i.Name two commonly used thermometric liquids.


ii.State two advantages each of the thermometric liquids mentioned above​

Answer:

4.7 GHz

Explanation:

Applying,

v = λf................. Equation 1

Where v = velocity of the radio wave, λ = wavelength, f = frequency

make f the subject of the equation

f = v/λ.............. Equation 2

Note: A radio wave is an electromagnetic wave, as such it moves with a velocity of 3.00 x 10⁸ m/s

From the question,

Given: λ = 0.0644 meters

Constant: v = 3.00 x 10⁸ m/s

Substitute these values into equation 2

f = (3.00 x 10⁸)/0.0644

f = 4.66×10⁹ Hz

f = 4.7 GHz

Assuming no heat lost to the surrounding,

-5⁰C ice → 0⁰C ice

Specific heat capacity of ice = 2.0 x 10³ J/kg/⁰C

Q = mc∆θ

Q = 5(2.0 x 10³) x (0-(-5))

Q = 50000J

0⁰C ice → 0⁰C water

Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34 x 10⁵J/kg

Q = mLf

Q = 5(3.34 x 10⁵)

Q = 1670000J

0⁰C water → 100⁰C water

Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 x 10³ J/kg/⁰C

Q = mc∆θ

Q = 5(4.2 x 10³) x (100-0)

Q = 2100000J

100⁰C water → 100⁰C steam

Specific latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.26 x 10⁶ J/kg

Q = mLv

Q = 5(2.26 x 10⁶)

Q = 11300000J

Total amount of heat required

= 50000 + 1670000 + 2100000 + 11300000

= 15120000J

Answer:

The mount saved is $ 0.105.

Explanation:

Concerned about the increase in the electricity bill, a person decides to save by reducing bathing time from 20 to 15 minutes. Your shower has the following specifications: 4200 W and 220V. Knowing that the kWh costs R$0.30, the savings made in 10 days were approximately​.

The electrical energy is given by

E = P x t

where, P is the electrical power and t is the time.

When he is using the shower for 20 minutes, the energy consumed is

E = 4200 x 20 x 60 = 5040,000 J = 1.4 kWh

When he is using the shower for 15 minutes, the energy consumed is

E' = 4200 x 15 x 60 = 3780000 J = 1.05 kWh

The difference in energy is

E'' = E - E' = 1.4 - 1.05 = 0.35 kWh

The money saved is

= 4 0.3 x 0.35 = $ 0.105

the simple answer is from 61kmph to 120kmph

Explanation:

no explanation is needed

Answer and Explanation:

a. An oxygen-filled balloon is not able to float in the air, because the oxygen inside the balloon is of the same density, that is, the same "weight" as the oxygen outside the balloon and present in the atmosphere. The balloon can only float if the gas inside it is less dense than atmospheric oxygen. Helium gas is less dense than atmospheric gas, so if a balloon is filled with helium gas, that balloon will be able to float because of the difference in density.

b. The ship is able to float in the water because its steel construction is hollow and full of air. This makes the average density of this ship less than the density of water, which makes the ship lighter than water and for this reason, this ship is able to float. In addition, the ship is partially immersed, allowing the weight of the ship on the water to counteract the buoyant force that the water promotes on the ship. Weight and buoyant are two opposing forces that keep the ship afloat.

Answer: masses

Explanation:

Trust me

The total net force acting on the balloon will be 24498 Newtons

Given that

Volume of the balloon = 2210 cubic meter

Density of the air inside the balloon = 1.13  kg/m3

Here force on the balloon will be equal to the weight of the air displaced by balloon

[tex]F= mass of air displaced\times gravity[/tex]

[tex]F= Density \times volume \times gravity[/tex]

[tex]F=1.13 \times 2210 \times 9.81[/tex]

[tex]F=24498 N[/tex]

The total net force acting on the balloon will be 24498 Newtons

To know more about buoyancy force follow

https://brainly.com/question/117714

Answer:

A cylindrical specimen of aluminum having a diameter of 0.505 in. (12.8 mm) and a gauge length of 2.0 in. (50.8 mm) is pulled in tension. Use the load-elongation characteristics tabulated below to complete parts (a) through (f).

