HELP PLEASE BRAIN FOR CORRRECT

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Explanation:

The two points mentioned in bold are midpoints of segments AB and AC respectively.

To find the coordinates of a midpoint, you add up the x coordinates and divide by 2. Do the same with the y coordinates.

For example, points A and B are at (7,6) and (1,-2)

If we add up the x coordinates and divide by 2, then we get (7+1)/2 = 4. Do the same for the y coordinates to get (6+(-2))/2 = 2. So that's how (4,2) is the midpoint of segment AB. You'll use similar logic to find that (8,2) is the midpoint of segment AC.

A slight alternative is that once you find one midpoint is (4,2), you can draw a horizontal line until you reach (8,2). We're using the idea that the midsegment is parallel to BC which is also horizontal.

Answer:

126,000

Step-by-step explanation:

150,000 * .15 = 22,500

150,000 - 22,500= 127,000

127,000 - 1500 = 126,000

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Firstly x cannot be -5 because the expression on th left would be undefined so it's only between choices a and c.

Create a number line with makes the expression on left 0 and undefined...so at 6 and -5 this happens.

-------(-5)--------(6)---------

Let's test the 3 intervals by choosing a value from that interval to see if all numbers from that interval will make the expression on left less than 0.

Number before -5 is -6:

(-6-6)/(-6+5)=-12/-1=12 >0 so this interval is not a part of our solution.

Number between -5 and 6 is 0:

(0-6)/(0+5)=-6/5<0 so this interval is a part of our solution

Number after 6 like 7:

(7-6)/(7+5)=1/12>0 so this interval is not a part of our solution.

The winner is everything between-5 and 6 so answer is A.

Answer:

112

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume is given by l*b*h=4*4*7=112

Answer:

oi ngl levi is hawt I like your pfp ^^

Step-by-step explanation:

my name is Riley

Answer:

i dont know man

Step-by-step explanation:

i dont know

The conversion rate US dollars to Euros is represented with the function:

E(n)=0.72n

n- number of dollars

E(n) - Euros as a function of US dollars

The conversion rate Euros to Dirhams is :

D(x)=5.10x

x- number of Euros

D(x)- Dirhams as a function of Euros

We are trying to find D(x) in terms of n.

D(x) = 5.10x

x can be rewritten as E(n)

D(x) = 5.10(E(n))

D(x) = 5.10(E(n))

D(x) = 5.10(0.72n)

D(x) = 3.672n

According to this the following statement is true:

A) (D x E)(n) = 5.10(0.72n)

Initial value is your y intercept, and to find that you just need to substitute 0 for x. Anything to the power of 0 is just 1. So you get 34.2(1), which means that your initial value is 34.2.

Answer:

n = 9

Step-by-step explanation:

20.75 = 1.75n + 5

20.75 - 5 = 1.75n

15.75 = 1.75n

-------     -------

1.75       1.75

  9    =     n

Answer:

720

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the equation given

[tex]\frac{6!}{(6-6)!}=\frac{6!}{0!}=\frac{6!}{1}=720[/tex]

Answer: 29152332 ≡ 0 (mod 3)

Step-by-step explanation:

In modular arithmetic, there is the form a ≡ b (mod m) where b is the remainder.

To solve this problem, we want to divide 29152332 by 3 and find the remainder.

29152332 ÷ 3 = 9717444

Since we get an integer with no remainder, we know the answer is 29152332 ≡ 0 (mod 3).

Answer:

x <= -4 or x >= 2

Step-by-step explanation:

so, it actually says

|x+1| >= 3

so, then, this is valid for all x >= 2 (then x+1 is 3 or higher), and for all x <= -4 (then x+1 is -3 or lower, and |x+1| is still 3 or higher)

Answer:

The events are independent and are not mutually exclusive.

Step-by-step explanation:

Two events A and B are independent if the outcome of each of them does not affect the outcome of the other.

And two events are mutually exclusive if these can't occur at the same time.

Here the events are:

a = rolling a 4 on the first die

b = rolling a 3 on the second die.

Becuase, these are number cubes, we know that the outcome of one die has no impact in the outcome of the other die.

And because each outcome is on a different die, we can conclude that these events are independent.

(rolling a 4 in the first die does not change the probability of getting a 3 when we roll the second die).

Now, the events are mutually exclusive?

No, we can roll both dices and get a 3 in the first one and a 4 in the second one, so these events can happen in the same time.

Answer:

YES.

Step-by-step explanation:

The event rolling a number '4' and the event rolling a number '3' are mutually exclusive events because both of them cannot occur at the same time.

Just took quick check

Answer:

16 × X + 3=

Step-by-step explanation:

u will get your answer

Answers:

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Explanation:

Refer to the diagram below.

The segment AB is the player's height of 6 ft.

The segment CD is the hoop's height, which is 10 ft.

There is a point E on CD such that rectangle BACE forms. This will help us form ED later.

Angle EBD is what we're after, which I'll call x.

Since the free throw line is 15 ft from the basket, this means segments EB and AC are 15 ft each.

In rectangle BACE, the side EC is opposite AB. So both of those sides are 6 ft each.

Since CD = 10 and EC = 6, this must mean ED = CD-EC = 10-6 = 4.

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To summarize, we found that ED = 4 and EB = 15.

We'll focus our attention entirely on triangle EBD

We have two known legs of the triangle, specifically the opposite and adjacent sides.

