Answer:
1) CO₂
2) 0.2551 g
Explanation:
The balanced reactions are:
CaCO₃ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂
MgCO₃ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂
1) The gas produced is CO₂.
2) Calculate mass of CaCO₃:
(0.5236 g) (0.4230) = 0.2215 g CaCO₃
Convert to moles:
(0.2215 g CaCO₃) (1 mol / 100.1 g) = 0.002213 mol CaCO₃
Find moles of CaCO₃:
(0.002213 mol CaCO₃) (1 mol CO₂ / mol CaCO₃) = 0.002213 mol CO₂
Convert to mass:
(0.002213 mol CO₂) (44.01 g / mol) = 0.09738 g CO₂
Calculate mass of MgCO₃:
(0.5236 g) (0.5770) = 0.3021 g MgCO₃
Convert to moles:
(0.3021 g MgCO₃) (1 mol / 84.31 g) = 0.003583 mol MgCO₃
Find moles of MgCO₃:
(0.003583 mol MgCO₃) (1 mol CO₂ / mol MgCO₃) = 0.003583 mol CO₂
Convert to mass:
(0.003583 mol CO₂) (44.01 g / mol) = 0.1577 g CO₂
Total mass of CO₂:
0.09738 g CO₂ + 0.1577 g CO₂ = 0.2551 g CO₂
Answer:
The average kinetic energy of the gas particles is greater in container B because its particles move faster.
Explanation:
Draw the egg and label it
Answer:
What egg?
Explanation:
Answer:
/’‾‾‾`\
/ \
| |
\.____./
Suppose that you close a window because you notice that rain is falling. Your action in closing the window is a(n)
A. involuntary reaction.
B. depressant.
C. stimulus.
D. response.
Answer:
D. Response
Explanation:
Basically, You Are Coordinating What Is Happening Which Triggers The Brain For A Response.
Answer:
D.
Explanation:
You are responding to the rain by closing the window.
- it is not an involuntary action because that is something that doesn't require thinking such as breathing and blinking.
- it is not a depressant because that is something that reduces functional activity - so affects the body.
- it is not a stimulus because a stimulus is a change or signal in the environment that can make an organism react. So, in this case the rain would be the stimulus.
A genetically heterogeneous population of rice has a mean in the number of days to maturation of 30. Selection for decreased period of maturation is carried out for one generation. The average period to maturation among the plants selected as parents for the next generation is 25 days. F1 plants mature on average in 27 days. Estimate the narrow sense heritability.
Answer:
h² = 0.6
Explanation:
Before answering the question, we need to know a few concepts.
Artificial selection is the selecting practice of a specific group of organisms in a population -that carry the traits of interest- to be the parents of the following generations.
Parental individuals carrying phenotypic values of interest are selected from the whole population. These parents interbreed, and a new generation is produced.
The selection differential, SD, is the difference between the mean value of the trait in the population (X₀) and the mean value of the parents, (Xs). So,
SD = X₀ - Xs
Heritability in the strict sense, h², is the genetic component measure to which additive genetic variance contributes. The heritability might be used to determine how the population will respond to the selection done, R.
h² = R/SD
The response to selection (R) refers to the metric value gained from the cross between the selected parents. R can be calculated by multiplying the heritability h², with the selection differential, SD.
R = h²SD
R also equals the difference between the new generation phenotypic value (X₁) and the original population phenotypic value (X₀),
R = X₀ - X₁
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Now that we know these concepts and how to calculate them, we can solve the proposed problem.
Available data:
You are selecting rice´s decreased period of maturation. The population of rice has a mean maturation time of 30 days → X₀ Parental selected average period to maturation is 25 days → Xs F1 plants mature on average in 27 days → X₁ N arrow sense Heritability → h²According to what we sow previously, we need to find out the value of h².
We know that h² = R/SD, so we need to get R and SD first.
R = X₁ - X₀
R = 27 - 30
R = -3
SD = Xs - X₀
SD = 25 - 30
SD = -5
Knowing this, we can calculate h²
h² = R/SD
h² = -3/-5
h² = 0.6
Determine the correct energy transformations during the generation of electricity from fossil fuels.
