Increased blood osmolarity, detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus, triggers the production of vasopressin (also known as antidiuretic hormone).
define vasopressin ?
Human vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), arginine vasopressin (AVP), or argipressin, is a hormone that is generated as a peptide prohormone in hypothalamic neurons and then converted to AVP. It then travels down the axon, ending in the posterior pituitary, and is released into the blod from vesicles in reaction to ecf hypertonicity (hyperosmolality). AVP serves two key purposes. For starters, it increases the quantity of solute-free fluids reabsorbed back into the bloodstream from the filtrate in the nephrons' renal tubules. Second, AVP restricts arterioles, increasing peripheral vascular resistance & blood pressure.
Vasopressin is produced in response to increased blood osmolarity as recognised by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus (also known as antidiuretic hormone).
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Use the molecular orbital theory to determine the ground state electron configuration of f2 and f+2.
according to the molecular orbital theory the number of electrons in the rm F 2F 2 molecule is 18. The number of electrons in the rm F 2+F 2 + molecule is 17.
Fluorine has the atomic number 9. It claims to have 9 electrons in its orbitals. There are two F atoms in the molecule rm F 2F 2, so there are a total of 18 electrons. According to the molecular orbital theory, the electronic configuration for the distribution of 18 electrons will be: (1σ) ²(1σ*) ²(2σ) ²(2σ*)²(2pσ) ²(2pπ)⁴(2pπ*)⁴ There is one electron removed from the molecule of rm F 2+F 2 +. There will be 17 electrons present in the molecule. The molecule's ground state electronic configuration will be: (1σ) ²(1σ*) ²(2σ) ²(2σ*) ²(2pσ) ²(2pπ) ⁴(2pπ*)³
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Which of the following statements regarding enzyme function is false?
a. Enzymes do not show specificity for the substrates they bind.
b. Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze. c. An enzyme binds to its substrate at the enzyme's active site. d. Enzymes are proteins. e. An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.
The statement that is false regarding enzyme function is enzymes do not show specificity for the substrates they bind. The correct option is a.
What are enzymes?The difference in energy levels between substrates and products of the reactions determines whether the reactions are spontaneous or non-spontaneous in nature.
Because enzymes do not alter the energy levels of substrates and products, they cannot transform a non-spontaneous process into a spontaneous one. Enzymes only reduce the activation energy of a process, causing the non-spontaneous reaction to proceed at a faster pace.
Therefore, the correct option is a, Enzymes do not show specificity for the substrates they bind.
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ovulation is considered to be ________ .
Answer: menstruation
Explanation: Ovulation refers to the release of an egg during menstruation in females. Part of the ovary called the ovarian follicle discharges an egg. The egg is also known as an ovum, oocyte, or female gamete. It is only released on reaching maturity.
designing multiepitope-based vaccine against eimeria from immune mapped protein 1 (imp-1) antigen using immunoinformatic approach
Answer:Immuninformatics approach involves epitope prediction tools, molecular docking, and population coverage analysis in design of desired immunogenic peptides. In order to overcome the antigenic variation of viruses, conserved regions are targeted to discover the posible epitopes.
Explanation:
structural damage from tornadoes is usually caused by
High winds are frequently to blame for tornado-related structural damage.
Why do tornadoes form?Thunderclouds contain warm, humid air that rises as chilly air that is accompanied by rain or hail descends.These circumstances might result in the formation of whirling air currents inside the cloud. Although the whirling currents begin horizontally, they have the ability to turn vertical, drop from the cloud, and eventually form a tornado..
What three types of tornadoes are there?Examples of various tornado types include the multiple vortex tornado, landspout, and waterspout.A waterspout is caused by a massive cumulus or cumulonimbus cloud coupled to a spiraling funnel-shaped.
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5 Infer A scientist makes a map using GIS. One
layer is an aerial photograph of farmland. Other
layers show water-level changes and how the
crop cover has changed over time. What might
the scientist be studying?
Answer: the soil management in a particular area to reduce soil erosion.
Explanation:
Cover crops were widely used in American agriculture by the 1860s and remained so until the 1950s. The scientist is studying geography here.
What is GIS layer?Layers in ArcGIS are collections of geographic data. Layers point to a data source, and if the data is spatially interpreted by ArcGIS Pro, the data's properties and attributes specify how the layer draws on a map, scene, or layout. A layer's data is represented by points, lines, shapes, or surfaces.
