The given statement , known risk factors account for less than half of all newly diagnosed cases of coronary heart disease (chd), suggesting that a number of risk factors have yet to identified is true .
What is meant by coronary heart disease?A condition when the coronary arteries constrict or get blocked (blood vessels that carry blood and oxygen to the heart). Atherosclerosis is typically the cause of coronary heart disease (a buildup of fatty material and plaque inside the coronary arteries).Chest pain, tightness, pressure, and discomfort can all be signs of coronary artery disease (angina) respiration difficulty. Back, neck, jaw, throat, upper belly, or back pain.Although there is no cure for coronary artery disease (CAD), it is treated. This means that after receiving a CAD diagnosis, you must adjust to living with the condition for the rest of your life. You can live a full life despite having CAD by reducing your risk factors and letting go of your fears.Learn more about coronary artery disease refer to :
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Which of the following viral illnesses has become less frequent in the United States because of immunization?
Multiple Choice
hepatitis C
mono
measles
HSV type 1
Measles is a kind of viral illnesses which has become less frequent in the United States because of immunization.
What do you mean by Immunization ?A procedure via which a person receives immunization protection against a disease. This phrase is frequently used synonymously with the words vaccination or inoculation.
Millions of lives are saved annually thanks to vaccination, which is a success story in global health and development. In order to create immunity, vaccines act in conjunction with your body's natural defenses. Your immune system reacts when you receive a vaccination.
Immunizations prevent death. The best approach to prevent you or your child from contracting certain illnesses that can spread to other people is to use them (infectious diseases). And these illnesses frequently have no available medical remedies.
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a committee investigating the impacts of health care reform on the organization is an example of a(n)
One formal group is a committee looking into how the health care reform would affect the company.
A formal group is what?A formal group is one that has been formed to carry out beneficial work for the company. A division, department, work group, or committee are examples of formal groups. It might be either permanent or passing.
What financial effects will the new health care reform law have?A number of payment and delivery system modifications will be made as a result of the health reform legislation introduced in March 2010 in an effort to significantly slow the development of health care costs. Most analyses of the new reform bill have primarily considered its effects on the government budget.
How have the most recent health care reforms altered business procedures?Recent health care reforms have significantly altered market processes by enhancing market approval restrictions, enhancing post-market surveillance, and utilizing comparative effectiveness research.
With the intention of "improving the quality and affordability of health insurance, lowering the uninsured rate by expanding public and private," the health care reform was put into effect.
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a two-factor study with two levels of factor a and three levels of factor b uses a separate group of n
The effect of one independent variable depends on the level of the second independent variable. A two-factor study with two-factor A levels and three-factor B levels uses a separate group of n = 5 participants for each treatment condition.
There is always the possibility of two main effects and one interaction. You can always compare the means of each main effect and interaction. There are key effects or interactions when the appropriate agents are different. They can have different df values, but they all have the same denominator.
The sampled population must be normally or nearly normally distributed. The samples must be independent. The variances of the populations must be equal. If the p-value is less than your significance level you can reject the null hypothesis. The difference between the two variances is statistically significant.
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1. Which of the following is the FIFTH step of CPR?
Call 9-1-1
Check for breathing
Open the victim's airway
Provide mouth-to-mouth breathing
2. Which of the following are the common causes of choking?
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating slowly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing after eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and not drinking before or during meals
3. Which of the following is the correct order when you witness a victim needing CPR?
Check the scene, check the victim, call 911, and start compressions immediately
Check the scene, call 911, check the victim, and start compressions immediately
Call 911, check the scene, check the victim, and start compressions immediately
Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately
4. What is the main function of the circulatory system?
Carbon dioxide leaving the body
Moving blood between the heart and lungs
Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood
Filtering the air as it enters the body
5. Which of the following is the 4th leading cause of injury related deaths?
Car accident
Plane crash
Choking
Falling
6. Which of the following is the SIXTH step of using an AED?
Press the shock button
Attach the AED pads
Open the victim's shirt and wipe the chest dry
Tell everyone to "stand clear"
