Functional imaging studies indicate that drugs that alleviate symptoms of schizophrenia tend to increase activation of thefrontal cortex

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Answer 1

It is false that functional imaging studies indicate that drugs that alleviate symptoms of schizophrenia tend to increase activation of the frontal cortex.

Functional imaging is that the study of human brain perform supported analysis of knowledge noninheritable victimization brain imaging modalities like Electroencephalography (EEG), fMRI, or Optical Imaging, MEG or PET. Functional imaging techniques is accustomed verify the consequences of brain injury or sickness on brain systems associated with psychological feature and behavior and to work out however rehabilitation changes brain systems.

Schizophrenia is a serious disturbance within which individuals interpret reality abnormally. Dementia praecox could end in some combination of hallucinations, delusions, and intensely disordered thinking and behavior that impairs daily functioning, and might be disabling. Individuals with dementia praecox need womb-to-tomb treatment.

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which clinical manifestation would be most indicative of complete arterial obstruction in the lower extremities?

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The most frequent cause of lower extremity chronic arterial occlusive disease is atherosclerosis.

Blood flow to the lower leg is decreased during activity or at rest due to artery blockage brought on by atherosclerosis. Exercise-induced discomfort in the affected limb that goes away with rest is known as intermittent claudication. The location of this pain is typically far from the artery obstruction or constriction. The discomfort of intermittent arterial   claudication is primarily confined to the calf since the superficial femoral and popliteal arteries are the vessels that are most frequently damaged by atherosclerosis. The two iliac arteries' bifurcation and the distal aorta are the next most typical sites of involvement. Pain in the thighs or buttocks as well as in the legs may result from the narrowing of these arteries.

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The most frequent cause of lower extremity chronic arterial occlusive disease is atherosclerosis.

Blood flow to the lower leg is decreased during activity or at rest due to artery blockage brought on by atherosclerosis. Exercise-induced discomfort in the affected limb that goes away with rest is known as intermittent claudication. The location of this pain is typically far from the artery obstruction or constriction. The discomfort of intermittent arterial   claudication is primarily confined to the calf since the superficial femoral and popliteal arteries are the vessels that are most frequently damaged by atherosclerosis. The two iliac arteries' bifurcation and the distal aorta are the next most typical sites of involvement. Pain in the thighs or buttocks as well as in the legs may result from the narrowing of these arteries.

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a child is brought into the emergency department with a severe asthmatic episode by the grandparents who are caring for the child over the weekend while the parents are away. what is the legal consideration(s) for the health care team? select all that apply.

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A child is brought into the emergency department with a severe asthmatic episode by the grandparents who are caring for the child over the weekend while the parents are away therefore the legal consideration for the health care team is to offer the required medical treatment and save the life of the child and is denoted as option B.

What is Healthcare?

This is referred to as the various forms of efforts which are made to maintain or restore physical, mental, or emotional well-being by trained professionals such as Doctors etc.

Under the law, children are entitled to protection and appropriate medical treatment despite their parents' religious views or in their absence which is why offering the required care is legal and is the appropriate and right thing to do in this type of scenario.

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The options are:

suspend treatment until parents arrive.continue with the treatment.allow the child to die.

78-year-old man has a history of a cerebrovascular accident. the nurse notes that when he walks, his left arm is immobile against the body with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder. his left leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. what type of gait disturbance is this individual experiencing?

Answers

Spastic hemiparesis: This condition causes the arm to become motionless in relation to the body. Flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers also occurs, and an adducted shoulder is shown that does not easily swing.

Why are mishaps referred to as accidents?

The word "accident" suggests that no one in particular is to blame for an automobile collision. This is seen in the expression "It was merely an accident," which is frequently used. On the other hand, the word "crash" implies that someone was responsible for the auto accident or that it was their responsibility.

What is an accident example?

Physical instances of accidents include unintentional car accidents, slips and falls, burns from touching something hot or sharp, and bumps while walking.

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a baby was born with a ventricular septal defect (vsd). the provider performed a right heart catheterization and transcatheter closure with implant by percutaneous approach. what codes are reported?

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93581, Q21.0, The following codes were recorded for a newborn with a ventricular septal defect (vsd). The medical professional carried out a transcatheter closure and right cardiac catheterization.

