Given: x - 6 ≤ 1. Choose the solution set.

Answer:

cosB = 2√6 / 7

Step-by-step explanation:

use the pythagorean theorem to find the missing side

a² + b² = c²

a² + 5² = 7²

a² + 25 = 49

a² = 24

a = √24

a = 2√6

--------------------------

cosB = adj/hyp

cosB = 2√6 / 7

0-10

A spinner is split into 11 different pieces so you are less likely to land on five than the other numbers.

The probability of getting 5 on spinner is 0.25.

Probability can be defined as the ratio of the number of favourable outcomes to the total number of outcomes of an event.

We know that, probability of an event = Number of favourable outcomes/Total number of outcomes.

Given that, on the spinner there are four numbers {3, 4, 5, 6}.

Number of favorable outcomes = 1

Total number of outcomes = 4

So, P(5) = 1/4

= 0.25

Therefore, the probability of getting 5 on spinner is 0.25.

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Answer:

17 1/7 I think

Step-by-step explanation:

x=17.1

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{x}{30} + \frac{x}{40} = 1 \\ \frac{3x + 4x}{120} = 1 \\ \frac{7x}{120} = 1 \\ \frac{7x}{120} = 1 \\ 7x = 120 \\ x = \frac{120}{7} \\ x =17.1 [/tex]

Answer:

The answer is C.

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiplying the exponents is adding them together.

Answer:

x^8

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the terms with the same base by adding their expondents

x^6+2^2

add the numbers 6+2= 8

Answer:

78/2=39°

Step-by-step explanation:

thx for the points

Answer:

[tex]x=5,\\AC=14[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Since one triangle is inscribed in another, the two triangles are similar. As marked in the diagram, the sides of the larger triangle are exactly two times larger than the corresponding sides of the smaller triangle.

Therefore, we have:

[tex]2(x+2)=4x-6,\\2x+4=4x-6,\\10=2x,\\x=\boxed{5}[/tex]

Since AC is marked by [tex]4x-6[/tex]:

[tex]AC=4(5)-6,\\AC=20-6,\\AC=\boxed{14}[/tex]

Answer:

P(a pair with matching cards in different suits) = 1/52

Step-by-step explanation:

We are told that there are 4 suites and each suit has 13 different cards. This is a total of 52 cards.

Thus;

Probability of selecting one card of a particular suit = 13/52 = 1/4

If we now want to select a matching card of another suit without replacing the first one, then, we now have; 52 - 13 = 39 cards. Now, there are only 3 matching cards of the 3 remaining suits that is same as the first card drawn.

Thus; probability = 3/39 = 1/13

Thus;

P(a pair with matching cards in different suits) = 1/4 × 1/13

P(a pair with matching cards in different suits) = 1/52

Answer:

A. -1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

The product of 7/8 and -4/21 is a.- 1/6.

In mathematics, a product is the result of multiplication, or an expression that identifies factors to be multiplied.

Now the given numbers are,

7/8 and -4/21

now taking 7/8 and since 8= 4*2

so, 7/8 = 7/(4*2)

Again taking -4/28 and since 28 = 7*4

so, -4/21 = -4/(7*3)

hence the product of 7/8 and -4/21 is given as,

7/8*(-4/21) = 7/(4*2) x -4/(7*3)

taking alike terms together we get,

7/8*(-4/28) = (7/7)(4/4)(-1/2*3)

⇒ 7/8*(-4/28) = -1/6

Hence the correct option is a.-1/6

Therefore,The product of 7/8 and -4/21 is a.- 1/6.

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Answer:

[tex]y < - 1[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]y < - 4 + 3[/tex]

[tex]y < - 1[/tex]

[tex] \sf \: y < - 4 + 3 \\ \sf \: y < - 1[/tex]

[tex] \sf \: Just \: add \: - 4 \: and \: 3 \: and \: you \: \\ \sf will \: get \: the \: inequality \: in \: the \: simplest \: form.[/tex]

Answer:

To find your distance apart, you can convert 15 minutes to seconds because that is what the rate is given in.