So we'll use the tangent ratio.

tan(angle) = opposite/adjacent

tan(B) = ED/EB

tan(x) = 4/15 .... is the equation to solve

x = arctan(4/15) .... same as inverse tangent or [tex]\tan^{-1}[/tex]

x = 14.931417 ..... make sure to be in degree mode

x = 15 ..... rounding to the nearest whole degree

So that unknown angle in the diagram is approximately 15 degrees

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

As the counter clockwise rule is A(x,y) becomes A'(-y,x).

So (1, -6) becomes (6, 1)

Hope it helps you

Answer:

The length of the segment is 10.

Step-by-step explanation:

Think of the segment as the hypotenuse of a right triangle.

Draw the legs and label the lengths.

See the picture below.

The length of the hypotenuse is c.

c^2 = a^2 + b^2

c^2 = 6^2 + 8^2

c^2 = 36 + 64

c^2 = 100

c = 10

Answer: 10

Answer:

3/4 more hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Hours taken to clean bedroom = 5/4

Hours taken to clean den = 1/2

How much more = 5/4 - 1/2

5-2/4 (common denominator)

3/4 more hours (It's a propper fraction, so we can't write it as a mixed number)

Answer from Gauthmath

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

y = kx

Use point (3, 12).

12 = k * 3

k = 12/3 = 4

y = 4x

Answer: 4

Divide y by x:

12/3 = 4

36 / 9 = 4

The constant of variation is 4

Answer:

81/16

Step-by-step explanation:

(⅔)-⁴

81/16

= 5.0625

6√5 + 3√6 = 6√5 + 3√6 [cannot be simplified]

; roots do not contain any perfect squares, and the roots are not similar.

6√5(3√6) = 18√30 [can be simplified]

; although roots do not contain any perfect squares, the product rule can be applied to create a singular expression.

i am not getting it what are you asking

Answer:

x=-2

sorry i messed up coord val :/

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = -2

Step-by-step explanation:

a parabola  is symmetric (has a mirror image)

a parabola has ONE vertex (a highest or lowest point).

thus a line that goes through the vertex is it's axis of symmetry.

x = 5 , x=99, x=102 are vertical lines that intersect the x axis no matter what the y value is....

your axis of symmetry is a line that looks like  X= SOMETHING

the "something" is the X value of the vertex, which is (-2,3)

this the equation x = -2 is the answer ... see the image

Answer:

it should be the second one I hope this help

[tex]\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\la\la\la\la\ddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddcleverdddddd\ffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffff\pppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppp\ddddddddddddddddddd \displaystyle \Large \boldsymbol{} a_1=70 \ ; \ d=-5 \\\\S_n=\frac{a_1+a_n}{2} \cdot n \ ; \ a_n=a_1+(n-1)d \Longrightarrow \\\\\\ S_{30}=\frac{70+70-29\cdot5}{2} \cdot 30 =-75 \\\\\\Answer: S_{30}=-75[/tex]

Answer:

x=10

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this will help you

The mark price of the pen is 120 rs

The first step is to write out the parameters given the question

Discount= 15%

Gain= rs 10

Discount= 15%

loss= rs

When a pen is sold at a discount of 15% there is a gain of rs 10

When the pen is sold at 25% discount there is a loss of rs 2

The mark price of the pen can be calculated as follows

15% = c.p + 10 rs

25 % = c.p - 2 rs

25%-15% = 10 rs +2 rs

10% = 12 rs

10/100 = 12 rs

0.1= 12 rs

12/0.1

= 120 rs

Hence the mark price of the pen is 120 rs

Please see the link below for more information

https://brainly.com/question/17109020?referrer=searchResults

Mark Price: RS. 120

The Gain Function is the difference between Resulting Price, which is the Mark Price including Discount Rate, and the Reference Price, where positive result represents Net Gain, as negative result represents Net Loss. Gain Function is described below:

[tex]G = \left(1-\frac{r_{D}}{100} \right)\cdot P_{M}-P_{R}[/tex] (1)

Where:

[tex]G[/tex] - Gain function, in monetary units.

[tex]r_{D}[/tex] - Discount rate, in percentage.

[tex]P_{M}[/tex] - Mark price, in monetary units.

[tex]P_{R}[/tex] - Reference price, in monetary units.

The Mark Price of the pen is the price shown on the label of the product, whereas the Reference Price is the purchase cost of the product from provider.

Based on what it is written on statement we have the following system of linear equations:

1) When a pen is sold at a discount of 15 %. There is a gain of RS. 10: ([tex]G = 10[/tex], [tex]r_{D} = 15[/tex])

[tex]\left(1-\frac{15}{100} \right)\cdot P_{M} - P_{R} = 10[/tex] (2)

2) But if it is sold at 25 % discount there is a loss of RS. 2: ([tex]G = -2[/tex], [tex]r_{D} = 25[/tex])

[tex]\left(1-\frac{25}{100} \right)\cdot P_{M} - P_{R} = -2[/tex] (3)

The solution of the resulting system of linear equations is:

[tex]P_{M} = 120[/tex], [tex]P_{R} = 92[/tex]

The mark price of the pen is RP. 120.

Answer:

sin C = 12/13

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this is a right triangle

Sin C = opp side / hypotenuse

sin C = 36/39

sin C = 12/13