One type of common birth abnormality is a hole in the heart called a ventricular septal defect (VSD) (congenital). Blood can flow from the left side of the heart to the right side of the heart due to a hole (defect) in the wall (septum) separating the lower chambers (ventricles) of the heart. Urinary catheterization involves inserting a catheter (a hollow tube) into the bladder to drain or collect urine. cardiac catheterization comes in two primary flavours: clean intermittent catheterization and indwelling catheterization (CIC). With this kind of catheterization, the catheter's tip stays inside the bladder.

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In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, which of the following is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey?
A. Initiation of pulse oximetry.
B. Complete set of vital signs.
C. Client’s allergy history.
D. Brief neurologic assessment.

Answers

In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, the following which is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey is brief neurologic assessment and is therefore denoted as option D.

What is a Trauma?

This is referred to as an incident that causes physical, emotional, spiritual, or psychological harm to an individual.

This could cause different types of negative effect which is why a brief neurologic assessment which helps to determine the level of consciousness is needed as part of the primary survey and is therefore the reason why option D was chosen as the correct choice in this scenario.

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a 71-year-old woman presents with an acute onset of confusion, slurred speech, and left-sided weakness. she is conscious and her airway is patent. her bp is 180/94 mm hg, her pulse is 70 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 14 breaths/min and unlabored, and her oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. what should you do?

Answers

Keep her sitting up and transport them without delay.

In the case of a stroke the patient's symptoms are obvious. Second, the most important procedure is to transport the patient to a stroke center where fibrinolytics can be administered and other procedures can be performed just to address airway breathing and circulation problems. Sit the patient protect the airway and transport the patient immediately.

In this scenario, the patient is breathing well and does not require a ventilator. Her blood pressure is elevated, but this is not being treated by her EMT on site. The patient's oxygen saturation did not indicate hypoxemia and he was not short of breath. Therefore, supplemental oxygen is not indicated. Do not give aspirin to patients with stroke-like symptoms. Aspirin may make things worse if the stroke is caused by bleeding in the brain.

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a patient is sent to a general surgeon by her family physician for an opinion and recommendation for surgical repair of a recurrent femoral hernia, right. a brief problem focused history and exam are performed. the mdm complexity was straightforward. what is the correct e/m service code?

Answers

The correct e/m service code is CPT Code: 99241

ICD-10-CM:

K41.91

A femoral hernia occurs when fatty tissue or a portion of your bowel protrudes through the top of your inner thigh into your groin. It pushes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle wall (abdominal wall) into an area called the femoral canal. Femoral hernias are generally not life-threatening medical conditions. Strangulation of the hernia can become life-threatening, however, and must be treated through emergency surgery.

Femoral hernias are frequently confused with inguinal hernias due to their proximity. Femoral hernias are relatively uncommon. If the hernia is not repaired, the intestine can become trapped inside. This is referred to as an incarcerated or strangulated hernia. It has the potential to cut off blood supply to the intestines.

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the parents of a child admitted with rheumatic fever (rf) ask why the child has been placed on bedrest. the nurse explains that bedrest serves what primary purpose for the client?

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Bedrest serves primary purpose for the client with rheumatic fever to restrict the inflammation and pain.

Rheumatic fever (acute rheumatic fever) is a condition that may have an effect on the guts, joints, brain, and skin. infectious disease will develop if infection, contagion, and strep skin infections aren't treated properly. Symptoms embody fever and painful, tender joints. Treatment involves medication, typically for keeps.

Rheumatic fever causes inflammation, particularly of the guts, blood vessels and joints. The heart valves may be inflamed and become scarred over time. Rheumatic fever will cause long complications in sure things. It primarily affects youngsters between the ages of six and sixteen.

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Dietary supplements may be beneficial for
a. a pregnant woman
b. someone who is on a diet with restricted kilocalorie intake
c. an elderly man with pneumonia
d. a healthy college student
e. a,b, and c only

Answers

The correct option is (E) that is a, b and c only.

a. a pregnant woman

b. someone who is on a diet with restricted kilocalorie intake

c. an elderly man with pneumonia

All nutrients are important, but these six play a key role in your baby's growth and development during pregnancy:

Folic acid.Iron.Calcium.Vitamin D.DHA.Iodine.