[tex]A=2.01×10^{16}\:\text{nuclei}[/tex]

Explanation:

Given:

[tex]\lambda = 4.96×10^3 s[/tex]

[tex]A_0 = 3.21x10^{17}[/tex] nuclei

t = 1.98×10^4 s

[tex]A=A_02^{-\frac{t}{\lambda}}[/tex]

[tex]A=(3.21×10^{17}\:\text{nuclei}) \left(2^{-\frac{1.98×10^4}{4.96×10^3}} \right)[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:\:\:=2.01×10^{16}\:\text{nuclei}[/tex]

Answer:

A) nm, um, mm, cm

B) 1mm, 1cm, 1m, 1km

A) 3500g, B) 2500m, C) 7200 seconds

Explanation:

A circuit breaker is an electrical switch designed to protect an electrical circuit from damage caused by overcurrent/overload or short circuit. Its basic function is to interrupt current flow after protective relays detect a fault.

Circuit breakers have been designed to detect when there is a fault in the electricity, so it will “trip” and shut down electrical flow. ... This detection is key to preventing surges of electricity that travel to appliances or other outlets, which can cause them to break down

Answer:

[tex]\mathbf{F_1=4.41*10^4\ N}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{F_2 = 1.176*10^5 \ N}[/tex]

Explanation:

The missing image of the figure slide is attached in below.

However, from the model, it is obvious that it is in equilibrium.

As a result, the relation of the force and the torque is said to be zero.

i.e.

[tex]\sum F = 0[/tex] and [tex]\sum \tau = 0[/tex]

From the image, expressing the forces through the y-axis, we have:

[tex]F_1+F_2 = W_B + W_P \\ \\ \implies 9.8(1500+15000) \\ \\ \implies \mathtt{1.617\times 10^5 \ N}[/tex]

Also, let the force [tex]F_1[/tex] be the pivot and computing the torque to determine [tex]F_2[/tex]:

Then:

[tex]F_1(0)+F_2(20.0) = 10.0W_B + 15.0W_P[/tex]

[tex]F_2 = \dfrac{((10*1500)+(15*15000))*9.8}{20.0}[/tex]

[tex]F_2 = 117600 \ N[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{F_2 = 1.176*10^5 \ N}[/tex]

For the force equation:

[tex]F_1+F_2=1.617*10^5 \ N;[/tex]

where:

[tex]F_2 = 1.176*10^5 \ N[/tex]

Then:

[tex]F_1+1.176*10^5 \ N=1.617*10^5 \ N[/tex]

[tex]F_1=1.617*10^5 \ N-1.176*10^5 \ N[/tex]

[tex]F_1=44100\ N[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{F_1=4.41*10^4\ N}[/tex]

Answer:

K = 0 J

Explanation:

Given that,

The mass of the particle, m = 1.2 mg

The speed of the particle, [tex]v=1.62\times 10\ cm/h[/tex]

We need to find the kinetic energy of the particle at time t = 0 s.

At t = 0 s, the particle is at rest, v = 0

So,

[tex]K=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

If v = 0,

[tex]K=0\ J[/tex]

So, the kinetic energy of the particle at time t = 0 s is 0 J.

Answer:

hi the question isn't obvious and need a photo I guess

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

Specific heat capacity is an intensive property of a material. The specific heat of a material is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one unit mass m of material by one unit of temperature.

a) Temperature is inversely proportional to specific heat capacity. If the same amount of heat is applied to all three balls, the ball that will reach the highest temperature is the ball with the least specific heat capacity.

Hence lead will have the highest temperature since it has the least specific heat capacity.

b) The quantity of heat is directly proportional to the specific heat capacity. Hence if all balls experience the same temperature change, the ball that have the most energy will be that with the highest specific heat capacity.

Hence aluminum will have the most heat since it has the highest specific heat capacity.