7. To administer back blows, what position should the person be in?
Bent forward at the waist
Standing straight up
Bent forward at the knees
Laying down
8. Which part of your hand should be used to administer back blows?
Fist
Heel
Palm
Wrist
9. At what rate per minute should compressions be administered?
100
150
200
250
10. Which of the following makes up 1 CPR Cycle?
30 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths
30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
100 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
100 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths
11. Which of the following is the lower respiratory system responsible for?
Secreting a mucus that filters, warms, and cleanses the air
Heart getting blood out to every cell in the body
Getting oxygen to the cells of the body
Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood
12. When using an AED, after the shock is delivered when should CPR resume?
Wait 30 seconds
Wait 1 minutes
Immediately
Do not continue CPR
13. Which of the following are considered to be signs of a heart attack?
Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the jaw, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the abdomen, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the abdomen, and pain when swallowing
14. When possible, what is the preferred method of CPR?
Compression-only
Single-person
Two-person
Rescue-breath-only
15. Compression-only CPR should only be used on which of the following types of victims?
Under the age of 8
Victims you witness collapse
Victims you do not witness collapse
Collapsed from choking
This prompt has to do with the biological systems related to Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
1) The FIFTH step of CPR is: Open the victim's airway (Option 3)
2) The common causes of choking are: "eating too quickly" and "laughing while eating" (Option B and C)
3) The correct order when you witness a person who needs CPR is "Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately" (Option D)
4) The main function of the circulatory system is: "Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood" (Option C)
5) The 4th leading cause of injury-related deaths is falling (Option D)
6) The SIXTH step of using an AED is: "Tell everyone to "stand clear" (Option D)
7) To administer back blows, the position the person should be in is: " Standing straight up" (Option B)
8) The part of your hand should be used to administer back blows is: "palm" (Option C)
9) The rate per minute at which compressions be administered is: 100 compressions minute (Option A)
10) One CPR cycle is given as "30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths" (Option B)
11) The lower respiratory system is responsible for "Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood" (Option C)
12) When using an AED, after the shock is delivered CPR resume immediately (Option C)
13) The option that is considered to be signs of a heart attack are: "Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain" (Option A)
14) When possible, the preferred method of CPR is: "Compression-only" (Option A)
15) Compression-only CPR should only be used on: "Victims you witness collapse" (Option B)
What is Cardiopulmonary resuscitation?Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency procedure that combines chest compressions with artificial ventilation in an attempt to manually preserve intact cognitive abilities until further measures are taken to restore sudden blood circulation and breathing in a person who has gone into cardiac arrest.
CPR, especially if given soon after a cardiac arrest, has been shown to increase or triple a person's chances of survival. Approximately 90% of persons who have an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest die.
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Diabetes and hypertension two most common causes of chronic __________ in united states.
Diabetes and hypertension two most common causes of renal failure disease in the united states.
Too much glucose, also known as sugar, in your blood, damages your kidneys’ filters. over the years, your kidneys can come to be so damaged that they do not do an excellent process of filtering wastes and extra fluid from your blood. Often, the primary signal of kidney disorder from diabetes is a protein in your urine.
Excessive blood strain, additionally known as high blood pressure, is a blood strain this is better than regular. Your blood strain changes all through the day primarily based on your activities. Having blood strain measures consistently above normal can also result in a prognosis of excessive blood strain (or hypertension).
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a postpartum woman has been unable to urinate since giving birth. when the nurse is assessing the woman, which finding would indicate that this client is experiencing bladder distention?
Uterus is marshy. -A swollen bladder can be felt as a spherical lump and is dull to the touch. In addition, the uterus would be boggy and lochia would be more than usual.
When assessing a postpartum patient for urinary retention What signs and symptoms the nurse could observe?Uncomfortable stomach. bladder swollen. urine output decreased (less than 30 ml/hr) or missing for two hours in a row. Frequency.Women should have a lochia discharge following birth. Absence of flow is unusual and indicates dehydration brought on by an illness and a fever.Mastitis, which requires medical treatment, might be indicated by a swollen, sensitive region on the breast.Your ability to urinate may also be hampered by temporary swelling following delivery. After peeing, urine that is still in the bladder might expand the bladder. The muscles of the bladder may also suffer harm. This may result in bladder damage that is permanent.To learn more about postpartum woman refer to:
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dietary recommendations for individuals trying to gain weight as muscle include which of the following?