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an 80-year-old patient who is overweight andsedentary has developed elevated fastingglucose levels (142, 153, and 147 mg/dl). shewas diagnosed with diabetes today.considering her age, how should the nursepractitioner proceed

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The nurse practitioner would proceed with start metformin 500 mg daily.

To treat high blood sugar, metformin is taken along with a healthy diet, an exercise routine, and maybe other drugs. Patients with type 2 diabetes use it. Keeping blood sugar levels under control helps prevent kidney damage, blindness, nerve damage, limb loss, and issues with sexual function. The chance of having a heart attack or stroke may be reduced if your diabetes is well controlled.

The way that metformin works is by assisting in restoring your body's appropriate reaction to the insulin that must naturally make. Additionally, it reduces how much sugar the liver produces and how much sugar your stomach and intestines absorb.

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Which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline of the American Medical Association as a way to protect electronic medical records?
Keep all backup disks in a safe place away from the practice
Prepare a backup plan for use when the computer system is down
Change login codes every 18 months
Store disks in a bank safe deposit box
Set security levels to limit entry to all functions

Answers

In order to safeguard electronic medical records, the American Medical Association changes login codes every 18 months.

Which medical course is the best?

Medical and surgical bachelor's degree: This degree, which is sometimes referred to as MBBS, is frequently regarded as the most prestigious in the medical industry. To enroll in this programme, one must successfully pass the NEET UG admission test.

What does a work medical entail?

Pre-placement health testing and pre-employment medical exams both seek to analyze and monitor people in order to identify risk factors that could prevent them from performing effectively at work. It guarantees there is no risk to the employee or their coworkers.

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a client who is in rehabilitation following a cerebrovascular accident (or brain attack) is experiencing total hemiplegia of the dominant right side. the nurse finds that the client needs assistance with eating to ensure optimum nutrition. which action is most important for the nurse to take to facilitate rehabilitation with eating?

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Answer:

The most important action for the nurse to take to facilitate rehabilitation with eating for a client who is experiencing total hemiplegia of the dominant right side following a cerebrovascular accident is to assess the client's swallowing function. This is important because individuals with hemiplegia often have difficulty swallowing, which can lead to malnutrition and other complications. The nurse can assess the client's swallowing function by performing a swallowing evaluation, which typically involves observing the client while they eat and drink to identify any problems with swallowing. Based on the results of the evaluation, the nurse can recommend appropriate interventions to improve the client's swallowing function and ensure that they are able to eat and drink safely and optimally.

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Explanation:

which of the following characterizes chronic malnutrition in children? a. rapid weight loss b. low weight for height c. short height for age d. hyperactivity e. shrunken liver

Answers

The chronic malnutrition in children is short height for age which means option c is the correct choice.

This is a condition that develops when children do not eat the correct balance of nutrients in the first 1,000 days of life (from conception to the age of two), resulting in the irreversible stunting of their cognitive and physical development. It is caused by a lack of nutrients, either as a result of a poor diet or problems absorbing nutrients from food. Estimates indicate that starving people become weak in 30 to 50 days and die in 43 to 70 days.

Therefore, option c is the correct choice.

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a 46-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and shortness of breath after he was bitten on the leg by a rattlesnake. his blood pressure is 106/58 mm hg and his pulse rate is 112 beats/min. treatment for this patient should include:

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A 46-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and shortness of breath after he was bitten on the leg by a rattlesnake. his blood pressure is 106/58 mm hg and his pulse rate is 112 beats/min. treatment for this patient should include: splinting and lowering of the affected parts.

Every year, not a few people in the world die from venomous snake bites. A venomous snakebite is a medical emergency as it can cause shock and death. Prompt and appropriate treatment of snake bites can reduce mortality by more than 90 percent. Find out the first aid steps when bitten by a snake in the following review.

The difference between venomous and non-venomous snakes

Snakes are one of the many animals found in tropical countries like Indonesia. One of the snake's defense mechanisms when it feels threatened is to bite the target.

Snakebite wounds can come from venomous or non-venomous snakes. Snake venom contains poison that can paralyze the body.

There are more than 2000 species of snakes in the world, but only about 200 species of snakes are venomous.

