How can we drop eggs the fewest amount of times without breaking it?​

Explanation:

Relative density=density of liquid÷density of water

1.25=x ÷ 1000

x=1.25 × 1000

x=1250kgm^-3

Answer:

The laws of liquid pressure are  

(i) Pressure inside the liquid increases with the depth from the free surface of the liquid.

(ii) Pressure is same at all points on a horizontal plane, in case of stationary liquid.

(iii) Pressure is same in all directions about a point inside the liquid.

(iv) Pressure at same depth is different in different liquids. It increases with the increase in the density of the liquid.

(v) A liquid will always seek its own level.

A Fluid is any liquid or gas or generally any material that cannot sustain a tangential, or shearing, force when at rest.  

Explanation:

Answer:

The force is 3305.6 N.

Explanation:

Final velocity, v = 0

time, t = 2.25 ms

initial velocity, u = 4.25 m/s

mass, m = 1.75 kg

Let the acceleration is a.

Use first equation of motion.

v = u + a t

0 = 4.25 + a x 0.00225

a = - 1888.9 m/s^2

The force is

F = ma

F = 1.75 x 1888.9

F = 3305.6 N

Answer: I hope you find it useful

Explanation: Group 2 elements have two valence electrons. The two valence electrons are easily lost in the formation of chemical bonds. Once the two electrons are lost, the atom then has a full outer shell and is therefore more stable.

so,  if an atom has valency 2 , then it means that the atom can combine with 2 other atoms .

Answer:

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Explanation:

A body of mass m moves along X-axis such that its position co-ordiante at any instant t is x = `at^(4)

Answer:

The separation between the two stones is 36 m, when the second stone is approximately 10.9 m below the top of the cliff

Explanation:

The given parameters are;

The height of the cliff from which the stones are dropped, h = 60 m

The time at which the second stone is dropped = 1.6 seconds after the first

The distance below the top of the cliff when the distance between the two stones is 36 m = Required

We have;

The kinematic equation of motion that can be used is s = u·t - (1/2)·g·t²

For the first stone, we have, s₁ = u·t₁ - (1/2)·g·t₁²

For the second stone, we get; s₂ = u·t₂ - (1/2)·g·t₂²

t₁ = t₂ + 1.6

g = The acceleration due to gravity ≈ 9.81 m/s²

s = The distance below the cliff top

The initial velocity of the stones, u = 0

Let t represent the time from which the second stone is dropped at which the distance between the two stones is 36 m, we have;

s₁ = u·(t + 1.6) + (1/2)·g·(t + 1.6)²

s₂ = u·t + (1/2)·g·t²

u = 0

∴ s₁ - s₂ = 36 =  (1/2)·g·(t + 1.6)² - (1/2)·g·t²

2 × 36/(g) = (t + 1.6)² - t²  = t² + 3.2·t + 2.56 - t² = 3.2·t + 2.56

2 × 36/(9.81) = 3.2·t + 2.56

t = (2 × 36/(9.81) - 2.56)/3.2 =  ≈ 1.49 s

t ≈ 1.49 s

s₂ = (1/2)·g·t²

∴ s₂ = (1/2) × 9.81 × 1.49² ≈ 10.9

The distance below the top of the cliff of the second stone when the the separation between the two stones is 36 m, s₂ ≈ 10.9 m.

Answer:

because they are not standard unit(accepted globally)

Explanation:

hope its help

Because outside of your local group, nobody will know what you're talking about.

My people originally used the sha'ah, yom, and khelek for time, the amah for length, the tchum shabbat for distance, and the epha, omer, baytsa, log, and kazayit for volume.

See what I mean ?

Almost 3 times fast than normal pulley system

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Answer:

Pascal is a derived unit because it cannot be expressed in any physics terms, but it is an expression of fundamental quantities.

Explanation:

[tex]{ \sf{Pasacal \: ( Pa) = \frac{newtons}{metres {}^{2} } }} \\ \\ { \sf{Pasacal \: (Pa) = \frac{kg \times {ms}^{ - 2} }{ {m}^{2} } }}[/tex]

Explanation:

If a coil of wire is placed in a changing magnetic field, a current will be induced in the wire. ... A changing magnetic field through a coil of wire therefore must induce an emf in the coil which in turn causes current to flow.

Due to the flow of the current run, the coil magnetic field is produced. Magnetic fields result in magnetic force.

The electric force between the two charges is directly propotional to the product of the charge and inversly propotional to the square of the distance between them.

A current will be generated in a wire coil if it is put in a changing magnetic field. As a result, a changing magnetic field through a coil of wire must create an emf in the coil, causing the current to flow.

A current is induced in a coil of wire when it is put in a changing magnetic field. Something generates an electric field that drives the charges around the wire, causing the current to flow.