Individuals must choose nutrient rich foods if they are trying to gain weight as muscle.
What should be the dietary recommendations for muscle weight gain?It's crucial to keep in mind that weight-gain diets do not call for eating processed foods, foods loaded in fat or sugar, or items like wings, hamburgers, chips, or soda.
The dietary recommendations should be-
Increase the consumption of meats, poultry, and fish (sources of high quality protein), 1% milk instead of 2%, and whole grain foods (pasta, rice, potatoes), to other food exchanges, add fruit (apricots and pineapples are examples of good snacks), fresh vegetables (broccoli and cauliflower), milk is a calorie-dense healthy beverage, and saturated fats should be limited but not entirely avoided. eat three meals that are balanced and two to three snacks each day.
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Stella has been diagnosed with panic disorder and refuses to leave her home without her husband. She fears any situation in which she cannot escape or find help when a panic attack would strike. Stella suffers not only from panic disorder, but also from _____.
Please type the correct answer in the following input field, and then select the submit answer button or press the enter key when finished.
agoraphobia
Stella suffers not only from panic disorder, but also from agoraphobia as fears any situation in which she cannot escape or find help when a panic attack would strike.
A panic attack is a sudden episode of intense concern that triggers severe physical reactions once there's no real danger or apparent cause. Panic attacks is terribly horrifying. Once panic attacks occur, you would possibly suppose you are losing management, having a attack or perhaps dying.
Agoraphobia is a mental disorder that always develops when one or additional panic attacks. Symptoms embrace concern and rejection of places and things that may cause feelings of panic, entrapment, helplessness or embarrassment. Treatments embrace speak medical aid and medicine.
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why do people drink alcohol?how do they become alcoholic
The reason why people become alcoholics is that they are simply addicted to the taste. Drinking alcohol can also be a coping mechanism for some people. They may be depressed or have low self-esteem and drinking is a way to escape reality.
Dex's addiction to drugs is affecting his job. He has been written up twice, lately, for missing shifts at work. Dex's case illustrates the _____ associated with abnormal behavior.
Dex's addiction to drugs is affecting his job. He has been written up twice lately, for missing shifts at work. Dex's case illustrates the distress associated with abnormal behavior.
Comorbidity is when two or more mental disorders occur in the same person at the same time. Most psychologists agree that mental health problems are caused by a combination of biology and environment.
I'm trying to explain how to interact with Psychologists who often classify behavior as abnormal using her four Des deviations distress dysfunction and danger. A simple definition of anomaly is difficult because it is relative but the definition has some important characteristics.
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During her hospitalization for pneumonia, the provider orders arterial blood gases for Mona Hernandez. What is the best explanation for why this is ordered?
Measuring cerebral blood volume is a method used to infer the existence of neurogenesis in humans. Cerebral blood volume in the subiculum significantly increases following an exercise intervention.a. True b. False
It is true that ceasuring cerebral blood volume is a method used to infer the existence of neurogenesis in humans and cerebral blood volume in the subiculum significantly increases following an exercise intervention.
Neurogenesis is that the formation of neurons First State novo—the hallmark of a developing brain. there's substantial hippocampal growth in adult humans, however humans seem distinctive among mammals therein there's no detectable neural structure growth however continuous addition of recent neurons within the striate body.
The subiculum is a important structure positioned between the hippocampus correct and entorhinal and different cortices, in addition as a spread of neural structure structures. it's an under-investigated region that plays a key role within the mediation of hippocampal-cortical interaction.
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Approximately how many sexually active teens will contract a STI before graduating from high school
One out of every three
One out of every five
One out of every seven
One out of every ten
O
5 points
Answer:
Approximately one out of every three sexually active teens will contract an STI before graduating from high school.
Explanation:
.
which statement about the prevalence rate of asd is true?
