenter wants to use the GFP method but needs to detect the presence or absence of several proteins at the same time, he can take advantage of mutational variants of GFP that emit what light?

Answers

Answer:

different colors

Explanation:

The green fluorescent protein (GFP) is a type of protein widely used in molecular biology laboratories because this protein can be used to detect the expression of proteins and to identify cellular structures. This protein displays green fluorescence when it is excited by blue light and, in the last years, many variants of the GFP protein have been developed. The altered GFP proteins react to distinct wavelengths of light, thereby emitting light to different colors. The mutants forms of the GFP protein are produced by genome engineering techniques that generate modifications capable of altering the folding of the normal GFP protein.

which of the following would differ if you compared the same reaction taking place with and without an enzyme

a. the chemical energy of the reactants
b. the chemical change of the product
c. the energy required to the reaction

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - option C.

Explanation:

Chemical energy is the energy that every substance or chemical have and its not affected by the presence or absence of the enzyme, while the activation energy is the required energy to initiate for a chemical reaction. If the energy of the chemical reaction is less than the activation energy reaction will not take place.

Presence of a enzyme lowers the amount of the energy for the initiating the reaction which is activation energy and the chemical reaction takes place.

Thus, the correct answer is - option C.

Where does that air go as a result?

Answers

Answer:

Air go from one place to another due to difference in temperature of land and sea.

Explanation:

Air go as a result of wind from one place to another. Air moves from land to sea is called land breeze and from sea to land is known as sea breeze. This will occur when there is difference in temperature between sea and land. Sea breeze occurs at afternoon while land breeze occurs at night till morning. Warm air produces low pressure and cold air produces high pressure so when warm air rises, cold air takes its place and this cycle continues.

Explain what, if any, is the issue facing DNA polymerase in regards to its 5’->3’ activity when replicating DNA.

Answers

Answer:

The two strands of DNA are replicated in different ways

Explanation:

DNA replication is a process that occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle that consists of making two identical copies of the double-stranded DNA molecule, which subsequently are distributed in the daughter cells during cell division. During this process, DNA polymerase can add nucleotides in 5' to 3' direction, but not in 3' to 5' direction. In consequence, the DNA strand that has 3’ to 5’ directionality can be synthesized directly, while the DNA template strand that has 5’ to 3’ directionality can't be synthesized in a continuous manner and thereby it is created by adding small DNA fragments, which are known as Okazaki fragments (150-200 nucleotides in size).

The ion composition of perilymph is like that of interstitial fluid; high sodium and low potassium levels. If someone ruptured the vestibular membrane, the membrane between the vestibular duct (Scala vestibuli) and the cochlear duct (Scala media), what would be the effect of such a rupture on the concentration of potassium in the endolymph in the cochlear duct

Answers

Answer:

The concentration of potassium will decrease

Explanation:

The cochlear ducts are composed of two distict types of fluids: 1-perilymph, rich in sodium (140 mM) and low in potassium (5 mM), and 2- endolymph, rich in potassium (1 mM) and low in sodium (150 mM). The perilymph fluid has a similar composition to the rest of the extracellular fluids, while endolymph present a unique ion composition that is not found in other fluids of the body. It is believed that the cochlea can regulate potassium flow without using energy (i.e.,  without use ATP), since potassium enters into the cells through passive pathways, while this ion ion leaves the cells by an active mechanism.

The most abundant element in the body of living things is: a) Hydrogen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon d) Oxygen​

Answers

Answer:

D. Oxygen

Explanation:

Oxygen is the most abundant element in the bodies of living things. For example, oxygen is about 65% of the human body.

Oxygen in the body is mostly in the form of water, since the bodies of living things need water to create energy needed every day.

how gravity plays a role in the parts of the water cycle shown in this model.

Answers

Answer:

look dear i will explain

Explanation: It pulls precipitation down from clouds and pulls water down hill . gravity also moves air and ocean water. Gravity pulls denser air and water downwards,forcing less dense air and water o move upwards.

okay hope it works

Hit like

Answer:

Gravity causes precipitation in the clouds to fall to Earth. On the ground, gravity influences surface runoff, as water travels from higher to lower elevations. Gravity also influences groundwater because it pulls elements toward the center of Earth. Water, under the influence of gravity, seeps into the ground to form groundwater.