To distinguish the type of snake venomous or nonvenomous, you can pay attention to the following signs:

Non-venomous snake characteristics: rectangular head shape, small canine, round pupils, and bite marks in the form of smooth open wounds in the form of an arch. The characteristics of venomous snakes: triangular head shape, two large canines on the upper jaw, vertical and thinly flat black pupils, surrounded by yellow-green eyeballs, and the type of bite wound is in the form of two fang bite holes, similar to a stick or sharp object puncture

Some types of venomous snakes that we can find around us are spoon snakes, welang snakes, cobras, ground snakes, green snakes, sea snakes, and tree snakes.

Bites by these types of venomous snakes require immediate first aid and emergency medical treatment.

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a client with breast cancer is being treated with cyclophosphamide. the nurse plans care, knowing that this medication fits which classification?

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The classification is the Cell cycle phase nonspecific.

If breast cancer has spread to the lymph nodes your doctor may recommend chemotherapy. Year. Breast cancers that arise at a younger age may be more aggressive than cancers that arise later in life. Therefore, doctors may recommend that young breast cancer patients undergo chemotherapy.

Most women undergo surgery for breast cancer and many receive additional treatments such as chemotherapy, hormone therapy, and radiation after surgery. Chemotherapy may also be used before surgery in certain circumstances. First-line chemotherapy can successfully replace mastectomy with breast-conserving surgery. Adjuvant combination chemotherapy improves survival compared with no chemotherapy.

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a 34-year-old client is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis c. testing reveals that the client is a candidate for treatment. the nurse anticipates that which therapy could be used to treat the client's condition?

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Multiple sclerosis and chronic inflammatory illnesses are both treated with interferons. Interferons are immune system-related disorders (e.g. chronic hepatitis)

Proteins called interferons are a component of your body's natural defences. They alert your immune system to the presence of pathogens or cancerous cells in your body. Additionally, they activate killer immune cells to combat the invaders. Because they "interfere" with viruses and prevent their growth, interferons received their name.

a natural substance that supports the body's immune system in the battle against illness, including cancer. White blood cells and other cells in the body produce interferons, but they can also be produced in a lab for use in treating various disorders.

Because they shield cells against viral infections, interferons have the power to "interfere" with viral reproduction.

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according to the national heart, lung, blood institute, which characteristics below is a coronary heart disease (chd) risk equivalent; that is, which risk factor places the patient at similar risk for chd as a history of chd?

Answers

Diabetes mellitus places the patient at similar risk for CHD as a history of CHD.

In determining whether a patient should be treated for hyperlipidemia, a patient's risk factors must be determined. CHD equivalents must be identified after fasting lipids, specifically LDLs, have been assessed. The term "responsibility" refers to the act of determining whether or not a person is responsible for his or her own actions.

Elevated LDL cholesterol, cigarette smoking, hypertension, low HDL cholesterol, family history of premature CHD [in male first degree relatives (FDR) < 55years; female FDR, 65 years] , and age (men ≥ 45 years, women ≥ 55 years) are major CHD risk factors. Patients with 2 or more risk factors should have a 10 risk assessment performed and treated accordingly.

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a post-menopausal woman with osteoarthritis of the left hip underwent a total hip replacement. after the surgery, the patient suffered total paralysis of the left quadriceps muscle group and radiating pain along the posterior thigh. it was determined that nerves from the lumbar plexus and the sacral plexus were damaged during the surgery. what two nerves were most likely damaged?

Answers

If a post-menopausal woman with osteoarthritis of the left hip underwent a total hip replacement and subsequently suffered total paralysis of the left quadriceps muscle group and radiating pain along the posterior thigh, it is likely that the nerves from the lumbar plexus and the sacral plexus were damaged during the surgery. The lumbar plexus is a network of nerves that originates in the lower spine and supplies the muscles of the lower extremities. The sacral plexus is a similar network of nerves that originates in the sacrum and also supplies the muscles of the lower extremities.

Two of the nerves that are likely to have been damaged in this scenario are the femoral nerve and the sciatic nerve. The femoral nerve arises from the lumbar plexus and provides sensory and motor innervation to the muscles of the anterior and medial thigh, including the quadriceps muscle group. The sciatic nerve arises from the sacral plexus and is the largest nerve in the body. It provides sensory and motor innervation to the muscles of the posterior thigh, as well as the lower leg and foot. Damage to these nerves could result in paralysis of the quadriceps muscle group and radiating pain along the posterior thigh. Treatment may involve physical therapy and other rehabilitative measures to restore function to the affected muscles.