Answer:
People with ASD often have problems with social communication and interaction, and restricted or repetitive behaviors or interests. People with ASD may also have different ways of learning, moving, or paying attention. It is important to note that some people without ASD might also have some of these
The nurse is providing education on the prevention of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) to clients. The nurse understands which client is at the highest risk of contracting an STI?
a. A 30-year-old client who consumes alcohol multiple times per week, uses cocaine, and has a history of prostitution.
b. A 20-year-old client who reports having protected sexual intercourse with three others, male and female, over the past five years.
c. A 25-year-old client who refused to receive the human papillomavirus vaccine and whose parents both have HIV.
d. A 17-year-old client who is in a monogamous relationship with a 25-year-old partner and engages in unprotected sex.
The nurse is educated regarding the transmission of STIs, and she knows that her 30-year-old client consumes alcohol multiple times per week, uses cocaine, and has a history of prostitution. Option A is the correct answer as this person has a high risk of an STI.
What is the STI and what are its consequences?STIs can infect people who have a genetic history of any STD (sexually transmitted disease) or are in an unprotected physical relationship. Here, the 30-year-old client has a history of prostitution that shows he is at high risk for STIs. The 17-year-old client is monogamous, and nothing is mentioned about the chance of an STI, so this person has a low chance. A 25-year-old client has HIV parents, but it is not clear that both parents are HIV positive, and further, this client has not been in any unsafe physical relationships, so he cannot be infected.
Hence, the answer is option A, which is the 30-year-old client with a history of prostitution.
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Which statement is true about people with bulimia nervosa?
a) they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging
b) they show signs of extreme weight loss
c) they live in a state of semistarvation
d) they experience bone loss and amenorrhea
The statement that is true about people with bulimia nervosa is that they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging.
So option A is correct.
What is bulimia nervosa?Bulimia nervosa is described as an emotional disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an obsessive desire to lose weight, in which bouts of extreme overeating are followed by fasting or self-induced vomiting or purging.
So from the description of bulimia nervosa, we can conclude from the options given that the correct statement is Option A ( they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging).
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Telemedicine videoconference tapes are
Telemedicine videoconference tapes are covered by HIPAA Security Rule if they are not erased after the physician's report is signed.
What is telemedicine?Using electronic information and technology, including as computers, cameras, videoconferencing, satellites, wireless communications, and the Internet, to provide healthcare remotely. also known as telemedicine.
Examples of telemedicine include the digital transmission of medical imaging, remote medical diagnosis and evaluations, and video consultations with professionals.
Telemedicine can improve the effectiveness of healthcare delivery, cut costs associated with patient care or patient transportation, and possibly help patients avoid the hospital. In fact, a research found that the cost of telemedicine care was 19 percent lower than that of inpatient care.
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areas with little access to healthy foods are called: group of answer choices nutrition outlets safe food havens fresh food oasis food deserts
According to the latest data, among children under 3 years of age, the most common food allergy is to?.
The most frequent triggers of food allergies in kids are eggs, milk, and peanuts, with wheat, soy, and tree nuts all making the list.
What is a food allergy?When the body's immune system, which typically fights illnesses, perceives food as an invasion, a food allergy results. There is an allergic response as a result.
A person with a food allergy is always at risk for the subsequent response to be fatal, even if earlier reactions have been minor. Therefore, anyone who has a food allergy must completely avoid the offending food(s) and always carry injectable epinephrine for emergencies.
Food allergies can cause cramping, vomiting, diarrhea, hives, swelling, dermatitis, itching, trouble breathing, asthma, and low blood pressure, among other symptoms. Colic, blood in your child's stool, and slow growth are just a few signs that your child may be allergic to milk or soy.
Therefore, the most common causes of food allergies in children are eggs and milk.
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In research on burnout, ____________ is the development of a cynical and callous feeling toward others.sociopathologyreduced personal accomplishmentemotional exhaustiondepersonalization
In research on burnout, depersonalization is the development of a cynical and callous feeling toward others.
What is depersonalization ?Depersonalization is only a sign of an underlying illness when feelings become excessive, consume one's life, and interfere with daily activities. Depersonalization might be normal. Persistently having the impression that one is looking in on oneself from outside of their body or that their surroundings aren't genuine.A temporary depersonalization or derealization experience is something that many people at some point go through. However, when these symptoms continue or never completely go away and interfere with your ability to function, depersonalization-derealization disorder results.The severity of depersonalization-derealization disorder can affect relationships, employment, and other daily activities. Talk therapy is the major form of treatment for depersonalization-derealization condition, while occasionally medicines are also utilized.To learn more about depersonalization refer :
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What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in sleep? a. It induces REM sleep every 90 minutes. b. It causes the pineal gland to increase the production of melatonin. c. It causes the pituitary gland to increase the release of human growth hormone. d. It causes the pituitary gland to decrease the release of human growth hormone. e. It causes the pineal gland to decrease the production of melatonin.