GIS layers are used for ease of use and data collection. Layers make sense when you consider how most data is collected.
Greek as well as Roman farm owners used legume cover crops to improve soil quality in their vineyards during the Roman Empire.
Lupines were used to improve sandy soils throughout Northern Europe in the late 1700s. Cover crops were widely used in American agriculture by the 1860s as well as managed to remain so until the 1950s.
Thus, this way crop cover changed over time.
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TRUE/FALSE. modification of rhizobacterial populations by engineering bacterium utilization of a novel plant-produced resource.
Modification of rhizobia populations by bacterial manipulation (engineering) of new plant resources is True.
Can bacteria be engineered?Bacteria are constructed according to synthetic biology design and plasmid introduction or genome modification. In vitro co-culture systems can be used to rapidly characterize and develop effective genetically modified bacteria.Our bodies are home to several species of bacteria that help us maintain our health and well-being. Manipulating these beneficial bacteria to alter the activity of aberrant genes by either disabling or activating them is a promising approach to improving health and fighting disease.How do rhizobia help plants?Beneficial rhizosphere bacteria were used to improve water and nutrient uptake, and abiotic and biotic stress tolerance. Many soil bacteria have been reported to promote plant growth and development, but the modes by which bacteria exhibit beneficial activity are poorly understood.
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None of the above Question 6 2.5 pts In its public health campaign, the United States Department of Agriculture promotes food safety with four simple actions: boil, freeze, dry, and salt bake, sterilize, freeze, and label O C. clean, separate, chill, and cook scrub, irradiate, cook, and freeze Question 7 2.5 pts Which of the following is NOT recommended when purchasing food? O Buy perishable foods first Place meat in a separate plastic bag Don't buy food from damaged containers Buy only what you need Question 8 2.5 pts
The answer is C. clean, separate, cook, and chill. Research indicates that Americans are aware of the importance of food safety, but they still need more information. As a result, USDA created the Be Food Safe campaign in collaboration with PFSE, FDA, and CDC.
Food poisoning-causing germs can live in a variety of environments and spread throughout your kitchen. Before, during, and after preparing meals, wash your hands for at least 20 seconds with soap and warm or cold water. After handling raw meat, poultry, fish, flour, or eggs, make sure to always wash your hands. After preparing each food item, wash your utensils, cutting boards, and counters with hot, soapy water. Fresh produce should be rinsed under running water. When a food's internal temperature reaches a level that kills contagious bacteria, it has successfully been cooked. Utilizing a food thermometer is the only way to determine whether food is properly cooked.
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Classify the examples as prezygotic or postzygotic barriers. Prezygotic barrier Postzygotic barrier Answer Bank A horse and donkey mate to produce a sterile mule. One bird species prefers open areas, whereas another bird species prefers wooded areas. One frog species mates in the spring, whereas another frog species mates in the summer. Individuals from two different species mate, but the resulting embryo dies before birth.
Prezygotic and Postzygotic barriers are reproductive isolation mechanisms, which avoid mating events or prevent viable and fertile mixtures between different species. Pre-zygotic barriers: One bird species prefers open areas, whereas another bird species prefers wooded areas. One frog species mates in the spring, whereas another frog species mates in the summer. Postzygotic barrier: A horse and donkey mate to produce a sterile mule. Individuals from two different species mate, but the resulting embryo dies before birth.
What is reproductive isolation?This is a mechanism through which different species or populations do get to mate and produce fertile offspring. This mechanism allows the accumulation of genetic differences and favors speciation.
Different barriers inhibit or interrupt the genetic flow between species.
Reproductive barriers are isolation mechanisms that prevent mating between two or more species. There are two types of barriers,
prezygotic ⇒ that avoids fertilization between individuals of different species, postzygotic ⇒ that impedes the zygote from developing and reaching the adult stage.Pre-copulatory or pre-zygotic barriers include:
Ecological or by habitat isolation; Seasonal or temporal; Sexual o ethologic; Mechanic; Gametes incompatibility.Postzygotic mechanisms barriers include:
Hybrid inviability, Hybrid sterility, Hybrid reduced viability or fertility, Cytoplasmic interactions.Examples,
Pre-zygotic barriersOne bird species prefers open areas, whereas another bird species prefers wooded areas (Ecological or by habitat isolation)
One frog species mates in the spring, whereas another frog species mates in the summer (Seasonal or temporal isolation)
Postzygotic barrier
A horse and donkey mate to produce a sterile mule (Hybrid sterility).