A. Heat to Chemical to Electrical to Kinetic
B. Heat to Kinetic to Electrical to Chemical
C. Kinetic to Chemical to Heat to Electrical
D. Chemical to Heat to Kinetic to Electrical
Answer:
D. Chemical to heat to kinetic to electrical
The correct energy transformations during the generation of electricity from fossil fuels are D) Chemical to Heat to Kinetic to Electrical
What converts chemical energy to kinetic energy to electrical energy?
Batteries used in torches, computers, toys, and camera cells, are actually made up of chemical cells which convert the chemical energy from the batteries to the electrical energy required for the devices to work well.
What are the main energy types?Examples of these are light energy, heat energy, mechanical energy, gravitational energy, electrical energy, sound energy, chemical energy, nuclear or atomic energy, and so on. Each form can be converted or changed into the other forms.
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As part of a resource recovery project, a city decides to open reuse centers.
What kind of materials might a reuse center accept?
A. Household garbage
B. Industrial waste
C. Leftover art supplies
D. Yard trimmings
The reuse center might accept: D. Yard trimmings
What is a reuse center?
A reuse center, also known as a recycling center or a second-hand store, is a facility where various materials and items that are still in usable condition are collected, sorted, and made available for resale or redistribution. The main goal of a reuse center is to divert materials from the waste stream and promote their reuse, extending their lifespan and reducing the demand for new products.
These centers typically accept a wide range of items, such as furniture, appliances, clothing, electronics, books, toys, and more. By accepting and selling these items at affordable prices, reuse centers help reduce waste, conserve resources, and provide affordable options for individuals and communities.
A reuse center can accept yard trimmings as it include grass clippings, leaves, branches, and other organic waste from landscaping and gardening activities.
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Gene X always produces the same mRNA (one splice form) and the same protein in all cells in which it is expressed. The same amounts of gene X mRNA and protein are present in brain, kidney, and heart cells. However, the activity associated with the protein is present only in the heart. Which of the following are possible explanations?
a. A splicing factor necessary for removing all of the primary transcript's introns is present only in the heart.
b. A splicing factor necessary for removing all of the primary transcript's introns is present only in the brain and kidney.
c. Protein X is phosphorylated only in the heart.
d. Protein X is phosphorylated only in the brain and kidney.
There are two explanations for this phenomenon: phosphorylation of the protein X in the heart activates its function (Option C) or phosphorylation of the protein X in the kidney and the brain deactivates its function (Option D). Therefore, both Option C and Option D are correct.
Phosphorylation is a posttranslational protein modification that is capable of activating or deactivating protein function.
Phosphorylation alters the three-dimensional structure of a protein, thereby modifying its function (i.e., activate or deactivate the target protein).
Phosphorylation occurs at specific amino acids (e.g., serine and threonine residues) of the target protein.
Moreover, mRNA splicing (RNA processing) occurs before the protein state, it is a transcriptional process. This process consists in removing the non-coding regions or 'introns' from pre-mRNA and subsequent joining protein-coding regions or 'exons' to enable the translation of the mRNA into a protein.
In consequence, in this case, it is possible that 1-phosphorylation of the protein X in the heart activates its function, or 2-phosphorylation of the protein X in the kidney and the brain deactivates its function. Therefore, both Option C and Option D are correct.
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Many anti-evolutionists believe that since science doesn't have answers for all questions; scientific conclusions are not necessarily correct. This attitude reflects a failure to understand the nature of science. What is the general nature of scientific thinking? In what way is science "self correcting"?
Answer:
In science, accepted theories do not represent absolute truths. A scientific theory is accepted when there is much evidence available that support its statements, but new lines of evidence can modify original presumptions
Explanation:
A scientific theory is a plausible explanation of a particular phenomenon of the natural world, which has been many times tested and verified by using the scientific method. The accepted theories are progressively modified (or even overturned) as new lines of evidence emerge. In consequence, a scientific theory is composed of statements that we consider as truths regarding the available evidence, but we have no absolute certainty that such statements are true. The ability to self-correct is fundamental in science and it happens when we discover that the original statements of a scientific theory were wrong, thereby new lines of evidence allow us to correct the error and/or develop new scientific theories.
