Explanation:
The following are my SMART goals:-
Specific
1. I want to be physically fit within 6 months on order to be able to run a marathon in less than 3 hours.
2. I want to become a manager in my current organization from my current position as an assistant manager within the next 3 years in order to be able lead a team.
3. I want to be a lovable dad to my daughter in the next 3 months so that I can spend more quality time with her.
4. I want to become an amazing husband to my wife by spending more quality time with her and also taking her on vacations in the next 6 months.
Measurable
1. I would start my training from next week. Initially I would run 3 to 5 kilometers with walk breaks.
2. I would talk to my boss next week to ask for more responsibilities and also to ask him to let me know what is required to get promoted.
3. I would start leaving office early by being more efficient and effective in the office. I will also take my daughter on walks and play with her for 1 hour daily.
4. I would come back from office early and spend time with my wife.
Attainable
1. I will talk to other marathoners to know whether my goal is attainable and will also research about it.
2. I will talk to my colleagues whom are managers about what they did to get promoted.
3. I will talk to other dads to know whether my goal is attainable.
4. I will talk to other husbands that are successful.
Realistic
When I start measuring my progress weekly and getting a feedback from people whom I admire, then I would know how realistic my goals are.
Timely
I have given a time frame for the attainment of all these goals which is very vital.
For implementing these goals, I m going to use the Plan-Do-Act-Dare cycle.
Since my objective is to become a well rounded person in my personal and also my professional life, the above steps will surely help me in becoming that person.
The strategy diamond will consist of:-
1. Arenas- Professional and Personal
2. Vehicles- Focus and hard work
3. Differentiation- Being different and unique from others.
4. Staging- Speed of initiatives
Also, there should be an economic logic binding this.
Purdum Farms borrowed $16 million by signing a five-year note on December 31, 2017. Repayments of the principal are payable annually in installments of $3.2 million each. Purdum Farms makes the first payment on December 31, 2018 and then prepares its balance sheet. What amount will be reported as current and long-term liabilities, respectively, in connection with the note at December 31, 2018, after the first payment is made?
Answer:
Current liabilities $3.2 million
long-term liabilities =$16 million-$3.2 million-$3.2 million=$9.6 million
Explanation:
The amount classified as current liabilities as at 31st December 2018 is the portion of the loan repayable within a year,that the repayment due at 31st December 2019 which is $3.2 million.
The amount to be classified as long term liabilities is the balance of the loan after having taken out the payment in year 1 as well as the repayment to be made in year 2
Library, Inc. has 2,500 shares of 4%, $50 par value, cumulative preferred stock and 50,000 shares of $1 par value common stock outstanding at December 31, 2017, and December 31, 2018. The board of directors declared and paid a $3,000 dividend in 2017. In 2018, $18,000 of dividends are declared and paid. What are the dividends received by the preferred and common shareholders in 2018?
Answer:
preferred stocks = 2,500 stocks x 4% x $50 par value = $5,000 preferred dividends per year
common stock = 50,000 stocks outstanding of $1 par value
in 2017, $3,000 in dividends are distributed, all to preferred stocks
In 2018, $18,000 in dividends are distributed, $7,000 to preferred stock ($2,000 cumulative from last year and $5,000 from this year) and $11,000 are distributed to common stockholders.
In 2018, each preferred stock received = $7,000 / 2,500 stocks = $2.80 per preferred stock. Each common stockholder received $11,000 / 50,000 = $0.22 per common stock.
On December 31, 2017, Berclair Inc. had 560 million shares of common stock and 5 million shares of 9%, $100 par value cumulative preferred stock issued and outstanding. On March 1, 2018, Berclair purchased 168 million shares of its common stock as treasury stock. Berclair issued a 5% common stock dividend on July 1, 2018. Four million treasury shares were sold on October 1. Net income for the year ended December 31, 2018, was $1,050 million.
Also outstanding at December 31 were 30 million incentive stock options granted to key executives on September 13, 2013. The options were exercisable as of September 13, 2017, for 30 million common shares at an exercise price of $56 per share. During 2018, the market price of the common shares averaged $70 per share.
Required:
a. Compute Berclair's basic and diluted earnings per share for the year ended December 31, 2018.