Individuals from two different species mate, but the resulting embryo dies before birth (Hybrid inviability).
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Using an antiseptic oral rinse before treatment, a rubber dam, or an antimicrobial-laced external water supply during treatment when ultrasonic or irrigators are used may help in preventing the spread of infection (T/F related/not)
The statement is true. Using an antiseptic oral rinse before treatment, a rubber dam, or antimicrobial-laced external water when ultrasonic or irrigators are used may help in preventing the spread of infection.
Which of the following complications could indeed result from untreated cellulitis?
Untreated cellulitis can result in bacteremia, endocarditis, osteomyelitis, toxic shock syndrome, or sepsis. In rare cases, the infection can spread to the deep layer of tissue known as the fascial lining.
The Soniclean Ultrasonic Irrigator is a cutting-edge machine designed specifically to clean cannulated surgical instruments, but it could also clean non-cannulated surgical instruments, individually or simultaneously.
Therefore, when ultrasonic or irrigators, an antiseptic oral rinse before treatment, a rubber dam, or antimicrobial-laced external water may help in preventing the spread of infection.
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a gene pair made up of two similar alleles-for example, aa and bb-is said to be
A heterozygous gene pair consists of two unique alleles, whereas a homozygous gene pair consists of two alleles that are the same.
Which color test for bloodstains is the most popular?A presumptive test that reacts with the heme molecule found in blood is phenolphthalein. Pink results from an affirmative response. Despite the fact that bloodstains are often reddish-brown in hue, the substrate's color or the stain's age can have an impact on how noticeable or noticeable the stain is.
When two alleles are expressed, what is it called?In terms of genetics, codominance refers to an inheritance pattern in which two variants (alleles) of the same gene are expressed differently in order to produce distinct phenotypes in a person.
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the triads of a muscle fiber consist of __________.
A triad is made up of three notes stacked in subsequent thirds. A triad is also known as a harmony or a chord. (Chord progressions are another example of harmony.) The root is the lowest note of a triad when it is stacked in thirds.
What the triads of a muscle fiber posses?The terminal cisterna, T-tubule, and sarcoplasmic reticulum are the three structures that surround the myofibrils and make up the triad.
Therefore, Actin and myosin, two protein structures, are found in the myofibrils. In a muscle cell, the sarcomere serves as a structural and functional unit.
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Efferent arteriole C 8 of 15 Art-labeling Activity: Figure 25.8 (1 of 2)
The Efferent arteriole are blood vessels connecting to the urinary tract.
What is Efferent arteriole?
Efferent arteriole is a blood vessels connecting to the urinary tract..
They carry filtered blood from glomerulus away.they facilitate maintaing glomerulus filtration rate.Blood vessels:These are the vessels that carry bloods away or toward heart or to other parts of the body.
the blood vessels which carry blood away from heart is Aorta.the blood vessel which carry deoxygenated blood to the heart is Vena cava.Urinary Tract:It is the tract of vessels which removes urine out of the body. It is divided into upper and lower Urinary tract.
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The blood arteries that link to the urinary tract are called efferent arterioles.
Efferent arteriole: What is it?
A blood artery that connects to the urinary system is an efferent arteriole.
They transport the glomerulus' filtered blood elsewhere.
They make glomerulus filtration rate maintenance easier.
Blood vessels: These are the conduits through which blood travels from or to the heart or to other bodily components.
The Aorta is the blood artery that carries blood away from the heart.
The Vena cava is the blood channel that carries anaemic blood to the heart.
The urinary tract is the network of vessels responsible for removing urine from the body. Upper and lower urinary tracts are separated.
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an exotoxin that has the ability to kill or damage host cells is referred to as a(n) a.cytotoxin. b.A-B toxin. c.neurotoxin. d.enterotoxin. e.superantigen.
According to the research, the correct answer is Option A. An exotoxin that has the ability to kill or damage host cells is referred to as a cytotoxin.
What is a cytotoxin?An artificially made antibody or toxin that works by damaging cells allowing the innate and adaptive response to be triggered.
In this sense, it coordinates the response of the immune system and is produced by microorganisms, plants or animals that appears after repeated injections of cells of the same
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, a cytotoxin is an exotoxin that inhibits or damage specific cells.