Explanation:

there u go guys thats the sample answer but change it up please. have a good day

If you insert a gene from bacteria into a mouse genome, then which terms best explains what you just made?

Answers

Answer:

a transgenic animal

Explanation:

A class is debating pros and cons of using sea walls to reduce beach erosion. What is the best way for them inform their
decision-making?

They should each write an opinion paragraph to send to the local paper.

They should hold the debate on stage, so that they can be judged.

They should watch movies about beaches.

They should research wave action and collect data about erosion in the area.

Answers

Answer:

They should research wave action and collect data about erosion in the area.

Explanation:

everyone has their own opinion, and movies aren't gonna make the cut, and no one wants to see a debate in school, so they should research first to get the info they need

Mandy and Pat are discussing a movie that showed someone being injured by radio waves. Mandy says that's not likely because
radio waves are low frequency and low energy, and Pat says that it is likely because otherwise they would not put it in a movie.
What is the best way to help them decide if the information is true?

They can write a letter to the director.

Movies are reliable sources, so they can assume Pat is correct.

They can use reliable web sites or books to get more information.

They can watch another movie in the series to see what happens next.

Answers

they can use reliable web sites or books to get more information

Answer:

Its C, They can use reliable web sites or books.

Explanation:

an advertisement on tv claims children grow faster with the use of vitamin gro. vitamin gro is a 25mg pill taken twice a day. the viewer has little knowledge about how children grow, but he knows that children need a complete diet and a good exercise routine. he decided to put the commercial to the test. the viewer uses his 6 nieces who are the same age to conduct the experiments. to make the experiment easier he uses his six nieces using labels such as child 1, child 2 and so on. he records their height every 3 days for 7 days. What are the variables?

Answers

Answer:

Independent variable - vitamin gro and exercise routine.

Dependent variable - growth of children or nieces.

Explanation:

There are two variables present in an experiment called dependent and independent variables.

Independent variables are those variables which can be controlled in an experiment and dependent variables are those variables which are measured in the experiment under the influence of the independent variable.

In the given experiment, the independent variable will be vitamin gro and exercise routine and the dependent variable is the growth of children or nieces because vitamin gro and exercise routine can be controlled and growth of children is dependent on vitamin gro and exercise routine.

After arousal by a sensory stimulus, consciousness can be maintained by positive feedback, because of activity in the

Answers

Answer:

This question lacks options, options are:

A) cerebral cortex.

B) basal nuclei.

C) sensory pathways.

D) motor pathways.

E) All of the answers are correct.

The correct answer is E.

Explanation:

The cerebral cortex processes and filters its information before passing the most relevant aspects to other regions of the brain. Some of these brain regions, in turn, send information back to the cortex. These loops, known as 'feedback systems', are considered essential for the functioning of cortical networks and their adaptation to new sensory information. Neural circuits must first assess the importance of incoming sensory information and then refine how it is processed in the future. Positive feedback, triggered with the purpose of amplifying the response to the initial stimulus, can be compared to a chain reaction or a vicious circle. Few are the functions regulated by this mechanism; rather it is triggered in pathological situations. It is the system by means of which the organism very rarely regulates any of the bodily functions under normal conditions, making the initial stimulus to be maintained and even increased. This type of mechanism is predominantly present in pathological situations: Its constitutive elements are: stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector and response. The response does not have the ability to satisfy the initial stimulus.

What part of the brain is known as the pleasure center?

A. Brain stem

B. Hypothalamus

C. Thalamus

D. Midbrain

SUBMIT

Answers

Answer:

B. Hypothalamus

Explanation:

The hypothalamus contains the pleasure center of the brain, the nucleus accumbens. The hormone dopamine is released from this part of the brain in response to or anticipation of pleasurable activities such as eating good food, monetary rewards as well as when taking psychoactive drugs.