Answer:

hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm y

Answer:

a) acceleration

b) displacement

Explanation:

The velocity-time graph is a graph of velocity versus time. The velocity (m/s) would be on the Y-axis while time (s) would be on the X-axis.

a) The slope of a graph is given by: change in Y-axis/change in X-axis = ΔY/ΔX

In a velocity-time graph, ΔY = change in velocity and ΔX = change in time.

Hence, the slope of a velocity-time graph becomes: change in velocity/change in time.

Also, acceleration = change in velocity/change in time.

Hence, the slope of a velocity-time graph = acceleration.

b) Assuming that the area under a velocity-time graph is a rectangle, the area is given as:

Area of a rectangle = length x breadth

                                  = velocity x time (m/s x s)

Also, displacement = velocity x time (m)

Hence, the area under a velocity-time graph of a body would give the displacement of the body.

Answer:

B . energy cannot be created or destroyed

Answer:

True

Explanation:

With the gravitational pull that our planets have, we are able to remain in orbit. This demonstrates how every object in the galaxy is attracted to every other object. Every object in the universe that has mass exerts a gravitational pull on every other mass. We as humans do it too, but since our force isn't strong, we don't have much of an effect. I hope this helped and please don't hesitate to reach out with more questions!

Answer:

a)  y = 0.98 t², t=1s y= 0.98 m,  

b) he two blocks must move the same distance

c) v = 1.96 m / s,  d)  a = -1.96 m / s², e)  x = 0.98 m

Explanation:

For this exercise we can use Newton's second law

Big Block

Y axis

             N-W = 0

             N = M g

X axis

             T- fr = Ma

the friction force has the expression

             fr = μ N

             fr = μ Mg

small block

             w- T = m a

we write the system of equations

             T - fr = M a

             mg - T = m a

we add and resolved

             mg-  μ Mg = (M + m) a

             a = [tex]g \ \frac{m - \mu M}{m+M}[/tex]

             a = [tex]9.8 \ \frac{10- 0.2 \ 20}{ 10 \ +\ 20}[/tex]

             a = 9.8 (6/30)

             a = 1.96 m / s²

a) now we can use the kinematic relations

             y = v₀ t + ½ a t²

the blocks come out of rest so their initial velocity is zero

             y = ½ a t²

             y = ½ 1.96 t²

             y = 0.98 t²

for t = 1s y = 0.98 m

       t = 2s y = 1.96 m

b) Time is a scale that is the same for the entire system, the question should be oriented to how far the big block will move.

As the curda is in tension the two blocks must move the same distance

c) the velocity of the block M

           v = vo + a t

           v = 0 + 1.96 t

for t = 1 s v = 1.96 m / s

       t = 2 s v = 3.92 m / s

d) the deceleration if the chain is cut

when removing the chain the tension becomes zero

           -fr = M a

          - μ M g = M a

          a = - μ g

          a = - 0.2 9.8

          a = -1.96 m / s²

e) the distance to stop the block is

         v² = vo² - 2 a x

        0 = vo² - 2a x

        x = vo² / 2a

        x = 1.96² / 2 1.96

        x = 0.98 m

the time to travel this distance is

        v = vo - a t

        t = vo / a

        t = 1.96 /1.96

        t = 1 s

Answer:

7.9 [tex]\frac{m}{s^{2} }[/tex]

Explanation:

Take the fact that mass is inversely proportional to accelertation:

m ∝ a

Therefore m = a, but because we are finding the change in acceleration, we would set our problem up to look more like this:

[tex]\frac{m_{1} }{m_{2} } = \frac{a_{2} }{a_{1} } \\[/tex]

Using algebra, we can rearrange our equation to find the final acceleration, [tex]a_{2}[/tex]:

[tex]a_{2} = \frac{a_{1}*m_{1} }{m_{2} } \\[/tex]

Before plugging everything in, since you are being asked to find acceleration, you will want to convert 0.85g to m/s^2. To do this, multiply by g, which is equal to 9.8 m/s^2:

0.85g * 9.8 [tex]\frac{m }{s^{2} }[/tex] = 8.33 [tex]\frac{m }{s^{2} }[/tex]

Plug everything in:

7.9 [tex]\frac{m }{s^{2} }[/tex] = [tex]\frac{ 8.33\frac{m}{s^{2} }*1510kg }{1590kg}[/tex]

(1590kg the initial weight plus the weight of the added passenger)

The question is incomplete. The complete question is :

High-speed stroboscopic photographs show that the head of a 200 g golf club is traveling at 60 m/s just before it strikes a  50 g golf ball at rest on a tee. After the collision, the club head travels (in the same direction) at 40 m/s. Find the speed of the golf ball just after impact.

Solution :

We know that momentum = mass x velocity

The momentum of the golf club before impact = 0.200 x 60

                                                                             = 12 kg m/s

The momentum of the ball before impact is zero. So the total momentum before he impact is 12 kg m/s. Therefore, due to the conservation of momentum of the two bodies after the impact is 12 kg m/s.

Now the momentum of the club after the impact is = 0.2 x 40

                                                                                    = 8 kg m/s

Therefore the momentum of the ball is = 12 - 8

                                                                = 4 kg m/s

We know momentum of the ball, p = mass x velocity

                                                     4 = 0.050 x velocity

∴ Velocity =  [tex]$\frac{4}{0.050}$[/tex]

                 = 80 m/s

Hence the speed of the golf ball after the impact is 80 m/s.

Answer:

a= -80.357 m/s

Explanation:

use the formula

vf^2=vi^2+2a(xf-xi)

Plug in givens

0=(7.50)^2+2a(0.350m)

solve for acceleration

a= -80.357 m/s

Answer:

Answer in explanation

Explanation:

The force of attraction between two bodies is governed by Newton's Law of Gravitation:

[tex]F = \frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}[/tex]

where,

G = Universal Gravitational Constant

m₁ = mass of the first body

m₂ = mass of the second body

r = distance between the two bodies

F = Force

Hence, it is clear from the formula that the magnitude of the force is directly proportional to the product of the masses of the objects. So in the case of the earth and ourselves, the mass of the earth is very large in order of 10²⁴ kg. Due to this huge mass, the attraction between the earth and ourselves is so huge as compared to the attraction between two apples. Because the masses of the apple are very small in grams.

Answer:

Natae Si Jordan Kaya Sya Napaihe

Explanation:

haha

Answer:

angular acceleration.

Explanation:

Newton's law of universal gravitation states that the force of attraction (gravity) acting between the Earth and all physical objects is directly proportional to the Earth's mass, directly proportional to the physical object's mass and inversely proportional to the square of the distance separating the Earth's center and that physical object.

Generally, when a rigid body is made to rotate about a fixed axis, all the points in the body would typically have the same angular acceleration, angular displacement, and angular speed.

Answer:

Point C

Explanation:

Greatest Kinetic Energy means lowest potential energy since energy is conserved. Lowest potential energy means lowest height which is at Point C.

Answer:

F = 6666.7 N

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass of a chip, m = 0.1 mg

Initial speed, u = 0

Final speed,[tex]v=4\times 10^{3}\ m/s[/tex]

Time of collision,[tex]t=6\times 10^{-8}\ s[/tex]

We know that,

Force, F = ma

Put all the values,

[tex]F=\dfrac{m(v-u)}{t}\\\\F=\dfrac{0.1\times 10^{-6}\times (4\times 10^3-0)}{6\times 10^{-8}}\\\\F=6666.7\ N[/tex]

So, the required force is 6666.7 N.

Answer:

XL sleep usual Addison officer at home and ear is not a short time to be be free and ear is a short time to make a short time

Explanation:

so that I can take the class on Monday and ear is not a short time to be be free and ear is not a short time to be be free and ear is not a short time to be be free and ear is not a short time to time for a day or night and ear buds is Anshu and duster and duster fgor a day or night is Anshu and duster for a day or not a week of computer science from your computer and I am in the same as I am a short of ti and you can be the first time I will be be