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a student who specializes in neurology in their doctorate of physical therapy program would be best equipped to work with which patient conditions? (choose all that apply)

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A student who specializes in neurology in their doctorate of physical therapy program would be best equipped to work with patient diseases of the brain and spinal cord.

Neurology is that the branch of drugs coping with the identification and treatment of all classes of conditions and unwellness involving the brain, the medulla spinalis and also the peripheral nerves. medicine apply depends heavily on the sphere of neurobiology, the scientific study of the system.

Serious neurological disorders with diseases of the brain and spinal cord are learning disabilities, autism, cerebral palsy, ADD, epilepsy, spinal stenosis, tumors,degenerative disc disease, etc.

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1. A medical order states that a patient is to receive 500 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV over two
hours. How fast is the IV running in ml/hr?

Answers

Hello,

I hope you and your family are doing well!

To find the rate at which the IV is running in ml/hr, you can use the formula:

rate = volume/time

In this case, the volume of the IV is 500 mL and the time it is to be infused is 2 hours. Substituting these values into the formula gives us:

rate = 500 mL / 2 hours = 250 mL/hr

Therefore, the IV is running at a rate of 250 mL/hr.

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what is the term for characteristics, other than the characteristic of interest, that may also be related to the disease under study?

Answers

Confounding is the term for characteristics, other than the characteristic of interest, that may also be related to the disease under study.

Often referred to as a "mixing of effects," confounding occurs when the effects of the exposure being studied on a particular outcome are combined with the effects of another factor (or collection of factors), distorting the underlying relationship.

If you were investigating whether inactivity causes weight increase, for instance, inactivity would be your independent variable and weight gain would be your dependent variable. Any additional variable that likewise affects your dependent variable is a confounding variable.

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which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead squat assessment

Answers

Abductor static stretch mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the exercise squat assessment.

Exercise is a sort of physical activity that enhances or maintains both physical fitness and overall health and wellness. It is done for a variety of reasons, including to improve athletic prowess, support strength and growth, develop the muscles and cardiovascular system, lose or maintain weight, improve health, or just for enjoyment. Since exercising outside enables people to socialize, form groups, and enhance their physical and emotional well-being, many people prefer to do so. Depending on the goal, the type of exercise, and the age of the person, a certain quantity of exercise is recommended for health advantages. Any form of exercise is better for you than no exercise at all.

The complete question is:

which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead exercise squat assessment?

a. Abductor static stretch

b. Adductor static stretch

c. Piriformis foam roller

d. Psoas foam roller

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Generic medications __________. A. Are more expensive than the original versionb. Are designed to cause more side effects than the original versionc. Often won't help the conditiond. Include the same active ingredients as the original medication.

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Answer:

Include the same active ingredients as the original medication.

Explanation:

Risk factors associated with the development of breast cancer include which of the following? Select all that apply.

Answers

Risk factors associated with the development of breast cancer include:

EthnicityAdvanced ageWomen who have never been pregnantWomen who had late onset of menarche and early menopause

Breast cancer is a type of cancer that develops in the cells of the breasts. Breast cancer is the second most common cancer diagnosed in women in the United States, after skin cancer. Breast cancer can affect both men and women, but it affects women far more frequently.

Significant support for breast cancer awareness and research funding has aided in the advancement of breast cancer diagnosis and treatment. Breast cancer survival rates have increased, and the number of deaths associated with the disease has been steadily decreasing, owing largely to factors such as earlier detection, a new personalized approach to treatment, and a better understanding of the disease.

Breast cancer signs and symptoms may include a breast lump or thickening that feels different from the surrounding tissue, as well as a change in the size, shape, or appearance of a breast, dimpling is a change in the skin over the breast. A newly flipped nipple, the pigmented area of skin surrounding the nipple (areola) or breast skin peeling, scaling, crusting, or flaking, redness or pitting of the skin over your breast, similar to orange skin.

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TRUE/FALSE. In the agreement/attestation statement signed by a provider, it agrees to charge Medicare beneficiaries for any services that Medicare beneficiaries are entitled to have payment made on their behalf by the Medicare program.

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False. Assisting the elderly of the country with hospital, medical, and other healthcare bills is the goal of the Medicare health insurance programme. Almost 65 years of age and older has access to Medicare.