Answer:
Basic Earnings Per Share = $1,44
Diluted Earnings Per Share = $1,38
Explanation:
Basic Earnings Per Share = Earnings Attributable to Holders of Common Stock / Weighted Average Number of Common Shares
Calculation of Earnings Attributable to Holders of Common Stock
Net income for the year ended December 31, 2018, $1,050,000,000
Less cumulative preferred stock dividend ($45,000,000)
Earnings Attributable to Holders of Common Stock $1,005,000,000
Calculation of Weighted Average Number of Common Shares
1 January Outstanding Common Shares 560,000,000
March 1 - Purchases (10/12×168,000,000) 140,000,000
October 1 - Sold (3/12×4,000,0000) (1,000,000)
Weighted Average Number of Common Shares 699,000,000
Basic Earnings Per Share = $1,005,000,000/699,000,000
= $1,44
Diluted Earnings Per Share = Adjusted Earnings Attributable to Holders of Common Stock / Adjusted Weighted Average Number of Common Shares
Calculation of Adjusted Weighted Average Number of Common Shares
Weighted Average Number of Common Shares (Basic) 699,000,000
Incentive Stock Options 30,000,000
Adjusted Weighted Average Number of Common Shares 729,000,000
Diluted Earnings Per Share = $1,005,000,000/ 729,000,000
= $1,38
At the beginning of last year, Tarind Corporation budgeted $900,000 of fixed manufacturing overhead and chose a denominator level of activity of 600,000 machine-hours. At the end of the year, Tari's fixed manufacturing overhead budget variance was $12,000 favorable. Its fixed manufacturing overhead volume variance was $19,200 favorable. Actual direct labor-hours for the year were 625,000. What was Tari's total standard machine-hours allowed for last year's output?
Answer:
The answer is 612800 hours
Explanation:
Solution
Recall that:
At the start of last year, Tari Corporation budgeted $900,000 of fixed manufacturing overhead and chose a denominator level of activity of 600,000 machine-hours.
At the end of the year, Tari's fixed manufacturing overhead budget variance was $12000 favorable. Its fixed manufacturing overhead volume variance was $19200 favorable. The direct actual labor-hours for the year were 625,000. What was Tari's standard total machine-hours allowed for last year's output?
Now,
The Budgeted at beginning of the year = $900,000
fixed manufacturing overhead for = 600,000 machine hours
Thus,
The Standard = $900,000 / 600,000 hours = $1.5 fixed overhead / machine/machining hour
So,
At end of year, manufacturing overhead volume was $19,200 favorable which means that,
$19200 / $1.5 = 12800 additional hours.
Total Standard Machine Allowance Allowed for output = 600,000 +12800 = 612800 hours
Therefore, Tari's total standard machine-hours allowed for last year's output is 612800 hours
If Tarind Corporation budgeted $900,000 of fixed manufacturing overhead and chose a denominator level of activity of 600,000 machine-hours. At the end of the year, Its fixed manufacturing overhead volume variance was $19,200 favorable. What Tari's total standard machine-hours allowed for last year's output will be is: 612,800 machine hours
Using this formula
Total standard machine-hours=Machine -hours level of activity+ [Fixed manufacturing overhead volume variance÷(Fixed manufacturing overhead÷ Machine -hours level of activity)]
Where:
Machine -hours level of activity=600,000
Fixed manufacturing overhead volume variance=$19,200
Fixed manufacturing overhead=$900,000
Let plug in the formula
Total standard machine-hours=600,000+[$19,200÷($900,000÷600,000)]
Total standard machine-hours=600,000+($19,200÷1.5)
Total standard machine-hours=600,000+12,800
Total standard machine-hours=612,800 machine hours
Inconclusion if Tarind Corporation budgeted $900,000 of fixed manufacturing overhead and chose a denominator level of activity of 600,000 machine-hours. At the end of the year, Its fixed manufacturing overhead volume variance was $19,200 favorable. What Tari's total standard machine-hours allowed for last year's output will be is: 612,800 machine hours
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Running Co. had an equity investment where it owned less than 20% of an investee, and therefore Running Co. was not able to exercise significant influence. Information about the investment is below: 20X1 20X2 Investment cost 170,000 170,000 Fair value 181,400 155,000 Total unrealized gain (loss) 11,400 (15,000) The company sold the investment during 20X3 for the below price: Sales price 192,400 What is the gain (loss) recorded in the income statement in the year of sale, in 20X3
Answer:
Gain or Loss to be reocrded in Financial Statement: 151600 - 155000= 3400 loss to be booked as Fair value recorded in the books as in year ended 20X2 is 155000.
The following data pertain to last year's operations at Tredder Corporation, a company that produces a single product: Units in beginning inventory 0 Units produced 20,000 Units sold 19,000 Selling price per unit $100.00 Variable costs per unit: Direct materials $12.00 Direct labor $25.00 Variable manufacturing overhead $3.00 Variable selling and administrative $2.00 Fixed expenses per year: Fixed manufacturing overhead $500,000 Fixed selling and administrative $600,000 What was the absorption costing net operating income last year?
Answer:
Net operating income= 27,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Units produced 20,000
Units sold 19,000
Selling price per unit $100.00
Variable costs per unit:
Direct materials $12.00
Direct labor $25.00
Variable manufacturing overhead $3.00
Variable selling and administrative $2.00
Fixed expenses per year:
Fixed manufacturing overhead $500,000
Fixed selling and administrative $600,000
Under the absorption costing method, the fixed manufacturing overhead gets included in the unitary production cost. First, we need to calculate the unitary product cost.