Suprachiasmatic nucleus causes the pineal gland to decrease the production of melatonin in sleep.
What is Suprachiasmatic nucleus?
By controlling daily oscillations of the internal milieu and synchronizing them to the varying cycles of day and night and of body state, the small suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus plays a crucial role in the daily programming of organismic activities.
When exposed to light, SCN neurons have a prolonged response, which persists even after the light source has been offset. Previous light exposures had little impact on these slow responses. Neurons also react quickly and excitatorily while ON and frequently when OFF, which can be either excitatory or inhibitory.
Therefore, Option E is correct.
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contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles to ease pain is called: ________
Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles to ease pain is called stomach spasms.
What are stomach spasms?Your stomach, intestines, or abdominal muscles can constrict during a stomach spasm. It may feel like a tiny muscle twitch or stomach cramps, depending on which area of your body is spasming and how severely.
The majority of the time, stomach spasms are not dangerous in and of itself, but they may be a sign of something worse. For more information on the causes of stomach spasms and when to call your doctor, continue reading.
What are other treatment?Gas, dehydration, and muscle strain can all lead to stomach spasms that can typically be managed at home. Treatment from a doctor is typically necessary for other disorders or severe stomach spasms.
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A nurse is preparing to administer dabigatran to a client who has atrial fibrillation. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this medication is which of the following?
a. to convert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
b. to dissolve clots in the bloodstream
c. to slow the response of the ventricles to the fast atrial impulses
d. to reduce the risk of stroke in clients who have atrial fibrillation.
The purpose of dagigatran is to dissolve clots in the bloodstream
B. to dissolve clots in the bloodstream
What is dabigatran?Dabigatran, or Pradaxa , is an anticoagulant used to treat and prevent stroke and blood clots to prevent in people with atrial fibrillation. Specifically it is used to prevent blood clots following hip. It is used to warfarin and does not require monitoring by blood tests. It is taken by mouth.
Common side effects is bleeding and gastritis. Other side effects may include bleeding around the allergic reaction and spine such as anaphylaxis. In cases of severe bleeding, it can be reversed with the antidote, idarucizumab. Use is not recommended breastfeeding or during pregnancy. Compared to warfarin it has fewer interactions with other medications. It is a direct thrombin inhibitor.
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Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with renal failure?
a) Increased red blood cell count
b) Decreased serum potassium level
c) Increased serum calcium level
d) Increased serum creatinine level
The nurse expect to find increased serum creatinine level when reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with renal failure.
Why is serum creatinine level determined in renal failure?BUN, creatinine, potassium, magnesium, and phosphorus levels are elevated in renal failure, according to laboratory blood testing. The calcium level is low. Hematocrit, RBC count, and hemoglobin are all lowered.It's not uncommon to measure the creatinine levels during a 24-hour period. One requires to gather all of their pee during that time and present it to your physician. The amount of creatinine in your urine will be measured by the lab, and the levels in your blood will be contrasted. This demonstrates to your doctor the amount of waste being eliminated from your body as well as the health of your kidneys.What is renal failure ?Renal failure results from the kidneys' inability to remove waste from the bloodstream.Your kidneys are one of your body's two blood filters. If they weren't working properly, your blood would be contaminated and infected with hazardous substances, which might make you feel sick or even kill you.The malfunction of your body's blood filter is referred to in medicine as renal failure; the prefix "reno-" stands for kidney.Can learn more about renal failure from https://brainly.com/question/28788006
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select all that apply choose all that are the effects of the sympathetic division on the eye. multiple select question. pupillary dilation contraction of the ciliary muscle and lens for near vision secretion of tears from the lacrimal gland pupillary constriction relaxation of the ciliary muscle and lens for far vision
The effects of the sympathetic division on the eye include the following below:
Relaxation of the ciliary muscle and lens for far vision.Pupillary dilation.What is Sympathetic division?This is referred to as a division of the autonomic nervous system that functions to produce localized adjustments and reflex adjustments of the cardiovascular system.
