Larry is making a model of the Solar System. What objects will Larry need to put in his model of the Solar System? Name three types of objects. Describe where Larry should place Earth within the Solar System. es ) your answer below:​

Answer:

Option C

Explanation:

Options for the question are as follows -

A. At a faucet close to entrance valve

B. At a faucet away from the entrance valve

C. It will be the same at all faucets

D. There will be no increase in the pressure at the faucets

Solution -

The static force will be the same at all faucets and also the area of the faucets be same.

Thus, the pressure created at all faucets will be the same.

Thus, option C is correct

Answer:

The equation says that due to variation in temperature is

delt T = .59 m/s / C = 16 C * .59 m/s = 9.44 m/s

So v = 332 m/s + 9.44 m/s = 341 m/s (to three significant figures)

Answer:

[tex]\lambda_s =6.43*10^-4m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Diffraction grating [tex]N=1250slits/cm[/tex]

Distance b/w Screen and grating length [tex]d_{sg}=17.5 cm[/tex]

Distance b/w neighboring maxima and Screen [tex]d_{ms}=8.44[/tex]

Generally the equation for grating space is mathematically given by

[tex]d(g)=\frac{1}{N}[/tex]

[tex]d(g)=\frac{100}{1250}[/tex]

[tex]d(g)=0.08[/tex]

Generally the equation for small angle approximation is mathematically given by

[tex]\triangle y=\frac{\lambda d}{L}[/tex]

Therefore for longest wavelength

[tex]\lambda _l=\frac{8.44*10^{-3}*(0.08)}{0.175m}[/tex]

[tex]\lambda _l=3.858*10^{-3}[/tex]

Therefore the third order maximum equation for the shorter wavelength as

[tex]\lambda_s =\frac{1}{6} \lambda_l[/tex]

[tex]\lambda_s =\frac{1}{6} (3.858*10^-^3)[/tex]

[tex]\lambda_s =6.43*10^-4m[/tex]

The wavelengths in the light is given as

[tex]\lambda_s =6.43*10^-4m[/tex]

Explanation:

mass, m = 5kg

initial velocity, u = 16m/s

final velocuty, v = -22m/s

change in momentum, ∆p = ?

∆p = m (v-u)

5(-22-16)

5(38)

∆p = 190kgm/s

check the calculations!

A 4.0 kg block is moving at 5.0 m/s along a horizontal frictionless surface toward an ideal spring that is attached to a wall, the maximum speed of the block when the spring is compressed to one-half of the maximum distance is 4.33 m/s

From the conservation of energy; the kinetic energy of the mass is equal to the work done on the spring.

i.e.

[tex]\mathbf{\dfrac{1}{2} mv^2 = \dfrac{1}{2}kx^2_{max}}[/tex]

Given that:

∴

From the equation above, multiplying both sides with 2, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{mv^2 =kx^2_{max}}[/tex]

Making (k) the subject of the formula;

[tex]\mathbf{k = \dfrac{mv^2}{x^2_{max}}}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{k = \dfrac{4 \times 5^2}{0.68^2}}[/tex]

k = 216.26 N/m

However, when compressed to one-half of the maximum distance; the speed is computed as follows:

x = 0.68/2 = 0.34 m

∴

[tex]\mathbf{\dfrac{1}{2}mv_o^2 - \dfrac{1}{2}mv^2 = \dfrac{1}{2}kx^2}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{m(v_o^2 -v^2) =kx^2}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{(v_o^2 -v^2) =\dfrac{kx^2}{m}}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{(5^2 -v^2) =\dfrac{216.26 \times 0.34^2}{4.0}}[/tex]

25 - v² = 6.25

25 -6.25 = v²

v² = 18.75

[tex]\mathbf{ v= \sqrt{18.75 }}[/tex]

v = 4.33 m/s

Therefore, we can conclude that the speed of the block when the spring is compressed to only one-half of the maximum distance is 4.33 m/s

Learn more about speed here:

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Answer:

A. The water

Explanation:

i got it right on A-P-E-X

Answer:

[tex]5.76\times 10^{-18}\ \text{N}[/tex] perpendicular to the velocity and magnetic field

Explanation:

B = Magnetic field = [tex]4\times 10^{-5}\ \text{T}[/tex]

[tex]\theta[/tex] = Angle the magnetic field makes with the horizontal = [tex]30^{\circ}[/tex]

v = Velocity of electron = [tex]9\times 10^5\ \text{m/s}[/tex]

q = Charge of electron = [tex]1.6\times 10^{-19}\ \text{C}[/tex]

Magnetic force is given by

[tex]F=qvB\sin\theta\\\Rightarrow F=1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 9\times 10^5\times 4\times 10^{-5}\sin30^{\circ}\\\Rightarrow F=2.88\times 10^{-18}\ \text{N}[/tex]

The magnitude of the magnetic force is [tex]2.88\times 10^{-18}\ \text{N}[/tex] and the direction is perpendicular to the velocity and magnetic field.

The final angular velocity of the carnival ride at a displacement of 6.3 rad is 25.2 rad/s.

The final angular velocity of the carnival ride is determined by applying third kinematic equation as shown below;

ωf = ωi + 2αθ

where;

ωf = 0 + 2(2.0) x 6.3

ωf = 25.2 rad/s

Thus, the final angular velocity of the carnival ride at a displacement of 6.3 rad is 25.2 rad/s.

​

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Answer: 5.0 rad/s

Explanation: Because that’s what khan said so try it out.

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The Sun rotates in this same, right-hand-rule direction. All planetary orbits lie in nearly the same plane. All planetary orbits are nearly circular (eccentricity near zero).