Unitary product cost= (12 + 25 + 3) + (500,000/20,000)
Unitary product cost= 40 + 25= $65
Income statement:
Sales= 100*19,000= 1,900,000
COGS= 65*19,000= (1,235,000)
Gross profit= 665,000
Variable selling and administrative= (2*19,000)=(38,000)
Fixed selling and administrative= (600,000)
Net operating income= 27,000
An outside supplier has offered to provide the annual requirement of 7,200 of the parts for only $13 each. The company estimates that 60% of the fixed manufacturing overhead cost above could be eliminated if the parts are purchased from the outside supplier. Assume that direct labor is an avoidable cost in this decision. Based on these data, the financial advantage (disadvantage) of purchasing the parts from the outside supplier would be:
Super corporation produces a part in the manufactures of its product. The unit cost is $21 computed as follows:
An outside supplier has offered to provide the annual requirement of 7,200 of the parts for only $13 each. The company estimates that 60% of the fixed manufacturing overhead cost above could be eliminated if the parts are purchased from the outside supplier. Assume that direct labor is an avoidable cost in this decision. Based on these data, the financial advantage (disadvantage) of purchasing the parts from the outside supplier would be:
$
Direct material 6
Direct labour 8
Variable manufacturing overhead 2
Fixed manufacturing overhead 5
Total cost 21
Answer:
Total financial advantage of buying from the supplier $43,200
Explanation:
Unit relevant variable cost of making= 6+8 +2 = 16
$
Variable cost of making ( 16× 7200) = 115,200
Variable of buying (13 ×7200) 93,600
Savings in variable cost 21,600
Savings in fixed cost (60%*72300 × 5) 21600
Total savings from buying 43,200
Total financial advantage of buying from the supplier $43,200
Suppose the economy is in long-run equilibrium. In a short span of time, there is a sharp rise in the stock market, an increase in government purchases, an increase in the money supply and a decline in the value of the dollar. In the short run a. the price level and real GDP will both rise. b. the price level and real GDP will both fall. c. neither the price leave nor real GDP will change. d. All of the above are possible.
Answer:
All of the above are possible.
Explanation:
Discussions here center on equilibrium of an economy in a long run, and here after the government activities, their is a decline in dollar value; therefore in the short run, the price level and real GDP will both rise in as much as the price level and real GDP will also both fall. It is also gathered that neither the price leave nor real GDP will change.
The transition from the short run to the long run may be done by considering some short run equilibrium that is also a long run equilibrium as to supply and demand, then comparing that state against a new short run and long run equilibrium state from a change that disturbs equilibrium, say in the sales tax rate, tracing out the short run adjustment first, then the long run adjustment.
Wicker Rockers, Inc. is planning to offer a defined contribution plan for its employees. The company would like to incorporate a "cliff" vesting schedule for the employer contributions into the plan. What is the minimum vesting period the company can choose for a "cliff" vesting schedule
Answer:3 years
Explanation:
Cliff vesting is when an employee of a company becomes fully vested on a specified date rather than the employee becoming partially vested in increasing amounts over extended period. Cliff Vesting is a process whereby the employees are entitled to full benefits from their firm’s pension policies and qualified retirement plans on a given date.
Upon the completion of the cliff period, employees receive full benefits. The Pension Protection Act of 2006 deduced a three-year cliff vesting schedule for the designated defined-contribution plans which includes 401Ks.
A company's income statement showed the following: net income, $117,000; depreciation expense, $31,500; and gain on sale of plant assets, $5,500. An examination of the company's current assets and current liabilities showed the following changes as a result of operating activities: accounts receivable decreased $9,700; merchandise inventory increased $19,500; prepaid expenses increased $6,500; accounts payable increased $3,700. Calculate the net cash provided or used by operating activities. Multiple Choice $143,400. $141,400. $148,200. $130,400. $169,400.