The release of dopamine affects other feelings such as happiness, focus, being alert as well as staying motivated. it also affect some voluntary actions as well.

Constantly seeking out activities that stimulate dopamine release may lead to addiction to such activities as in drug addiction.

Which philosopher believed that the soul operated on three levels: reason, will, and desire? A. Socrates B. Plato C. John Locke D. Hippocrates Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D

Answers

Answer:

B. Plato

Plato was known as a renowned philosopher in Athens, Greece. He believed that the soul operated on three levels which include Reason, Will and Desire.

Plato was of the notion that the soul was tripartite as a result of it having three levels of operation. He also believed that the soul can never die and will still be in operation and thought even after a person dies.

Answer:

Which philosopher believed that the soul operated on three levels: reason, will, and desire?

A. Socrates

B. Plato

C. John Locke

D. Hippocrates

Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. If a researcher moves the repressor gene (lacI), along with its promoter, to a position at some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, which of the following results would be expected?
A) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator.
B) The repressor will no longer bind to the inducer.
C) The lac operon will be expressed continuously.
D) The lac operon will function normally.

Answers

Answer:

D) The lac operon will function normally.

Explanation:

The promoter area can be described as the area that causes the transcription to initiate for a particular gene. Promoters may be near the genes from which they initiate transcription or they may display multiple scenes upstream. The lock operon works normally because the promoter area can still enable transcription on many base pairs. Detects repression promoter and works normally.so correct option is D) The lac operon will function normally.

If a researcher moved the repressor gene of lac I, along with its promoter; the lac operon will function normally. Option D is correct.

Promotor:

It is the genetic sequence that is recognized by the RNA polymerase to start the transcription.

Here, researcher moved the repressor gene of lac I , along with its promoter.

Therefore, transcription starts, it will express the repressor gene also because repressor gene was moved with promotor.

To know more about Lac operon,

https://brainly.com/question/4109690

fur color in mice is affected by a single gene the gene for fur color has two alleles: b that causes dark brown fur and b that causes light brown fur. What is or could be the genotyes of a mouse with dark brown fur

Answers

Answer:

(BB) or (Bb)

Explanation:

Given that (B) allele , is responsible for fur that is dark brown, and (b) allele is responsible for fur color that is light brown, the dominant allele is (B) allele for dark brown fur. Dark brown fur allele would always express itself over the recessive allele, (b).

For a mouse that has dark brown fur, the possible genotype it could have is either (BB) => 2 dominant allele, or (Bb) => 1 dominant allele and a recessive allele. The dominant allele would always express itself even in the presence of the recessive allele.

Two students are comparing scientific experiments to investigations. They came up with the following ideas. Student A: Testing plant growth in different types of soils Student B: Comparing the water level in a lake during different times of the year Which student gave an example of a scientific experiment? Student A because it requires experimental and control groups Student B because it requires a hypothesis Student A because it is preferably done in natural settings Student B because it is preferably done across a long period of time

Answers

Answer:

Student A because it requires experimental and control groups

Explanation:

Answer:

i took the test, its A

Student A because it requires experimental and control groups

Explanation:

Other Questions
A city of Punjab has a 15 percent chance of wet weather on any given day. What is the probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days? Also find its Standard Deviation Read the following paragraph from Nevada Moose Herds Growing, an article written by Benjamin Spillman on page 1A in the October 18, 2017 edition of the Reno Gazette-Journal: Given the limited amount of viable moose habitat in Nevada, the driest state in the U.S., its likely the population is small. But the Nevada Department of Wildlife wants to alert the public to keep people from shooting them. Which of the options below most correctly and effectively incorporates this source material? (Either APA or MLA style citations are acceptable.) In his article Nevada Moose Herds Growing, Spillman notes that the Nevada Department of Wildlife doesnt want people shooting moose because their population is small (1A). Although the Nevada moose herds growing, that doesnt mean you should shoot them (Spillman 1A). Nevada is too dry to support a large moose herd, but their population is growing. (Nevada Department of Wildlife 1A). Its a sad state of affairs when NDOW announces a rare animal sighting not so we can enjoy them but to keep people from shooting them (Spillman 1A). explain how 6/12 and 4/8 are equal fractions The function f is defined by f(x) = (x + 3)(x + 1).The graph of f in the xy-plane is a parabola. Whichof the following intervals contains the x-coordinateof the vertex of the graph of f? Compare and contrast the BFG with the rest of the giants Which of the following statements is true for a function with equation Ax) = 5(3)*?The graph has y-intercept (0,5) and increases with a constant ratio of 3.The graph has y-intercept (0, 3) and decreases with a constant ratio of 3.The graph has y-intercept (0, 3) and increases with a constant ratio of 5.The graph has y-intercept (0,5) and decreases with a constant ratio of 3. Choose the correct sum of the polynomials (6x3 8x 5) + (3x3 + 6x + 2). 9x3 2x 3 3x3 + 2x + 3 3x3 2x 3 9x3 + 14x + 3 Milo Company manufactures beach umbrellas. The company is preparing detailed budgets for the third quarter and has assembled the following information to assist in the budget preparation: The Marketing Department has estimated sales as follows for the remainder of the year (in units): July 30,000 October 20,000 August 70,000 November 10,000 September 50,000 December 10,000 The selling price of the beach umbrellas is $12 per unit. All sales are on account. Based on past experience, sales are collected in the following pattern: 30% in the month of sale 65% in the month following sale 5% uncollectibleSales for June totaled $300.000. c. The company maintains finished goods inventories equal to 15% of the following month's sales. This requirement will be met at the end of June. d. Each beach umbrella requires 4 feet of Gilden, a material that is sometimes hard to acquire. Therefore, the company requires that the ending inventory of Gilden be equal to 5096 of the following month's production needs. The inventory of Gilden on hand at the beginning and end of the quarter will be: June 30 72,000 feetSeptember 30 ___ feete. Gilden costs $0.80 per foot. One-half of a month's purchases of Gilden is paid for in the month of purchase; the remainder is paid for in the following month. The accounts payable on July 1 for purchases of Gilden during June will be $76,000. Required: 1. Prepare a sales budget, by month and in total, for the third quarter. (Show your budget in both units and dollars.) Also prepare a schedule of expected cash collections, by month and in total, for the third quarter. 2. Prepare a production budget for each of the months July-October. 3. Prepare a direct materials budget for Gilden, by month and in total, for the third quarter. Also prepare a schedule of expected cash disbursements for Gilden, by month and in total, for the third quarter. Factorise : x^2-9x-70 Step by Step How would you simplify and rationalize this expression? [tex]\frac{5\sqrt[4]{2}}{4\sqrt[4]{162} }[/tex] PLS HELP ASAP Solve the inequality and enter your solution as an inequality in the box below 8>4-x>6 What is the solution to -5 + z = -12 A. z = -17 B. z = -7 C. z = 7 D. z = 17 he most common source of osteomyelitis is an infection that migrates via the bloodstream. direct invasion from a fracture. surgical contamination. a joint prosthesis. please help which phrase best completes the diagram? How will we remember the 2020? How do you think history books will record this moment? What stories will you tellyour grandchildren about what it was like to live during this time? A technician is testing light bulbs to determine the number of defective bulbs. The technician records the table below to show the results. Result of Light Bulb Test Number of Bulbs Tested 14 28 84 336 Number of Defective Bulbs Found 1 2 6 ? The technician expects to find 24 defective bulbs when 336 are tested. Which statement explains whether the technicians reasoning is correct, based on the information in the table? Nine and one-half less than four and one-half times a number is greater than 62.5. Which of the following represents the solution set of this problem?(16, positive infinity)(Negative 16, positive infinity)(Negative infinity, 16)(Negative infinity, Negative 16) How is multi cellularity advantages over increasing the mass of a single cell Two numbers are in ratio 3 by 2 and their difference is 5 find numbers Which of the sentences below is an affirmative t command that uses doubleobject pronouns and corresponds to the following sentence?Dale los zapatos a Pedro.oA. Se los das.O B. Dselos.O C. No se los des.O D. Dselo.