Hence due to the flow of the current in the coil magnetic field is produced.

To learn more about the electric force refer to the link;

https://brainly.com/question/1076352

Answer:

electric current=ampere(A)

force=Newton (N)

area=metres square(m^2)

power=watt(w)

density=kg/m3 

amount of substance =mole per cubic meter (mol/m3).

volume=cubic meter (m3),

Answer:

thanks for brainlist brother.........

Explanation:

M₂ = Fr²/GM₁

M₂ = [(132N)(.243m)²]/[(6.67*10^-11N*m²/kg)(1.175*10^4kg)]

M₂ = (7.79N*m²)/(7.84*10^-7N*m²)

M₂ = 9.94*10^6 kg

Answer:

c and d

Explanation:

obviously kksxsxksxkskxkskxksxksxsxsxsxsxsxsxs

Answer:

1845.26 ?

Explanation:

18.46 × 99.96= 1845.2616 = 1845.26

im not entirely sure though

Answer:

Mercury is the only one in liquid state at room temperature

Answer:

Wait until the end of the semester to complete all work.

Explanation:

this is the obvious answer.

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Answer:

Wait until the end of the semester to complete all work

Answer:

5 m/s²

Explanation:

Use the acceleration formula: [tex]a=\frac{v_f-v_i}{t}[/tex]

Based on the information given to us by the prompt, we know:

Substitute these values for the variables to calculate the acceleration:

[tex]a=\frac{30-10}{4}\\\\a=\frac{20}{4}\\\\a=5[/tex]

Therefore, the acceleration of the bus is 5 m/s².

Answer:

14 years

Explanation:

because the light will take four years to reach the earth. And the star is four light years away from the earth.

An imaginary star is four light years from earth. The star has a planet, upon which a large mirror has been installed. The mirror faces earth. A ten year old boy aims his telescope at the mirror,then the boy would be 14 years old when he will see his own reflection.

It can be defined as the distance travelled by the light in one year .it is represented in units of distance such as miles or km.

1 light year is calculated by multiplying the speed of light with the time of one year

1 light year = speed of light × one year time period

1 light year = 3×10⁸ ×(365×24×60×60)

                  =9.461× 10¹⁵ meter

As given in the problem 10 year old boy aims his telescope at the mirror which is 4 light years away then the light has to travel four years to reach the boy ,then the boy would be 14 year old when he would see his own reflection.
Learn more about light year from here

https://brainly.com/question/1302132
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Explanation:

string roller is called an example of wheel and axel because The thin rod which needs to be turned is called the axle and the wider object fixed to the axle, on which we apply force is called the wheel.

hence the we apply force on the roller and the string gets tight.

Answer:

It means that person can do work or can posses energy at a rate of 550 watts.

Or : can posses energy of 550 joules in one second.

Explanation:

[tex]{ \bf{power = \frac{work}{time} }}[/tex]

Answer:

hi

Explanation:

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(a) The recoil or backward velocity of the gun is 8 m/s.

(b) The bullet cannot penetrate the plank of the wood completely.

The given parameters include;

(a) The backward or recoil velocity of the gun is calculated by applying the principle of conservation of linear momentum.

m₁u₁  + m₂u₂ = 0

m₂u₂ = -m₁u₁

[tex]u_2 = -\frac{m_1u_1}{m_2} \\\\u_2 = - \frac{0.1 \times 400}{5} \\\\u_2 = -8 \ m/s[/tex]

Thus, the recoil or backward velocity of the gun is 8 m/s.

(b) determine if the bullet can penetrate the plank of the wood completely

the acceleration of the bullet is calculated as;

v² = u₁² + 2as

2as = v² - u²

[tex]a = \frac{v^2 -u_1^2}{2s} \\\\a = \frac{(266.67)^2 -(400)^2}{2\times 0.04} = -1.111 \times 10^6 \ m/s^2[/tex]

Finally, determine the distance traveled by the bullet when it comes to a complete stop, that is the final velocity = 0

[tex]v_f^2 = v^2 + 2ad\\\\2ad = v_f^2 - v^2\\\\d = \frac{v_f^2 - v^2}{2a} \\\\d = \frac{(0) - (266.67)^2}{2(-1.111\times 10^6)} \\\\d = 0.032 \ m[/tex]

d = 3.2 cm

The total distance traveled by the bullet inside the plank = 4 cm + 3.2 cm = 7.2 cm

Therefore, the bullet cannot penetrate the plank completely.