Answer:
$130,400
Explanation:
The computation of net cash provided or used by operating activities is shown below:-
Net cash provided or used by operating activities
Net income $117,000
Depreciation expense $31,500
Gain on sale of plant assets ($5,500)
Accounts receivable decreased $9,700
Increase inventory ($19,500)
Prepaid expenses increased ($6,500)
Increase account payable $3,700
Net cash flow from
operating activities $130,400
Therefore the Net cash flow from operating activities is $130,400
You are given the following information about 2 accounts: Account 1 Time Account Value before transactions Deposit Withdrawal 0 100 0.25 110 X 0.75 120 3X 1 82 Account 2 Time Account Value before transactions Deposit Withdrawal 0 100 0.5 120 2X 1 140 You are also told that the dollar weighted return over the year on account 1 is i. If the time weighted return over the year on account 2 is also i, what are X and i
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
For account 1:
Dollar weighted investment = 100 for entire year + X for three fourth of the year - 3X for one fourth of the year = 100 + 3X/4 - 3X/4 = 100
Dollar return = Closing balance - opening balance - (Total deposit - total withdrawal) = 82 - 100 - (X - 3X) = 2X - 18
Hence, dollar weighted return = i = Dollar return / Dollar weighted investment = (2X - 18) / 100
Or, 100i = 2X - 18 Or, 50i = X - 9
For account 2:
Time weighted return: It has two components:
100 growing to 120 in 0.5 year
Immediately after deposit of 2X, the capital becomes 120 + 2X that grows to become 140 in the next 0.5 year
Hence time weighted return = 1 + i = 120 / 100 x 140 / (120 + 2X) = 168 / (120 + 2X) = 84 / (60 + X)
From the first equation, i = (X - 9) / 50
Hence, from second equation, 1 + i = 1 + (X - 9) / 50 = (41 + X) / 50 = 84 / (60 + X)
Hence, (60 + X).(41 + X) = 50 x 84
Hence, X2 + 101X + 2,460 = 4,200
Or, X2 + 101X - 1,740 = 0
It's a quadratic equation that can be factorized as:
(X - 15).(X + 116) = 0
Hence, X = 15
Hence, i = (X - 9) / 50 = (15 - 9) / 50 = 0.12 = 12%
Marle Construction enters into a contract with a customer to build a warehouse for $950,000 on March 30, 2018 with a performance bonus of $50,000 if the building is completed by July 31, 2018. The bonus is reduced by $10,000 each week that completion is delayed. Marle commonly includes these completion bonuses in its contracts and, based on prior experience, estimates the following completion outcomes: Completed by Probability July 31, 2018 65% August 7, 2018 5% August 14, 2018 5% August 21, 2018 The transaction price for this transaction, based on the expected value approach, is:_______.
a. $950,000
b. $995,000
c. $685,000
d. $652,500
Answer:
b. $995,000
Explanation:
The computation of the transaction price based on the expected value approach is shown below:
The formula is
= (Building cost of warehouse + bonus) × probability percentage
Date Calculation Amount
July 31, 2018 ($950,000+$50,000) × 0.65 $650,000
August 7, 2018 ($950,000+$40,000) × 0.25 $247,500
August 14, 2018 ($950,000+$30,000) × 0.05 $49,000
August 21, 2018 ($950,000+$20,000) × 0.05 $48,500
Total $995,000
Since the bonus is reduced $10,000 each week so $10,000 is deducted for every delayed week
Ahmed, a lawyer, sold his car to Carlos. Has an implied warranty of merchantability been created by this transaction? No, because Ahmed is not a merchant. Yes, because if the car is defective Carlos will have a right to return in to Ahmed. No, Ahmed has not implied so either orally or in written. Yes, because a car is "goods" and the Uniform Commercial Code applies to contracts for the sale of goods.
Answer:
A. No, because Ahmed is not a merchant.
Explanation:
Implied warranty of merchantability is a law in contract which states that when there is a transaction between a seller (the merchant), and a buyer, there is an unwritten guarantee from the seller, that the product meets up to the ordinary standards of care. This means that the goods must be fit to do what the merchant says it will do. Therefore, if the seller finds it defective, he could return it to the seller. and if the seller refuses to make a change, a legal case could be established. The merchant by law is a wholesaler or retailer, who sells goods in which he has expertise or special skills.
Ahmed in the question could be argued in court to not be a merchant of cars and as such, has no expertise with which he can make a guarantee for the car being sold to Carlos.
EHW Office Supplies, Inc. uses the perpetual inventory system. On September 4, 2019,EHW sold merchandise inventory on account at a price of $50,000 with payment terms of 1/10, n/30. The merchandise cost EHW $40,000. On September 12, 2019, the customer pays the proper amount due for the merchandise based on the credit terms. How much will be credited to Accounts Receivable when recording the collection
Answer:
$50,000
Explanation:
The cash payment was made within the discount period of 10 days,hence the amount received in respect of the sales on account is face value minus discount of 1%.
When sales was made EHW would have debited accounts receivable with $50,000 and credited same to sale revenue.
Cash received=$50,000*(1-1%)=$49,500
discount =$50,000-$49,500=$500
The appropriate entries for cash collection:
Dr cash $49,500
Dr discount allowed $500
Cr accounts receivable $50,000
The selling price of imported olive oil is $20 per case. Your cost is 15 Euros per case, and the exchange rate is currently 1.25, so it takes 1.25 Euros to buy $1. Your largest customer has ordered 15,000 cases of olive oil. How much is the pretax profit for this transaction?
Answer:
$120,000
Explanation:
According to the question, the selling price (S.P) i.e. amount to be sold, of one imported olive oil case is $20 while the cost price (C.P) i.e. amount it was purchased, is €15
Looking at the currencies of both prices, they are different. To make the currencies the same, we need to convert euros (€) to dollars ($).
Based on the exchange rate of €1.25 to $1 given in the question;
€15 will be 15/1.25 = $12.