When thinking about all 4 types of macromolecules discussed, which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply.
Monomers are linked together by hydrolysis.
Monomers are joined together to form functional polymers
Monomers are linked together by dehydration synthesis.
Monomers join together via hydrogen bonds.
Before a big soccer game Charlie always eats a big dinner. Which characteristic of life does this fact best describe?
A: Living things reproduce
B: Living things respond to their environment.
C: Living things use energy
D: Living things grow and develop
Answer:
c
Explanation:
what is the full form of ATP?
Answer:
ATP stands for Adenosine triphosphate, an organic molecule responsible for driving nearly all cellular mechanisms and processes in living organisms. Hence, biologists often refer to ATP as the “energy currency of the cell.”
what is the significance of t tubules?
Explanation:
The significance tubules are the site of spermatogenesis where germ cell develop into spermatozoa in close interaction with sertoli cells.Answer:
Explanation:
T-tubules are invaginations of the plasma membrane, which are present exclusively in striated muscle. Their role is to maintain the SR calcium store under the tight control of membrane depolarization via the voltage sensor channel DHPR .
9. Which is the SI base unit of mass?
liter
meter
pound
kilogram
Answer:
it's D, KILOGRAM
Answer:
The answer of this question is kilogram
Explanation:
may this answer is helpful for you
Lowest to highest degree of internal organization stomach
Answer: Epithelial stomach cell, stomach lining tissue, stomach and then the whole digestive system.
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2. Calculate the rate of population increase for the whales and the seals from the data in table 2, trial 1. What does this rate represent?
Hint: From the point of zero change on the graph to the highest population achieved is a change in time of 100 months. (Refer to the science skills practice in the lesson for the correct formula for the rate of population change.)
Answer:
There are no tables but it should be a bell curve. as a population of whales rise the population of seals will decrease, eventually creating a plateau in the whale population. shortly after the plateau in the whale population the whale population will begin to decline ( as food becomes less available) causing the seal population will begin to rise and restabilize. this pattern should continue cyclically creating a wave function on a graph!
Explanation:
Explain how a scientist can determine when a particular species of dinosaur lived on Earth.
Answer:
by fossil dna
Explanation:
it is too easy for a sciencetist
Why do i only have one dimple on my left cheek?
Answer:
A single dimple on one cheek is a rare phenomenon. Transfer of dimples from parents to children occurs due to just one gene. The dimple creating genes are present in the sex cells prior to the process of reproduction. Each parent provides one of these genes to the child.
What is a living cell?
Answer:
Though they are often debated, there are eight main characteristics that define a cell as living.
The first is genetic code. All living things contain DNA, which is like the instruction manual for life. DNA is contained in each cell, and passed from parent to offspring.
The second is growth and development. Whether by creating more cells or creating more organelles within the cell, all living things grow and develop.
The third characteristic is reproduction. Reproduction can be sexual or asexual, but in the case of single cells, it is asexual.
The fourth characteristic is response. All living things, including cells, react to external stimuli, such as temperature or salinity.
The fifth characteristic is homeostasis. Homeostasis is the condition by which living things maintain a stable internal environment in the midst of an ever-changing external environment.
The last three characteristics go hand in hand, and are sometimes combined, but in my mind they are distinctly separate.
Sixth is consumption, which is taking in food and other materials. A cell specifically takes in molecules such as water or glucose during consumption.
Seventh is metabolism, which is using materials consumed in order to create energy. Living cells use enzymes to break down materials to produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate), which is usable energy.
Finally, all living cells undergo excretion in some form. Some examples in cells include exocytosis and osmosis.
These 8 characteristics, though often controversial, determine a cell as living.
Which of the following effectively describes the situation of someone with an inherited predisposition to cancer such a familial adenomatous polyposis or BRCA-associated familial breast cancer?
a) Every cell of their body contains a gain-of-function allele of an oncogene
b) Most cells in their body contain multiple cancer-causing mutations
c) If they get malignant cancer, somatic mutations will not have been a factor
d) Their cancer will most likely arise in their germ cells, not their somatic cells
e) None of the answers effectively describes the situation
f) Every cell of their body contains a defective, loss-of-function allele of a tumor suppressor gene
Answer:
Every cell of their body contains defective , loss of function allele of a tumor suppressor gene
Explanation:
Tumor suppressor genes - They encode Proteins that inhibit cell proliferation . But due to Loss of functional alleles in Tumor suppressor genes it leads to the development of different cancers
Every cell of the body comprises of a defective and loss-of-function allele of a tumor suppressor gene.