To learn more about linear momentum visit: https://brainly.com/question/15869303

I hope I helped you^_^

Answer:

Explanation:

(a) It is given that Joseph jogs on a straight road of 300m in a time interval of 2 minutes and 30 seconds, which is equal to 150seconds. Therefore, when Joseph jogs from point A to point B, he covers a distance of 300m in time of 150seconds. Hence, his average speed is 300m/150s=2ms^−1. Since it is a straight road and he jogs in a single direction in this case, his displacement is equal to 300m. Since it is a straight road and he jogs in a single direction in this case, his displacement is equal to 300m.

Hence, his average velocity is 300m/150s=2ms^−1

(b) Then it is given that he turns back and points B and jogs on the same road but in the opposite direction for a time interval for 1 minute and covers a distance of 100m.If we consider the whole motion of Joseph, i.e. from point A to point C, then he covers a total distance of 300m+100m=400m. And he covers this total distance in a time interval of 2.5min+1min=3.5min=210s.

Therefore, his average speed for this journey is 400m210s=1.9ms−1.

For the same journey is displacement is equal to the distance between the points A and C,i.e. 300m−100m=200m.

Hence, his average velocity for this case is 200m/210s=0.95ms^−1

Question:

What is uniform rectilinear motion?

Answer:

Uniform rectilinear motion is when an object travels at a constant speed with zero acceleration.

Answer:

     i =[tex]- \frac{r \ A'}{2 \ rho}[/tex] ,  i =  0.92   A

Explanation:

This exercise asks for the electromotive force, which can be calculated with Faraday's law

          fem = [tex]- \frac{d \Phi_B }{dt}[/tex]

where the magnetic flux

          Ф = B. A

bold letters indicate vectors. We can write this equation

          Ф = B A cos θ

In this case the magnetic field is perpendicular to the page and the normal to the loop of the loop is also parallel to the page, therefore the angle is zero and the cosine is 1

the loop is

          A = π r²

we substitute in the first equation

          fem = - π r² [tex]\frac{dB}{dt}[/tex]

we substitute the values

          fem = -π r² 1

          fem = - π r²

to calculate the current let's use ohm's law

           V = i R

            R = ρ L / A'

where A 'is the area of ​​the wire and L is the length of the loop

            L = 2π r

            V = i (ρ 2π r / A ')

            I = [tex]\frac{V \ A'}{2\pi \ r \ rho}[/tex]

In this case

           V = fem

           I = fem / R            

           i =[tex]- \frac{r \ A'}{2 \ rho}[/tex]

In order to complete the calculation, you need the radius of the loop and / or the wire cutter.

if we assume that the loop has a radius of r = 1 cm = 0.01 m and an area of ​​the wire   A'= π 10⁻⁶ m²   a radius of the wire 1 mm

           i = - 10⁻² π 10⁻⁶ / ( 2 1.7 10-8)

           i =  0.92   A

Tomando en cuenta la Ley de Charles y la condiciones dentro del recipiente, tenemos las siguientes conclusiones con respecto al volumen del recipiente:

1) El volumen inicial del gas es 144.203 mililitros.

2) El volumen final del gas es 386.986 mililitros.

La Ley de Charles establece que el Volumen de un gas es directamente proporcional a su Temperatura, basados en este hecho, podemos resolver los problemas en cuestión mediante la siguiente relación matematica:

[tex]\frac{V_{1}}{T_{1}} = \frac{V_{2}}{T_{2}}[/tex] (1)

Donde:

[tex]V_{1}[/tex] - Volumen inicial, en mililitros.

[tex]V_{2}[/tex] -  Volumen final, en mililitros.

[tex]T_{1}[/tex] - Temperatura inicial, en Kelvin.

[tex]T_{2}[/tex] - Temperatura final, en Kelvin.

1) Si sabemos que [tex]V_{2} = 150\,mL[/tex], [tex]T_{2} = 388.15\,K[/tex] and [tex]T_{1} = 373.15\,K[/tex], entonces el volumen inicial del gas es:

[tex]V_{1} = \frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\times V_{2}[/tex]

[tex]V_{1} = \frac{373.15\,K}{388.15\,K}\times 150\,mL[/tex]

[tex]V_{1} = 144.203\,mL[/tex]

El volumen inicial del gas es 144.203 mililitros.

2) Si sabemos que [tex]T_{1} = 473.15\,K[/tex], [tex]V_{1} = 350\,mL[/tex] and [tex]T_{2} = 523.15\,K[/tex], entonces el volumen final del gas es:

[tex]V_{2} = \frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}\times V_{1}[/tex]

[tex]V_{2} = \frac{523.15\,K}{473.15\,K}\cdot 350\,mL[/tex]

[tex]V_{2} = 386.986\,mL[/tex]

El volumen final del gas es 386.986 mililitros.

He aquí una pregunta relacionada con la Ley de Charles: https://brainly.com/question/21184611