If u can help me press this theres a photo

Answer:

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

z

3

−8=−4

1

3

z+−8=−4

1

3

z−8=−4

Step 2: Add 8 to both sides.

1

3

z−8+8=−4+8

1

3

z=4

Step 3: Multiply both sides by 3.

3*(

1

3

z)=(3)*(4)

z=12

Answer:

z=12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

The angles are equal to eachother so 4x-26 = 3x+14

Answer:

Paste is the answer if I remember

Answer:

x < -8

Step-by-step explanation:

3 - (2x - 5) < -4 (x+2)

distribute

3 - 2x + 5 < -4x - 8

add the numbers

8 - 2x < -4x - 8

move the x

2x < -16

divide

x < -8

Answer:

4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

yes it would make a acute triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

cous of the negative or positive symbol

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

What is the constant variation of Y =- 2 3x?

The constant of variation, k , is 23 .

Step-by-step explanation:

When x is zero in a direct variation equation y will also be zero. That means that the y-intercept of all direct variation equations is always zero.

Answer:

(2,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps :)

Answer:

(1,0) + 4 up and + 1 right

The answer is (2,4)

Answer:

400. just use simple devision and it'll tell you.

Answer: $45 + 4n + 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 1,200 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the cost before the discount is 6,000.

The discount price is 80% off.

So, subtract 4,800 by 6,000 because 80% of 6,000 is 4,800.

Now, we have to add the two zeros. We get 1200.

It is the answer to the question.

Answer:

because AC and BD bis => AX = XC; BX = XD

ΔAXD ≅ ΔCXB (SAS) because: AX = CX

                                                    DX = BX

                                                    m∠AXD = m∠BXC ( 2 opposing angles)

because ΔAXD ≅ ΔCXB (SAS)

=> AD = BC and m∠DAX = m∠BCX

because m∠DAX = m∠BCX => AD//BC

ABCD has AD = BC and AD//BC => ABCD is a parallelogram

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

3,735 cm = 37.36 meters

Answer:

cos15 is equivalent to sin(75)

Step-by-step explanation:

solving for cos15 degrees gives you ((√(3)+1)*√(2))/4 which is the same as the sin(75)

Answer:

A logarithm is the power to which a number must be raised in order to get some other number (see Section 3 of this Math Review for more about exponents). For example, the base ten logarithm of 100 is 2, because ten raised to the power of two is 100: log 100 = 2. because.

STep-by-step                                            Ihave a felling its b

Answer:

Answer: SAS

Step-by-step explanation:

We must prove that triangles ABC and EDC are congruent.

Since BD bisects AE, then AC is congruent with CE.

Since AE bisects BD, then BC is congruent with CD

Angle C is 90° in the triangle EDC and is also 90° in triangle BCA because they are vertical angles.

Being two sides and the included angle congruent, then both triangles are similar by the SAS theorem.

Answer: SAS

So first of all you count all the blocks, so it will be 16 blocks (4x4) sideways and horizontal.

A = 16/4 marked blocks = 25%

B = 16/8 marked blocks = 50%

C = 16/6 marked blocks = ?

D = 16/10 marked blocks = 62,5%

So answer would be A

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation: The Quadratic Formula uses the "a", "b", and "c" from "ax2 + bx + c", where "a", "b", and "c" are just numbers; they are the "numerical coefficients" of the quadratic equation they've given you to solve.

Answers:

c=0.25p

p=4c

c=.25p

c=1/4p

Hope I' not too late -w-'

Answer:

A. 160 Out of 40 is 400%./// B. The answer is 25/// C.  The answer is 3905%

Step-by-step explanation:

( A )  One step solution:

You can easily find the answer in one step, just multiplying the part by 100 then dividing the result by the percentage.

So, 160 is 40% of =  160 X 100     = 400

                                        40

( B ) The same thing as A but the numbers are switched

       One step solution:

You can easily find the answer in one step, just multiplying the part by 100 then dividing the result by the percentage.

So, 40 is 160% of = 40 × 100      = 25

                                          160

( C ) Working out a percentage increase or decrease between two numbers is pretty simple. The resulting number (the second input) is 1602 and what we need to do first is subtract the old number, 40, from it:

1602 - 40 = 1562

Once we've done that we need to divide the result, 1562, by the original number, 40. We do this because we need to compare the difference between the new number and the original:

1562      = 39.05          

40

We now have our answer in decimal format. How do we get this into percentage format? Multiply 39.05 by 100?

39.05 x 100 = 3905%

160 is percentage of 40,  40 is 160% , number is 40% of 1602​ are 64 , 64 and 640.8 respectively.

A ratio or value that may be stated as a fraction of 100 is called a percentage. And it is represented by the symbol '%'.

Problem A,

40% of 160 = 160 x 40 / 100

                  = 64

Problem B,

160% of 40 = 160 x 40 / 100

                  = 64

Problem C,

40% of 1602 = 1602 x 40 / 100

                     = 640.8

Therefore, 160 is percentage of 40,  40 is 160% , number is 40% of 1602​ are 64 , 64 and 640.8 respectively.

To learn more about the percentage;

https://brainly.com/question/24159063

#SPJ2

Answer: The length of JF = 16 units.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: In triangle DEF, segment DJ is a perpendicular bisector of side EF.

i.e. DJ is perpendicular to EF and DJ divides EF into two equal parts EJ and JF. [The perpendicular bisector is a line that is perpendicular to a line segment and splits it into two congruent segments.]

If  EJ is 3y-8 and JF is 7y-40.

Then, [tex]3y-8=7y-40[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow\ 7y-3y=40-8\\\\\Rightarrow\ 4y=32\\\\\Rightarrow\ y=8 \text{ [Divide both sides by 4]}[/tex]

JF= 7(8)-40 =56-40= 16 units

Hence, the length of JF = 16 units.

Answer:

plz giv brainlist

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Quadrilaterial 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

In the given figure, Triangle LMN is an isosceles triangle with angle m = angle n and angle p bisects angle NLQ. Prove that angle P is parallel to MN.

Answer:

a right angle is an angle of exactly 90° (degrees) .

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it always has a right corner or in other words it has at least one right 90 degree angle

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 0.43

Step-by-step explanation: divide

Answer:

B   -------   DE ≅ RS

it's B because DE and RS both contain the equal angles.