15 mins x 60 seconds = 900 seconds.

Step-by-step explanation:

In 900 seconds, there are 900/8=112.5 groups of 8 seconds. This means there are 112.5 groups of 108 feet.

112.5 x 108 = 12150 feet

12150 feet/5280 feet is approximately 2.3 miles.

For your friend you take 900/6 = 150 groups of 6 seconds.

150 x 63 = 9540 feet

9540 feet/5280 feet = 1.79 miles

1.79 miles + 2.3 miles = 2.09 miles

You and your friend are about 2.09 miles apart after 15 minutes.

B). If you go 2.3 miles every 15 minutes, that means you travel about 0.77 miles every 5 minutes. If you travel 20 more minutes (40-15-5) that would be 0.77x 4=3.07 miles more

3.07 + 2.3 = 5.37 miles after 40 minutes (you).

Your friend travels 1.79 in 15 minutes, so 1.79/3 = 0.6 miles every 5 minutes

0.6 x 5 (5 x 5 = 25 minutes)= 3 miles

1.79 + 3 miles= 4.79 miles (friend)

4.79 + 5.37 = 10.16 miles

You and your friend are about 10.16 miles apart after 40 minutes.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

 6

Step-by-step explanation:

For 35 hours, Candice is paid ...

  ($8.50/h)(35 h) = $297.50

Any amount in excess of that is paid at $10 per hour. The amount of excess pay is ...

  $357.50 -297.50 = $60.00

Then the number of overtime hours was ...

  $60/($10/h) = 6 h

Candice worked 6 hours over 35 last week.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

36*12*6+12*24*3=3456

Answer:

3456

Step-by-step explanation:

36*12*6 + 24*12*3

just add up the two volumes

Answer:

d = √85

Step-by-step explanation:

d^2 = (X2 - X1)^2 + (Y2 - Y1)^2

= (2 - 0)^2 + (6 + 3)^2

= 4 + 81

d = √85

Answer:

p would be up top on the negative side (left)

q would be at the bottom on the positive side (right)

Answer:

d. Recent observed value

Step-by-step explanation:

Exponential smoothing is technique for smoothing time series data. In exponential smoothing more recent observed values give larger weights while the weights will decline if observed values are more distant. In moving average the observations were weighted equally.

Answer:

x = 5.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Reference angle (θ) = 24°

Opposite side to the reference angle = x

Adjacent side = 12

Apply TOA, which is:

Tan θ = Opp/Adj

Plug in the values

Tan 24° = x/12

12*Tan 24° = x

5.34274422 = x

x = 5.3 (approximated to one decimal place)

Answer:

Simple interest

Step-by-step explanation:

Because its a period of 8 years

Answer:

5X+6+3X-2 =180

8X+4. =180

8X. =180-4

8X. =176

X=22

CBD=EBF=3x-2

=66-2

=64

CBD=64

Answer:

66°

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the right angled triangle :

Opposite side = 16

Adjacent side = 7

Using trigonometric relation :

Tan θ = opposite / Adjacent

Tan x = (16/7)

x = tan^-1(16/7)

x = 66.37°

x = 66°

Answer:

See Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to use the Squeeze Theorem to show that:

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0}\left(x^2\sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)\right)=0[/tex]

Recall that according to the Squeeze Theorem, if:

[tex]\displaystyle g(x)\leq f(x) \leq h(x)[/tex]

And:

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x\to c}g(x) =\lim_{x\to c}h(x) = L[/tex]

Then:

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x\to c}f(x)=L[/tex]

Recall that the value of sine is always ≥ -1 and ≤ 1. Hence:

[tex]\displaystyle -1 \leq \sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right) \leq 1[/tex]

We can multiply both sides by x². Since this value is always positive, we do not need to change the signs. Hence:

[tex]\displaystyle -x^2\leq x^2\sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)\leq x^2[/tex]

Let g = -x², h = x², and f = x²sin(2 / x). We can see that:

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0}g(x) = \lim_{ x \to 0}h(x) = 0[/tex]

And since g(x) ≤ f(x) ≤ h(x), we can conclude using the Squeeze Theorem that:

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0}f(x) = \lim_{x \to 0}x^2\sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)=0[/tex]

Answer:

Larger number: 22

The smaller number: 14

HOPE THIS HELPS

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1 in 5 = 1/5 = 20% that he wins

Probability that he will NOT win

= 1 - 20%

= 100% -20%

= 80%

Answer:

80%

Step-by-step explanation:

percentage of winning

1/5×100%=20%

percentage of not winning

100%_20%=80%

Answer:

Height = 10 yd

Step-by-step explanation:

GIVEN :-

TO FIND :-

GENERAL FORMULAE TO BE USED IN THIS QUESTION :-

For a triangle with base 'b' & height 'h' , its area = [tex]\frac{1}{2} \times b \times h[/tex]

SOLUTION :-

[tex]Area = \frac{1}{2} \times Base \times Height[/tex]

[tex]=> 32 = \frac{6.4h}{2}[/tex]

[tex]=> 6.4h = 32 \times 2 = 64[/tex]

[tex]=> h = \frac{64}{6.4} = 10\: yd[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]99\% CI=4.1602 \pm 0.0009[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Sample size [tex]n=8[/tex]

Mean [tex]\=x=4.1602[/tex]

Standard deviation [tex]\sigma=0.001gram[/tex]

Generally 99\% confidence from table  is mathematically given by

 [tex]99\% CI=4.1602 \pm *2.576*\frac{0.001}{\sqrt{{8}}}[/tex]

 [tex]P(-z<x<z)=0.99[/tex]

 [tex]Z_{\alpha/2}=2.576[/tex]

Generally the equation for 99\% confidence level (CI)  is mathematically given by

 [tex]99\% CI=\=x \pm Z_{\alpha/2*\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{{n}}}[/tex]

 [tex]99\% CI=4.1602 \pm 0.0009[/tex]

Answer:

C

4712 cm³ exactly

Step-by-step explanation:

10² * pi is the area of the circle

then just multiply with the height

Answer:

C. 1500π ≈ 4710 cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume = πr²h

Volume = π * 100 * 15

Volume = 1500π ≈ 4710 cm³

If my answer is incorrect, pls correct me!

If you like my answer and explanation, mark me as brainliest!

-Chetan K

Answer:

miges fue y no me compro el celu

Step-by-step explanation:

mal migel

por culpa de brailyn reverg

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

5x+10-4=13-7x-7

5x+6=6-7x

5x+0= -7x

0=-12x

Divide and u get x=0

Answer:

19/3

Step-by-step explanation:

1 2/3 = (1*3 + 2)/3 = 5/3

3 4/5 = (5*3 + 4)/5 = (15 + 4)/5 = 19/5

5/3 * 19/5 = 19/3    The 5s cancel.

The simplest form is not obvious to me. I think the answer above is in simplest form, and I will put that below the answer above. But 6 1/3 is also possible.

Answer:

4 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

1 [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] × 3 [tex]\frac{4}{5}[/tex] =

[tex]\frac{5}{3}[/tex] × [tex]\frac{19}{5}[/tex] =

[tex]\frac{95}{15}[/tex] = 4 [tex]\frac{5}{15}[/tex] = 4 1/3

Answer:

$1250.00 + (x)$4.25 =

Step-by-step explanation

So fixed costs are $1,250.00.....every dozen you bake add $4.25 to the costs, cook one dozen you have $1,250.00 plus $4.25 or a total of $1,254.25.

Cook 10 dozen and you add $45.25 = the $1,250.00 for a new total of $1,295.25.