Therefore, the C.P is $12 and the S.P is $20
A customer ordered 15,000 cases of olive oil. This means that the;
1) The cost price (C.P) will be $12 × 15,000 = $180,000
2) The selling price will be $20 × 15,000 = $300,000
In order to obtain the pretax profit, we subtract the cost price (C.P) from the selling price (S.P). That is, $300,000 - $180,000 = $120,000
The conversion rate is restated for all stock dividends and splits. Coffee had the following stock transactions in 2005 and 2006:
1/1/2005 - Sold 30,000 shares of common stock at $20 per share.
1/1/2005 - Sold 10,000 shares of preferred stock at $100 per share.
4/1/2005 - Issued at 50 percent stock dividend when the market price is $26 per share.
9/1/2005 - Purchased 4,000 treasury shares at $30 per share.
10/1/2005 - Sold 1,000 of the treasury shares at $32 per share.
11/1/2005 - Sold 2,000 of the treasury shares at $25 per share.
12/1/2005 - Issued a 2-1 for stock split.
12/20/2005 - Declared the required dividend to preferred stock holders and a $.25 per share dividend to common stockholders. Dividends are payable on 12/31/2005.
Prepare journal entries to record all of the above business events
Answer and Explanation:
The journal entries are shown below:
On Jan 1
Cash (30,000 Shares × $20) $600,000
To Common Stock (30,000 Shares × $2) $60,000
To Paid In Capital in Excess of Par - Common Stock $540,000
(Being the sale of the common stock is recorded)
On Jan 1
Cash (10,000 Shares × $100) $600,000
To Preferred Stock (10,000 Shares × $100) $1,000,000
(Being the sale of the preferred stock is recorded)
On Jan 4
Retained Earnings (30,000 × 50% × $26) $390,000
To Common Stock (15,000 shares × $2) $30,000
To Paid In Capital in Excess of Par - Common Stock $360,000
(Being the issued of the stock dividend is recorded)
On Jan 9
Treasury Stock (4,000 Shares × $30) $120,000
To Cash $120,000
(Being the purchase of treasury stock is recorded)
On Jan 10
Cash (1,000 Shares × $32) $32,000
To Treasury Stock (1,000 Shares × $30) $30,000
To Paid in Capital from Treasury Stock $2,000
(Being the sale of the treasury stock is recorded)
On Jan 11
Cash (2,000 Shares × $25) $50,000
Paid in Capital - Treasury Stock $2,000
Retained Earnings $8,000
To Treasury Stock (2,000 Shares × $30) $60,000
(Being the sale of the treasury stock is recorded)
On Jan 12
Since the shares are issued for 2 to 1 i.e the number of shares is rises from 29,000 shares to 58,000 shares due to which the par value is decreased from $2 to $1 per share. So the new 29,000 shares were to be distributed
On Dec 20
Retained Earnings $74,500
To Dividend Payable - Preferred Stock (10,000 Shares × 100 × 6%) $60,000
To Dividend Payable - Common Stock (58,000 Shares × $0.25) $14,500
(Being the dividend is declared)
The management of Ballard MicroBrew is considering the purchase of an automated bottling machine for $74,000. The machine would replace an old piece of equipment that costs $19,000 per year to operate. The new machine would cost $9,000 per year to operate. The old machine currently in use could be sold now for a salvage value of $31,000. The new machine would have a useful life of 10 years with no salvage value. Required: 1. What is the annual depreciation expense associated with the new bottling machine
Answer:
$7,400 per year
Explanation:
Data provided for computing the annual depreciation expense is here below:-
Automated bottling machine = $74,000
Useful life = 10 years
The calculation of annual depreciation expense is given below:-
Annual depreciation expense = Automated bottling machine ÷ Useful life
= $74,000 ÷ 10
= $7,400 per year
Therefore for computing the annual depreciation expense we simply divide the automated bottling machine by useful life.
Selected information from Arbon Corporation's accounting records and financial statements for 2021 is as follows ($ in millions): Cash paid to acquire machinery $ 36 Reacquired Arbon common stock 50 Proceeds from sale of land 90 Gain from the sale of land 52 Investment revenue received 66 Cash paid to acquire office equipment 80 In its statement of cash flows, Arbon should report net cash outflows from investing activities of:
Answer:
Arbon should report net cash outflows from investing activities of: ($26)
Explanation:
Arbon Corporation
Statement of cash flows (extract)
Purchase of machinery ($36)
Proceeds from sale of land 90
Cash paid to acquire office equipment (80)
Net cash outflows from investing activities ($26)
Therefore, Arbon should report net cash outflows from investing activities of ($26).
Note that reacquired stock affects the financing section of the cash flows, while gain on sale of land and investment revenue received affect the operating section of the cash flows.
The predetermined overhead rate for Zane Company is $5, comprised of a variable overhead rate of $3 and a fixed rate of $2. The amount of budgeted overhead costs at normal capacity of $150000 was divided by normal capacity of 30000 direct labor hours, to arrive at the predetermined overhead rate of $5. Actual overhead for June was $9500 variable and $6050 fixed, and standard hours allowed for the product produced in June was 3000 hours. The total overhead variance is
Answer:
Total Overhead Variance= $500 unfavorable
Explanation:
The total overhead variance is the difference between actual overhead and the applied overhead.