The presence of defective and non-functioning tumor suppressor gene is responsible for the happening of cancer disease because the tumor suppressor gene slow down the process of cell division as well as repair mistakes occur in DNA molecule. When the tumor suppressor genes can't perform its function properly, it causes out of control growth of cell, which can lead to cancer disease so we can conclude that tumor suppressor gene is responsible for the cancer disease.
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After weathering releases the
phosphate from rocks and
sediments, where does it go?
A. directly into the leaves of plants
B. into the atmosphere
C. caught by organisms in the air
D. into the soil
PLEASEEEEE HELP
Answer:
d. into soil
Explanation:
plz mark as brainlist
PLS HELP ASAP
ILL GIVE BRAINLY
Contrast the usefulness of absolute and relative dating techniques.
Answer:
In relative dating, fossils are dated according to the depth at which they were buried While in the absolute dating, isotopes of carbon are used for dating fossils. The absolute dating is more precise than relative dating because it tells the exact age of the fossils.
explain why in the morning plant leaves are moisten
It occurs when there is active absorption of water by roots and transpiration is low i.e. moist and humid conditions. Therefore, guttation generally occurs in the early morning because transpiration is less at that time but water is actively absorbed by the roots.
6. Compare the different measurements of the thermometer which are used.
Identify the effects of the vagus nerve on the following components of the digestive system Salivary glands Pyloric sphincter (gastric emptying) Smooth muscle in the gallbladder Smooth muscle in the duodenal papilla (sphincter of Oddi)
Answer:
Vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve. It is long start from brain and distributed over head, thorax and abdomen.
Explanation:
1. In the salivary gland the secretory and vasodilator effect on afferent nerve is mediated mainly by parasympathetic reflex which is given by vagus nerve.
2. Pyloric sphincter is the part present between the stomach and small intestine which regulate the flow of food particles from stomach to the intestine. Vagus nerve control the activities of pyloric sphincter. Vagus nerve help the pyloric sphincter to relax.
3. Efferent nerves of vagus nerve help the gall bladder to contract. Vagus nerve is stimulating the gastric tract to contract. So the vagus nerve stimulation promotpromotprthe production of CCK hormone and it will lead to the contraction and secretion of hormones from the gallbladder. Those contractions will help the gallbladder to empty the hormones from gallbladder.
4. The efferent nerves of vagus nerves act on the smooth muscles of duodenal papila. As above says it lead to the contraction of smooth muscles and also promote the production of CCK.
Once the neural plate edges have fused to become a neural tube, the tissues that were at the edges of the plate now form the __________ region the neural tube. Fill in the blank.
Answer: Dorsal.
Explanation:
The neural plate is a region of the dorsal ectoderm that develops into the neural ectoderm. It is a flat structure, with columnar appearing cells, and the formation of the neural ectoderm is the first step in the neurulation process. This region is generated from the thickened mid-dorsal surface opposite the primitive line of the ectoderm. From this epithelial zone the various types of neuronal and glia cells belonging to the nervous system are derived. For the neural plate to be built, it is necessary that the epiblast cells converge towards the midline of the embryonic disc forming a groove of the primitive line, delimiting a longitudinal axis of bilateral symmetry around which the embryonic structures and their organs will be aligned. From this moment on, the embryo will have a rostral (cephalic) and caudal (tail) region as well as a left and right side and a dorsal (back) and ventral (front) surface. From the folding of the neural plate or neurulation, the neural tube and the development of the entire nervous system will be formed.
The neural tube is tubular structure that undergoes modifications and will give rise to a central nervous system structure (encephalon and spinal cord). The neurulation process begins by means of signals sent by the dorsal mesoderm and pharyngeal endoderm to the ectodermal cells located above these germ layers. These signals cause this area of the ectoderm to elongate into a columnar plate of cells. The elongation allows the differentiation of the cells of the future neural plate, with respect to the pre-epidermal cells surrounding the area.