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which of the following are the only plant groups have sporophytes and gametophytes that are both photosynthetic and free-living?
Ferns are uncommon among terrestrial plants in that their sporophyte and gametophyte stages are both free living and self-contained. The correct option (D)Seedless vascular plants
Seedless vascular plants have vascular tissue but do not produce flowers or seeds. Seedless vascular plants, such as ferns and horsetails, reproduce through haploid, unicellular spores rather than seeds.
What are seedless vascular plants examples?
Club mosses, horsetails, ferns, and whisk ferns are examples of modern seedless vascular plants.
Why are seedless vascular plants important?
Seedless vascular plants provide many benefits to life in ecosystems, such as food and shelter, as well as fuel and medicine to humans.
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Full Question: Which of the following are the only plant groups have sporophytes and gametophytes that are both photosynthetic and free-living?
Angiosperms
Seedless vascular plants
Gymnosperms
Nonvascolar plants
the presence of vestigial organs supports evidence of evolution because
Because they imply that an organism changed from utilising the structure to avoiding it altogether or utilising it for a different function, they offer proof of evolution.
Examples of three vestiges of organs.In most cases, the appendix, coccyx (the tail bone), and tonsils are examples of vestigial organs in humans. Additionally, humans still have their tonsils, body hair, wisdom teeth, nipples, and nictitating membranes in their eyes.
What organ in a person is a vestigial organ?In The Descent of Man, Charles Darwin identified some alleged vestiges of human ancestry that he described as primitive (1871). These included body hair, the semilunar fold in the corner of the eye, the tail bone, the appendix, the ear muscles, the wisdom teeth, and the appendix.
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it serves as the final site of lymphocyte development before birth and soon after birth, it begins to secrete a group of hormones that enable lymphocytes to develop into mature t cells. b soon after birth, it begins to secrete a hormone that actively stimulates the posterior pituitary to release oxytocin. c it serves as the final site of lymphocyte development before birth.
C. It serves as the final site of lymphocyte development before birth is the main function of the thymus.
What is Thymus?
The thymus is one of the lymphatic system's organs where T lymphocytes develop and multiply. In the chest, behind the breastbone, is the thymus. It is a little organ that can be found in the upper chest, just behind the breastbone. It produces lymphocytes, which are white blood cells that defend the body from illnesses.
T-lymphocytes, often known as T-cells, are specialized white blood cells that are trained by the thymus gland. Your bone marrow sends lymphocytes (white blood cells) to your thymus. In your thymus, the lymphocytes develop into specific T-cells. The T-cells develop before they are released into your bloodstream.
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What is the ICD-10 code for suprapubic catheter status?
Answer:
k
Explanation:
The ICD-10 code for suprapubic catheter status is Z96.651. This code falls under the category of "persons with potential health hazards related to genitourinary devices, implants, and grafts" and specifically refers to the presence of a suprapubic catheter for drainage of urine.
What is ICD-10?ICD-10 code Z96.651 is used to indicate the presence of a suprapubic catheter, which is a medical device used to drain urine from the bladder through a small opening in the lower abdomen. This code is part of the ICD-10 system, which is a standardized classification system used by healthcare providers and organizations to code and report medical diagnoses and procedures.
Hence, the ICD-10 code for suprapubic catheter status is Z96.651. This code falls under the category of "Persons with potential health hazards related to genitourinary devices, implants, and grafts."
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which of the following comparisons or contrasts between endergonic and exergonic reactions is false?
The endergonic reactions takes place slowly, exergonic reactions takes place quickly.
What is endergonic reactions?
Any reaction that needs free energy to proceed is said to be endergonic. The biologically significant endergonic reaction of photosynthesis is one such instance. In order to promote the conversion of glucose from carbon dioxide and oxygen from water, photosynthetic organisms use sun photons.
What is exergonic reactions?
Exergonic reactions produce simpler, lower energy products by releasing the energy trapped in the reactants.
Exergonic reactions happen quickly while endergonic reactions happen slowly.
Therefore, endergonic reactions takes place slowly, exergonic reactions takes place quickly.
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in the context of hormones that suppress appetite, is produced by fat cells and inhibits neurons in the hypothalamus that contain the appetite stimulant neuropeptide y (npy), thereby signaling the body that it has had enough to eat. a) dopamine
b) ghrelin
c) leptin
d) glucose
Answer: leptin
Explanation:
From the right leg, lymph moves in which order? Oright lumbar trunk, right lymphatic duct, left subclavian vein Oright lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, right subclavian vein Oright lumbar trunk, right lymphatic duct, right subclavian vein Oright lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, left subclavian vein
The right order moving the lymph from the right leg is from the right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, and left subclavian vein. The correct option is b.