Additionally, Medicare has been expanded to cover those under 65 with end-stage renal disease, Social Security disability benefits, or Railroad Retirement Board benefits (ESRD). Medicare is administered by a federal organisation called the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS).

Each sort of healthcare coverage that a Medicare beneficiary has is referred to as a "payer" when they do so. It is possible to tell when Medicare is the secondary payer using a number of techniques and tools, which helps to verify that claims are paid properly.

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a nurse on the medical-surgical unit just received the client care assignment report. which client should the nurse assess first?

Answers

The client who reports anxiety and shortness of breath and has unilateral leg swelling should be seen first.

What is unilateral leg swelling?

Unilateral leg swelling is described as a very rare clinical feature in patients with ureteral cancer that is caused by direct invasion or metastatic lymphadenopathy can result in the compression of the external iliac vein inducing venous insufficiency.

If a nurse on the medical-surgical unit just received the client care assignment report.

This client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition.

The signs and symptoms of pneumonia include: Crackles, fever, and pleuritic pain are.

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Complete question:

A nurse on the medical-surgical unit just received the client care assignment report. Which client should the nurse assess first?

the client with anorexia, weight loss, and night sweats

the client with crackles and fever who reports pleuritic pain

the client who had difficulty sleeping, daytime fatigue, and morning headache

the client with unilateral leg swelling who reports anxiety and shortness of breath

excessive growths of stratum corneum layer of epidermis that often occur on hands and feet

Answers

Stratum corneum hyperplasia refers to abnormal stratum corneum growths, which frequently affect the hands and feet. as well as bedsores and pressure sores.

Which layer of epidermis is mostly found in the skin on hands and feet?The whole outside of the body is covered by the biggest organ in the body, the skin. The epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis, the three layers that make up the skin, have distinctly different anatomical structures and physiological roles. The complex network of cells that make up the skin act as the body's first line of defense against viruses, UV rays, chemicals, and mechanical harm. The volume of water discharged into the environment and temperature are both controlled by it. This page covers the relevant vascular supply, innervation, embryology, anatomical components, function, and clinical relevance of the skin's epidermal layer.Skin layer thicknesses are classified according to the thickness of the epidermal and dermal layers and vary depending on the area of the body. Because of a second layer of epidermis called the stratum lucidum, the hairless skin on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet is the thickest. According to the thickness of the dermis, the upper back is the thickest, but histologically it is referred to as "thin skin" since the epidermal thickness is thinner than hairless skin and lacks the stratum lucidum layer.

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a patient presents to your dental office the day after her dental appointment complaining of swelling and itching on the right side of her face. you should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms are related to dental anesthesia. group of answer choices true false

Answers

You should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms related to dental anesthesia is False.

The reason local anesthetic concentrations are higher than injectables is to facilitate the diffusion of local anesthetic through mucous membranes. Neither local nor injectable anesthetics used in dentistry are natural vasoconstrictors.

Cetakaine Spray is the only FDA-approved local anesthetic for gag reflex inhibition. The dosage is one spray per second. The toxicity of local anesthetics usually occurs as a result of treatment error. Circumstances leading to toxicity include accidental intravenous or arterial injections and overdose of ingestion or topical formulations containing local anesthetics.

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at the clinic, little jake received an injection from the physician's assistant who was wearing a white coat. after that, every time he saw someone wearing white, he started to scream in fright. jake's white coat phobia was classically conditioned, the white coat being the .

Answers

Jake's white coat phobia was classically conditioned, the white coat being the conditioned stimulus (CS).

A conditioned stimulus (CS) is a stimulus that may eventually trigger a conditional reaction. Using the terminology of the conditioned stimulus (CS) , it is a learned stimulus that may eventually trigger a conditional reaction. as an example, the sound of a bell is that the stimulation in Pavlov's experiment, and therefore the dogs salivating would be the conditional reaction.

An injection is that the act of administering a liquid, particularly a drug, into an individual's body employing a needle and a syringe. An injection is taken into account a sort of canal drug administration; it doesn't involve absorption within the channel.

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TRUE/FALSE. the medical record must meet the standards defined by the centers for medicare and medicaid services conditions of participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations.

Answers

The medical record must meet the standards defined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Conditions of Participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. This statement is True.

The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is a federal agency within the United States Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) that administers the Medicare program as well as Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP), and health insurance portability standards in collaboration with state governments.