Actual Overhead = Variable + Fixed= $9500 + $6050= $ 15,550
Budgeted Overhead for 30000 direct labor hours = $ 150,000
Applied Overhead for 3000 hours = 3000 *$5= $15000
Total Overhead Variance= Actual Overhead Less Applied Overhead
= $15,500- $ 15000= $500 unfavorable
As actual is greater than applied it is unfavorable.
Answer:
$550 unfavorable.
Explanation:
Total actual overhead = $9,500 + $6,050 = $15,550
Total predetermined overhead = Predetermined overhead rate * Standard hours = $5 * 3,000 = $15,000
Total overhead variance = $15,550 - $15,000 = $550 unfavorable.
Note: It is unfavorable because total actual is greater than total predetermined overhead.
We learned in class that Starbucks uses its baristas as front line “brand ambassadors”. This is an example of ________________?
A.
top management not doing their jobs
B.
Inverted Organization Structure
C.
Management by Objectives MBO
D.
Giving uneducated employees too much responsibility
Answer:
Inverted Organization Structure
Explanation:
An Inverted Organization Structure is a structure where the employees are given more autonomy. Employees are given more prominent and important roles in the business.
I hope my answer helps you
Option B is correct because it is an example of inverted organization structure.
An Inverted Organization Structure is a organizational structure where employees are given more autonomy in their operation, that is, they are given more prominent and important roles in the company.
This type of structure is beneficial because the top hierarchy have lesser work and employee get more experience because of decision-makings.
In conclusion, the Option B is correct because it is an example of inverted organization structure
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The common stock of Leaning Tower of Pita Inc., a restaurant chain, will generate payoffs to investors next year, which depend on the state of the economy, as follows: Dividend Stock Price Boom $ 10 $ 200 Normal economy 6 90 Recession 0 0 The company goes out of business if a recession hits. Assume for simplicity that the three possible states of the economy are equally likely. The stock is selling today for $80.
a. Calculate the rate of return to Leaning Tower of Pita shareholders for each economic state. (Negative amounts should be indicated by a minus sign. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.) Rate of return Boom Normal economy Recession a-2.
b. Calculate the expected rate of return and standard deviation of return to Leaning Tower of Pita shareholders. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.) Expected return Standard deviation
Answer:
a) Boom = 162.50%
Normal =20.00%
Recession = - 100.00%
b) Expected return = 27.50%
Standard deviation = 107.30%
Explanation:
a) To find the rate of return for each economy state, let's use:
Rate of return = (Dividend +Stock price next year-stock price today)/stock price today
i) For Boom:
[tex] \frac{10 + 200 - 80}{80} = 1.625 [/tex] = 162.50%
ii) Normal:
[tex]\frac{6 + 90- 80}{80} = 0.2 [/tex] = 20.00%
iii) Recession :
[tex]\frac{0 + 0 - 80}{80} = - 1 [/tex] = -100%
b) To calculate the expected rate of return, let's use:
Expected return = Sum of expected return in different scenario / number of economy states
[tex] = \frac{162.5 + 20 - 100}{3} = 27.50[/tex]
Standard deviation:
To find the standard deviation, let's use:
Standard deviation = √[(sum of square of expected return in each scenario -average return)/n]
[tex] = \sqrt{\frac{(162.50-27.50)^2+(20-27.50)^2+(-100-27.50)^2}{3}} [/tex]
[tex] = \sqrt{\frac{(135)^2 + (-7.50)^2 + (-127.50)^2}{3}} [/tex]
[tex] = \sqrt{\frac{18225+56.25+16256.25}{3} [/tex]
= 107.30%
Standard deviation = 107.30%
Donovan company incurred the following costs while producing 2000 units: Direct Materials, $15 per unit; direct labor, $5 per unit; variable manufacturing overhead, $12 per unit; variable selling and administrative costs, $14, per unit; total fixed overhead costs, $20,000; total fixed selling and administrative costs, $10,000. There are no beginning inventories.
What is the unit productive cost using absorption costing?
a. $32 per unit
b. $42 per unit
c. $52 per unit
d. $61 per unit
What is the unit product cost using variable costing?
a. $32 per unit
b. $44 per unit
c. $46 per unit
d. $61 per unit
What is the operating income using absorption costing if 1800 units are sold for $100 each?
a. $104,400
b. $96,000
c. $79,200
d. $69,200
What is the operating income using variable costing if 1900 units are sold for $100 each?
a. $57,400
b. $72,600
c. $80,200
d. $102,600
*Formulas or explanations with each part of the problem.