What is lymph?
The lymphatic system is a component of the circulatory system and an important aspect of the immune system, consisting of a network of lymphatic vessels that transport a clear fluid known as lymph in the direction of the heart.
After filtration, lymph from lymph nodes goes to the subclavian veins via efferent lymph arteries. Smooth muscle contraction, pressure changes, and valve opening/closing all have an impact on the entire transport process.
Therefore, the correct option is b, right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, and right subclavian vein.
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What's Known As The “Master Gland” Of The Human Body?
Answer: The pituitary gland is known as the master gland of our body.
Explanation:
It is known as the master gland of our body as it helps in regulating growth, metabolism in our body and most importantly, it produces hormones for reproduction. It also controls the functioning of other glands.
The gland exactly senses, what our body needs and accordingly, it sends signals to different parts of our body.
It produces different types of hormones for different types of growth in our body, for example, Adrenocorticotropic hormone, to secrete steroid hormones, Growth hormone, which regulates growth, metabolism, and other muscles growth in our body, Luteinizing hormone, act on the ovaries to stimulate sex hormone, Prolactin, which stimulates milk production, Thyroid stimulating hormone, to secrete thyroid hormones.
Thus, pituitary gland is also called as the 'master gland' of our body.
Below is a piece of double stranded DNA. If RNA polymerase is moving from left to right (direction of the arrow), what is the product?
3'-GGACT-5'
5'-CCTGA-3'
a. 5'-GGACU-3'
b. 5'-CCUGA-3'
c. 3'-GGACU-5'
d. 3'-CCUGA-5'
e. None of the above
Patients without a left ventricular or ventricular septal defect who have congenitally corrected transposition of the great arteries (ccTGA).
RNA is single stranded, yet DNA is double stranded, why?To increase stability, DNA is double-stranded. RNA, on the other hand, is easily destroyed and can afford to be less stable, in part because of its single-stranded structure. The nucleic acid backbone's sugar component is another significant distinction between DNA and RNA.
If RNA had two strands, what would happen?Every live cell considers double-stranded RNA to be foreign and destroys it. When double-stranded RNA is found earlier than expected, RNA interference (RNAi) eliminates any mRNA that matches its sequence. The RNAi response is brought on by the nuclease Dicer, which breaks double-stranded RNA into short segments (siRNA).
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One of the organic substances not normally excreted by the kidney is __________. creatinine urea uric acid glucose
One of the organic substances not normally excreted by the kidney is glucose and is therefore denoted as option D.
What is a Kidney?This is referred to as a pair of bean-shaped organs which helps to filter the blood and results in the passing of body waste in the form of urine.
Compounds such as creatinine, urea etc are usually filtered from the blood and passed out of the body. Glucose is derived when carbohydrate is broken down through series of enzymatic action and provided energy to cells of the body which is why it isn't excreted by the kidney.
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select all the combined effects of parathyroid hormone and calcitriol. check all that apply bone resorption by osteoclastsbone resorption by osteoclasts activation of osteoclastsactivation of osteoclasts increase excretion of calcium by the kidneysincrease excretion of calcium by the kidneys increase absorption of calcium by the small intestineincrease absorption of calcium by the small intestine
While calcitriol and P-T-H have the same general effect of raising calcium and phosphate levels in the blood, calcitonin has the opposite effect. It causes the blood's levels of calcium and phosphate to drop.
The thyroid is a tiny, 5 centimeter-diameter gland that is found in the neck, just beneath the skin and below the Adam's apple. Thyroid hormones, which are secreted by the thyroid, regulate the body's calcium, or the rate at which chemical reactions take place. Due to their proximity to the thyroid, the phosphate levels have earned the name. Normally, there are four pea-sized parathyroid glands, one in each thyroid corner, however the precise position of these glands as well as their overall number can vary greatly.