This is present in the eyes and it ensures that there is relaxation of the ciliary muscle and lens for far vision to ensure that the individual is able to cater for him or herself by the object or substance appearing more enhanced ehen viewed by the eyes.
There is also the dilation of the pupil such as when in a dark room so as to enhance vision thereby making it and the aforementioned above the correct set of choices.
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Put the Following Steps of a Lifeguard Rotation in the Proper Order
The steps for a Lifeguard Rotation in the Proper Order are:
Incoming Lifeguard (LG1) performs a proactive scan confirming all is clear before taking over the position.LG1 reports to outgoing lifeguard that all is clear before taking over the position.Equipment is exchanged as lifeguards change position.Once the position change is complete, both lifeguards scan the zone.Outgoing lifeguard performs a proactive bottom scan confirming all clear before moving to the next station.What are the steps for a Lifeguard Rotation?When there is a Lifeguard Rotation to happen, the incoming lifeguard performs a proactive scan to familiarize themselves with the zone and then confirm that all is clear before they take over the position.
Then the incoming guard will report that all is clear (if it is clear) and then takes over position while the equipment between the lifeguards is exchanged.
Once the incoming lifeguard is positioned, then the two lifeguards carry out another scan. Finally, as the outgoing lifeguard leaves, they will perform a bottom scan to ensure that all is clear and then they move to another station.
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a client with an inoperable cancwe of the head of the pancreas involving the common l=bile duct
A T-tube drains by gravity into small collection bag; the right side lying or semi-Fowler position enhances gravity drainage.
What is common bile duct?
It is tube that carries bile from liver and gallbladder, through the pancreas, and into the small intestine.
The common bile duct starts where ducts from the liver and gallbladder join and ends at the small intestine.What is semi- fowler position?
The semi-Fowler position, defined as body position at 30° head-of-bed elevation, has been shown to be beneficial in increasing intra-abdominal pressure
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Which is a factor that acts as a barrier to making healthy decisions about relationships and sexual health?
a lack of knowledge
many structured activities
having a lot of information
no need for parental consent to receive some medical services
Answer:
Explanation:
stay up on your health mind body and soul. self love read research
Answer: A
Explanation:
what does the advent of behavioral modernity refer to
Answer: The biological transition is when hominids became hominins.
Explanation: A period when early anatomically modern humans became fully human in symbolic thought and elaboration in cultural creativity.
The advent of behavioral modernity refer to biological transition.
What do you mean by biological transition?The biological transition include the intrauterine and neonatal periods; puberty, including both adrenarche and gonadarche; pregnancy and the postpartum period; and the perimenopausal and menopausal periods.
The stages are shock, anger, acceptance and commitment. People's initial reaction to the change will likely be shock or denial as they refuse to accept that change is happening. Once the reality sinks in and people accept the change is happening, they tend to react negatively.
Transitions signal relationships between ideas—relationships such as: “Another example coming up—stay alert!” or “Here's an exception to my previous statement” or “Although this idea appears to be true, here's the real story.”
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A medical student makes a transverse cut of a cadaver's leg. The two resulting sections could be referred to as the superior and inferior sections anterior and posterior sections left and right sections frontal and sagittal sections.
A medical student makes a transverse cut of a cadaver's leg. The two resulting sections could be referred to as the superior and inferior sections.
A cadaver, also called a corpse, is a deceased person's body that is used by medical professionals, students, and other researchers to study anatomy, locate illness areas, ascertain the causes of death, and provide tissue for repairing defects in living people. In order to further their studies, medical school students study and dissect corpses. Archaeologists and art students are among the other people who study cadavers.
When referring to body components that are at one end of the body, the terms superior and inferior sections (cranial and caudal) are employed. The head (cranial) is where superior structures are located, while the feet are where inferior (caudal) structures are located. makes a distinction between the superior (upper) and inferior sections (lower) parts of the body. plane of sagittal. horizontal line that separates the body's right and left sides.
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