Answer:
1. b. $42 per unit
2. a. $32 per unit
3. d. $69,200
4. b $72,600
Explanation:
1 and 2 The computation of unit productive cost using absorption costing and unit product cost using variable costing is shown below:-
Absorption Variable
Direct material $15 $15
Direct labor $5 $5
Variable manufacturing
overhead $12 $12
Fixed manufacturing
overhead $10
($20,000 ÷ 2000)
Product cost $42 $32
Therefore for computing the product cost of absorption and variable cost we simply added direct material, direct labor, variable manufacturing overhead and fixed overhead rate
3. The computation of the unit product cost using variable costing is shown below:-
Sales $180,000
Cost of goods manufactured ($756,00)
(1800 × $42)
Difference $104,400
Variable and selling
administrative ($25,200)
(1800 × $14)
Gross profit $79,200
Fixed selling and administrative
expenses ($10,000)
Net operating income $69,200
So, for computing the net operating income we simply deduct the Fixed selling and administrative expenses from gross profit.
4. The computation of operating income using variable costing is shown below:-
Sales $190,000
(1,900 × $100)
Variable cost of goods
manufactured $60,800
(1,900 × $32)
Gross contribution margin $129,200
Variable and selling administrative ($26,600)
(1900 × $14)
Net contribution margin $102,600
Fixed cost ($30,000)
Operating income $72,600
Therefore for computing the operating income using variable costing we simply deduct the fixed cost from net contribution margin.
Which of the following is true of a stock dividend? Multiple Choice It is a liability on the balance sheet. The decision to declare a stock dividend resides with the shareholders. Transfers a portion of equity from retained earnings to a cash reserve account. Does not affect total equity, but transfer amounts between the components of equity. Reduces a corporation's assets and stockholders' equity.
Answer:
Yes it is true that a stock dividend does not affect total equity.
Explanation:
A stock dividend is a non cash payment given to shareholders. Instead of cash, additional shares that is equivalent to the earnings that accrue is given to shareholders.
While this may increase the number of shares held, it does not affect total equity.
One of the benefits of stock dividends tax exemption and retained equity which translates to additional investment.
However, the additional; shares created could dilute the share prices.
A company can sell all the units it can produce of either Product A or Product B but not both. Product A has a unit contribution margin of $16 and takes two machine hours to make and Product B has a unit contribution margin of $30 and takes three machine hours to make. If there are 5,000 machine hours available to manufacture a product, income will be:
a. $10,000 more if Product A is made.
b. $10,000 less if Product B is made.
c. $10,000 less if Product A is made.
d. the same if either product is made.
Answer:
Product B has a net income of $10,000 superior to Product A.
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Product A:
Unitary contribution margin= $16
Machine-hours required= 2
Product B:
Unitary contribution margin= $30
Machine-hours required= 3
First, we will calculate the total income of both products.
Product A= 16*(5,000/2)= $40,000
Product B= 30*(5,000/3)= $50,000
Product B has a net income of $10,000 superior to Product A.
g Tanning Company analyzes its receivables to estimate bad debt expense. The accounts receivable balance is $276,000 and credit sales are $1,000,000. An aging of accounts receivable shows that approximately 3% of the outstanding receivables will be uncollectible. What adjusting entry will Tanning Company make if the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $2,200 before adjustment?
Answer:
accounts receivable = $276,000
total credit sales = $1,000,000
3% of accounts receivable will not be decollete = $276,000 x 3% = $8,280
if allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance of $2,200, you must add = $8,280 - $2,200 = $6,080
the adjusting entry should be:
Dr Bad debt expense 6,080
Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts 6,080
Since allowance for doubtful accounts is a contra asset account it has a credit balance that reduces the value of accounts receivable.
Dinklage Corp. has 9 million shares of common stock outstanding. The current share price is $69, and the book value per share is $8. The company also has two bond issues outstanding. The first bond issue has a face value of $70 million, a coupon rate of 6 percent, and sells for 94 percent of par. The second issue has a face value of $55 million, a coupon rate of 5 percent, and sells for 106 percent of par. The first issue matures in 24 years, the second in 9 years.Suppose the most recent dividend was $4.25 and the dividend growth rate is 4.4 percent. Assume that the overall cost of debt is the weighted average of that implied by the two outstanding debt issues. Both bonds make semiannual payments. The tax rate is 25 percent. What is the company’s WACC? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Answer:
10.83%
Explanation:
The simplest way to determine the if we use the Gordon growth model for determining the company's stock price:
stock price = [dividend x (1 + growth rate)] / (WACC - growth rate)
dividend = $4.25g = 4.4%stock price = $69WACC - g = [dividend x (1 + g] / price
WACC = {[dividend x (1 + g] / price} + g
WACC = {[$4.25 x (1 + 4.4%] / $69} + 4.4% = 0.1083 or 10.83%
Under the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts, a. the cash realizable value of accounts receivable is greater before an account is written off than after it is written off. b. Bad Debts Expense is debited when a specific account is written off as uncollectible. c. the cash realizable value of accounts receivable in the balance sheet is the same before and after an account is written off. d. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is closed each year to Income Summary.
Answer:
c. the cash realizable value of accounts receivable in the balance sheet is the same before and after an account is written off.