CMS also has administrative simplification standards from the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), quality standards in long-term care facilities (more commonly known as nursing homes) through its survey and certification process, clinical laboratory quality standards under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, and oversight of HealthCare.gov. Until 2001, CMS was known as the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA).

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one leg of a right triangle has length 24 inches; the hypotenuse is 26.7 inches. what is the length of the other leg of the triangle? In triangle ABC, mB = (14x 22) and the measure of the exterior angle to B is (6x 18). Find mB. mr. bear has a comprehensive list of reading and writing strategies that he wants his students to be able to use independently by the end of the year. which of the following describes the best approach he can use in teaching these strategies? when introducing a complex product in a developing nation, most companies would use a blank in order to educate consumers on the features of the product. 2 ^ (x + 3) * 3 ^ (x + 4) = 18 Question 8 of 20You heat a pot of water on a gas stove. Not all the energy from thecombustion of the gas is transformed into thermal energy. What happens tothe rest of the energy released when the gas burns?OA. It is transformed into light energy.OB. It is transformed into chemical energy.C. It is transformed into electrical energy.OD. It is transformed into nuclear energy.SUBMIT cryptographic hash fuctions generally executes faster in software then convential encryption algorrithms such as des Identify each statement as True or False. a) The value of K_w applies to any aqueous solution, not just pure water b) Ions that appear on both sides of an equation but undergo no change in a reaction are called spectator ions. c) An aqueous solution containing an equal number of moles of NaF and HF in an aqueous solution is an example of a buffer solution. d) A solution containing a low concentration HCl is a weak acid. Lyn files a suit against karl. karl denies lyn charges and sets forth his own claim that lyn breached their contract and owes karl money for the breach. karl's claim is Which device is used to find the depth of sea? why should you compare hashes of the files you download from the internet to a library of known hash values? barry and mary have accumulated over $4.4 million during their 50 years of marriage. they have two children and five grandchildren. how much money can they gift to their children in 2020 without any gift tax liability Haylee selects 10 small businesses at random from her state's directory. Let BBBB be the number of businesses she selects that have websites What type of variable is B? Binomial Geometric Neither because of poverty, unemployment, and overcrowding, residents of impoverished areas are especially likely to experience TRUE/FALSE. answering multiple-choice questions is often easier than fill-in questions or essays, because multiple-choice questions may require only recognition serve as memory aides check for memorization rather than critical thinking are easier to encode when reading the question are based on definitions rather than concepts monopolists are able to set the price for their good. nevertheless, monopolists face a tradeoff in raising price because a higher price.T/F Jay is 72-years old and is someone who sees himself as having lived a satisfying and successful life. He is grateful to have had a good career at the division of motor vehicles for over 40 years, and even grateful for the loving family he has. He coached his children and grandchildren in football. Even now, he babysits his great grandchildren and does activities with them as well. His life has been filled with productivity, or according to Erik Erikson(a) integrity (b) initiative (c) generativity (d) industry lisa, age 45, needed some cash so she withdrew $57,500 from her roth ira. at the time of the distribution, the balance in the roth ira was $200,000. lisa established the roth ira 10 years ago. over the years, she has contributed $21,500 to her account. what amount of the distribution is taxable and subject to early distribution penalty (if any)?. Select the example where the court has established personal jurisdiction over the defendant.Drew is being sued by a man who claims that Drew committed slander by speaking ill of him. Drew lives in Oregon, but the man is from Texas. Drew has received a summons ordering him to appear in court in Texas to respond to the complaint.Aisha, a resident of New York, is visited by a process officer at her workplace in New York City and delivered a summons to appear in court in Maryland. The lawsuit against her relates to property damage that occurred in a home she rented in New Jersey, which is owned by a woman from Maryland.Miguel is being sued by an acquaintance of his over unpaid debts. Both Miguel and the plaintiff are residents of Colorado. Miguel has not been personally visited by a process server with a summons to appear in court, but he did receive one in the mail at his home.Frank, an accountant, is suing a client for unpaid bills. The client is located in Mississippi, and Frank lives and works in Virginia. Frank initiates his lawsuit in his home state, because he knows many of the state judges epidemiologists have specialized expertise directly applicable to policy development. accordingly, which of the statements) about epidemiologists is/are correct?