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use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the question. e1-4 refer to the exons, and i1-3 refer to the introns in the pre-mrna transcript. 5' utr e1 i1 e2 i2 e3 i3 e4 utr 3' suppose that exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters the 5' end of intron 1 (i1). which of the following results might occur? question 6 options: premature transcriptional termination loss of e1 loss of the gene product inclusion of i1 in the mrna
The exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters the 5' end of intron 1
5' UTR E1 E2 E3 E4 UTR 3'
inclusion of I1 in the mRNA
Asymmetric RNA Splicing The first genes with alternative RNA splicing were discovered in the 1970s.
When multiple combinations of exons are joined to make the mRNA, a procedure called alternative RNA splicing enables diverse protein products to be synthesized from a single gene. The frequency of various splicing alternatives is controlled by the cell as a way to regulate the production of different protein products in different cells or at different stages of development.
Alternative splicing can be haphazard, but more often it is controlled and acts as a mechanism of gene regulation. In eukaryotes, alternative splicing is widely recognized as a frequent process of gene control. One estimate place the proportion of human genes that are expressed as numerous proteins by alternative splicing at 70%.
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Label the parts of the hair and hair follicle. 4 Piloerector muscle Hair buib Hair medula Hair matrix Hair shat Hair shaft Hair root Hair root Hair medula Hair bulb Blood capilaries in dermal papla Prev Naxt e MacBook Pro commandoption ommand
The various parts of the hair such as the hair follicle, piloerector muscle, hair bulb, hair medulla, hair matrix, etc, are labeled in the attachment.
What is the structure of the hair?The hair is a structure that is found on the skin of mammals that is composed of proteins that have been keratinized.
The hair is a derivative of the epidermis and consists of two parts:
the hair follicle - the hair follicle is the part of the hair responsible for the production of new hairthe hair shaft - the hair shaft consists of a cortex and cuticle cells. In some types of hairs, the hair shaft has a medulla.The function of the hair includes the following:
protection - the hair serves to protect the body from mecahnical injuryregulation of body temperature - the hair helps to regulate body temperature in cold or hot conditions such as in the facilitation of perspiration to cool the bodysense organ - hairs also act as sense organs.Learn more about hair follicles at: https://brainly.com/question/24711898
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Design a Device That Minimizes the Force on an Object During a Collision
In this project, you will design, evaluate, and refine a device that minimizes the force
on an object during a collision. You should apply scientific ideas to develop your
device and try to avoid unanticipated effects. Apply the law of conservation of linear
momentum to the situation in which your device should be used, and compare the
velocities and momenta of objects in the system. Note that the total momentum of a
system can change, but the change is balanced by the momenta of objects outside
the system. In your design, you should specify any criteria and constraints, such as
limiting risk. You should be able to quantify how your design satisfies these criteria
and constraints. You may have to break down complex criteria into simpler ones and
prioritize certain criteria over others.
Background
An object's momentum is based on the mass and velocity of the object. The more
momentum the object has, the harder it is to stop the object or change its direction.
The equation for momentum is p = my, where p is momentum, mis mass, and vis
velocity. When a force is applied to an object, the object's velocity changes.
Answer: W h a t
Explanation: confusion
is the neural activity triggered by a stimulus that activates a sensory receptor and results in sensory nerve impulses traveling the sensory nerve pathways to the brain.
Sensation is the neural activity triggered by a stimulus that activates a sensory receptor and results in sensory nerve impulses traveling the sensory nerve pathways to the brain.
Our five senses—vision, hearing, taste, smell, and touch—are responsible for sensation. Because each of these systems retains distinct neural connections with the brain, they can quickly transport information from the environment to the brain. We wouldn't be able to take pleasure in the warm spring day in the park without feel.
The distinct sensory receptors found in each sensory system are made to recognize particular environmental cues. When an external stimuli is perceived, sensory receptors transform it into electrochemical brain impulses.
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which of the following individuals will inherit an x-linked allele from a man who carries it? which of the following individuals will inherit an x-linked allele from a man who carries it? half of his daughters all of his daughters all of his sons all of his children
A male with an X-linked ailment will not harm his sons, but all of his daughters will inherit the mutated gene and may experience the disorder's signs and symptoms. If a guy has an X-linked recessive disease, his daughter will always inherit the altered gene and become a carrier. However, X chromosome his daughter will be impacted if he has an X-linked dominant disease.
A mutation in the gene copy on the one X chromosome in males (who only have one X chromosome) causes the disorder. X-linked dominant conditions cannot be passed from dads to boys, but all daughters of X-linked afflicted fathers will have the dominant condition and be able to pass it on to their offspring.
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