Explanation:
Under the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts, the cash realizable value of accounts receivable in the balance sheet is the same before and after an account is written off and bad debt expenses is debited.
This means that in the period in which an account previously written off is collected, the income is unaffected.
Also, under the allowance method of accounting, total assets will remain unchanged when a particular account is being written off.
CSUSM is a zero growth company. It currently has zero debt and its earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) are $85,000. CSUSM 's current cost of equity is 11%, and its tax rate is 21%. The firm has 15,000 shares of common stock outstanding. Assume that CSUSM is considering changing from its original capital structure to a new capital structure with 39% debt and 61% equity. This results in a weighted average cost of capital equal to 8.7% and a new value of operations of $576,345. Assume CSUSM raises $165,000 in new debt and purchases T-bills to hold until it makes the stock repurchase. What is the stock price per share immediately after issuing the debt but prior to the repurchase?
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
Calculation of CSUSM 's New value of Operation :
For the purpose of Calculation of New Value of Operation we need to first calculate new WACC
Given :
Debt value ( Wd) = 30% or 0.30
Equity Value ( We)= 70% or 0.70
Cost of Debt ( Kd) =8%
New cost of equity (Ke) =12%
WACC =Kd(1-T) * Wd + Ke* We
WACC =[8%(1-0.40) * 0.30] + [12% * 0.70]
= [4.80% * 0.30 ] + [8.4 %]
= 1.44% + 8.4%
= 9.84 %
Given EBIT = $ 80,000
Tax rate = 40%
Currently the company has no growth. Therefore growth rate is 0 %
Value of New Operation =FCF / WACC
=EBIT (1-T) / WACC
=$80,000 (1-0.40)/ 9.84%
= $ 487,804.88
Your client has $80,000 invested in stock A. She would like to build a two-stock portfolio by investing another $80,000 in either stock B or C. She wants a portfolio with an expected return of at least 15% and as low a risk as possible, the standard deviation must be no more than 25%. Expected Return Standard Deviation Correlation With A A 18% 30% 1.0 B 17% 25% 0.3 C 15% 15% 0.4_____
Answer: Please see below for answer
Explanation:
Expected Return Standard Deviation Correlation With A
A 18% 30% 1.0
B 17% 25% 0.3
C 15% 15% 0.4_____
Expected return of A (RA) = 18%
Expected return of B (RB) = 17%
Standard Deviation of A (σA) = 30%
Standard Deviation of B (σB) = 25%
Weight of A (WA) = 50% (Since equal amount of $80,000 is being invested)
Weight of B (WB) = 50%
Correlation = 0.3
Portfolio Returns = WARA + WBRB = (18%*50%) + (17%*50%) = 17.5%
Portfolio Standard Deviation = (WA2 * σA2 + WB2 * σB2 + 2*(WA)*(WB)*CorrelationAB* σA* σB)(1/2)
= [(50%2 X 30%2) + (50%2 X 25%2) + (2 X 50% X 50%X 0.3 X 30% X 25%)](1/2)
=0.0025 +0.015625+SQR 0.01125
=0.0025+0.015625+0.1061=0.1241= 12.4%
If Invested in Stock C
Expected return of A (RA) = 18%
Expected return of C (RC) = 15%
Standard Deviation of A (σA) = 30%
Standard Deviation of C (σC) = 15%
Weight of A (WA) = 50% (Since equal amount of $80,000 is Being invested)
Weight of C (WC) = 50%
Correlation = 0.4
Portfolio Returns = WARA + WCRC = (18%*50%) + (15%*50%) = 16.5%
Portfolio Standard Deviation = (WA2 * σA2 + WC2 * σC2 + 2*(WA)*(WC)*CorrelationAC* σA* σC)(1/2)
= [(50%²X 30%²) + (50%² X 15%²) + (2 X 50% X 50%X 0.4 X 30% X 15%)]^1/2
= 0.0025+0.005625+ SQR 0.009= 0.1029= 10.29%= 10.3%
The expected return and standard deviation if invested in Stock B is 17.5% and 12.4% while that of STOCK C is 16.5% and 10.2 % but the client wants expected return of at least 15% and at low risk as possible with standard deviation not more than 25%, it is advised that the client invest in stock C as the values obtained are more towards her choice.
Darrin’s Auto Northern Division is currently purchasing a part from an outside supplier. The company's Southern Division, which has no excess capacity, makes and sells this part for external customers at a variable cost of $15 and a selling price of $27. If Southern begins sales to Northern, it (1) will use the general transfer-pricing rule and (2) will be able to reduce variable cost on internal transfers by $3. On the basis of this information, Southern would establish a transfer price of:
Answer:
Transfer price = $24
Explanation:
As per the data given in the question,
The excess capacity of Company's Southern division is nill therefore for transferring the units the division will have to decrease its external sales.The Loss occurred due to reduction in external sales should be from inter divisional transfer price. Therefore,
Transfer price = variable cost + Loss of contribution
= ($15 - $3) + ($27 - $15)
= $24