So, the neural tube is formed by invagination from the dorsal region of the ectoderm (neural plate) induced by the notochord while it is forming. This occurs at the beginning of the third week of conception by a process called neurulation.
Which statement accurately describes the "savanna" biome? This biome features tropical grasslands and is located near the equator. This biome features high levels of biodiversity and is located near the equator. This biome features a level of permafrost and a short growing season during the winter. This biome features forests and grasslands that go dormant during the winter.
Answer:
This biome features forests and grasslands that go dormant during the winter.
This biome features high levels of biodiversity and is located near the equator.
This biome features a level of permafrost and a short growing season during the winter.
This biome features tropical grasslands and is located near the equator.
What is a difference between complete metamorphosis and incomplete metamorphosis?
Two stages of a butterfly's life cyles are described below.
Stage 1: The caterpillar sheds its skin as it grows.
Stage 2: The butterfly breaks out of the chrysalis.
Which statement is true about the stages?
Answer:
stage. 1
Explanation:
stage.1 it is right
Answer:
Stage 1 is the larva stage and Stage 2 is the adult stage.
Explanation:
similarities between organic and inorganic fertilizer
Answer:
Organic fertilizers are natural, in that the nutrients they possess are strictly comprised of plant- or animal-based materials. ... Cow manure, decaying leaves, and food compost are all forms of organic fertilizer. Inorganic fertilizer is synthetic, comprised of minerals and synthetic chemicals.
Explanation:
You prepare a gel mobility assay with the following samples:
Lane 1 Radiolabeled lacO DNA + Lac Repressor protein preincubated with allolactose
Lane 2 Radiolabeled lacO DNA + Lac Repressor protein preincubated with lactose
Lane 3 Radiolabeled lacO DNA + Lac Repressor protein missing its DNA binding domain
Lane 4 Radiolabeled lacO DNA + Lac super-repressor (Is) preincubated with allolactose
Lane 5 Radiolabeled lacO DNA + lac repressor protein
On which lanes do you expect to see two bands?
a. 3
b. Lane 1 and 2
c. Lane 2, 4, and 5
d. 2 and 4
e. 1 and 5
Answer:
c. Lane 2, 4 and 5.
Explanation:
Two bands will be seen when a fraction of DNA added to gel is bound by Lac repressor protein. Radiolabeled LacO DNA will have two bands. Lac repressor is encoded with lacl gene. It has binding ability due to allolactose formation.
Why can viruses not fit in any domain? How are they different from all other forms of Life? What would need to occur for viruses to be classified as "alive"?
Answer:
virus are obligate parasites. Viruses do not, however, carry out metabolic processes. Most notably, viruses differ from living organisms in that they cannot generate ATP.
When an outbreak of foot and mouth disease is discovered among livestock in a country, what is MOST likely the chosen way to control it?
Answer:
You can get infected with hand, foot, and mouth disease if you have the virus on your hands and then touch your eyes, nose, or mouth. To lessen your chance of getting sick, don't touch your eyes, nose, and mouth with unwashed hands.
You can get infected with hand, foot, and mouth disease if you have the virus on your hands and then touch your eyes, nose, or mouth. To lessen your chance of getting sick, don't touch your eyes, nose, and mouth with unwashed hands.
What are the mechanism that use to resist the antimicrobial agents?There has been several mechanisms, like resistance to antimicrobial agents, encapsulation or secretation of proteins that affects and might destroy the phagocyte along with some leukocytes in our body perform phagocytosis as a defense mechanism against the pathogenic bacterium.
These phagocytes contain lysosomes, intracellular granules that possess bactericidal substances. When the phagocyte ingests the pathogen, a phagosome is formed, which merges with the lysosome, forming the phagolysosome, which is where toxic substances and enzymes kill the ingested microorganism.
There are several mechanisms by which a microorganism can survive this process as resistance to antimicrobial agents. Some bacteria use phenolic glycolipids from their cell wall, to eliminate toxic oxygen compounds.
Therefore, You can get infected with hand, foot, and mouth disease if you have the virus on your hands and then touch your eyes, nose, or mouth.
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