Rate as Brainliest please

Answer:

a = 52s²

Explanation:

How to find acceleration

Acceleration (a) is the change in velocity (Δv) over the change in time (Δt), represented by the equation a = Δv/Δt. This allows you to measure how fast velocity changes in meters per second squared (m/s^2). Acceleration is also a vector quantity, so it includes both magnitude and direction.

Solve

We know initial velocity (u = 16), velocity (v = 120) and acceleration (a = ?)

We first need to solve the velocity equation for time (t):

v = u + at

v - u = at

(v - u)/a = t

Plugging in the known values we get,

t = (v - u)/a

t = (16 m/s - 120 m/s) -2/s2

t = -104 m/s / -2 m/s2

t = 52 s

Answer:

1 and 3

Explanation:

because they are going up from 0

Answer: A

Explanation:

Because someone who is aggressive, stubborn, or proud of theirselves are more likely to think they're above everyone else and be a bully. However someone who is willing to compromise is better since you can generally make everyone happy that way

HOPE THIS HELPS ^^

Answer:

We apply an electric field in the negative y direction

Explanation:

Since A uniform magnetic field is in the positive z direction and A positively charged particle is moving in the positive x direction through the field, the magnetic force acting on the positively charged particle is in the positive y direction according to Fleming's right-hand rule.

For the net force on the particle to be zero, we apply an electric field in the negative y direction to create an electric force on the positively charged particle, so as to cancel out the magnetic force.

Answer:

well in the pot there is conventional heat, the pot itself is giving off conductable heat, and the radiational heat is coming from the stove.

Answer:

[tex]3.49\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega\text{m}[/tex]

Explanation:

r = Radius = [tex]\dfrac{2}{2}=1\ \text{mm}[/tex]

B = Magnetic field = 3 mT

1 mm = Distance from the surface of the wire

V = Voltage

x = Distance from the probe = [tex]r+1=1+1=2\ \text{mm}[/tex]

R = Resistance

L = Length of wire = 4.5 m

Magnetic field is given by

[tex]B=\dfrac{\mu_0I}{2\pi x}\\\Rightarrow I=\dfrac{B2\pi x}{\mu_0}\\\Rightarrow I=\dfrac{3\times 10^{-3}\times 2\times \pi 2\times 10^{-3}}{4\pi 10^{-7}}\\\Rightarrow I=30\ \text{A}[/tex]

Voltage is given by

[tex]V=IR\\\Rightarrow R=\dfrac{V}{I}\\\Rightarrow R=\dfrac{1.5}{30}\\\Rightarrow R=0.05\ \Omega[/tex]

Resistivity is given by

[tex]\rho=\dfrac{RA}{L}\\\Rightarrow \rho=\dfrac{0.05\times \pi (1\times 10^{-3})^2}{4.5}\\\Rightarrow \rho=3.49\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega\text{m}[/tex]

The resistivity of the material is [tex]3.49\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega\text{m}[/tex].

Answer:

W = 1.875 J

Explanation:

For this exercise let's use the relationship between work and kinetic energy

          W = ΔK

The kinetic energy of rotational motion is

         K₀ = ½ I w²

we can assume that the box is small, so it can be treated as a point object, with moment of inertia

          I = m rₐ²

angular and linear velocity are related

          v = w r

          w = v / r

we substitute in the equation, for point A

         K₀ = ½ (m rₐ²) (v / rₐ)²

         K₀ = ½ m v²

For the final point B, as the system is isolated the angular momentum is conserved

initial        L₀ = Io wo

final          L_f = I_f w_f

                L₀ = L_f

                 I₀ w₀ = I_f w_f

                (m rₐ²) w₀ = (m  [tex]r_{b} ^2[/tex]) w_f

                 w_f = (rₐ/r_b)² w₀

with this value we find the final kinetic energy

         K_f = ½ I_f w_f²

         K_f = ½ (m [tex]r_{b}^2[/tex]) ( (rₐ / r_b)²  w₀) ²

         K_f = ½ m [tex]\frac{r_a^4}{r_b^2} \ w_o^2[/tex]

we substitute in the realcion of work

          W = K_f - K₀

          W = ½ m  [tex]( \( \frac {r_a^2 }{r_b} )^2[/tex] w₀² - ½ m v²

          W = ½ m  [tex]\frac{r_a^4}{r_b^2} ( \frac{v}{r_a} ) ^2[/tex] - ½ m v²

           W = ½ m [tex]\frac{r_a^2}{r_b^2} \ v^2[/tex] - ½ m v2

          W = ½ m v² (([tex]( \ (\frac{r_a}{r_b})^2 -1)[/tex]

let's calculate

           W = ½ ( [tex]\frac{8}{32}[/tex] ) 5 ((2/1)² -1)

           W = 0.625 (3)

           W = 1.875 J

Answer:

I'd say D

Explanation:

because not all weather happens within the atmosphere, and most weather depends on region (lile if your near the equator or not)

Answer:

work done by friction = 5889 J

Explanation:

We are given;

Mass of car; m = 130 kg

Speed at point A; v1 = 25 m/s

Speed at point B: v2 = 8 m/s

Since radius is 12 m

At point A, distance is; y1 = 12 m

At point B, distance is; y2 = -12 m

Now, formula for work done by all the forces is given by the equation;

Total work;

W_gravity + W_others = K2 - K1

Where W_others is work done by other forces which is equal to work done by friction

Where K2 - K1 is change in kinetic energy.

W_grav is also change in potential energy and is expressed as;

W_grav = mgy1 - mgy2

K2 - K1 = ½m(v1)² - ½m(v2)²

Thus;

mgy1 - mgy2 + W_others = ½m(v1)² - ½m(v2)²

Making W_others the subject;

W_others = ½m(v1)² - ½m(v2)² + mgy2 - mgy1

Plugging in the relevant values;

W_others = (½ × 130 × 25²) - (½ × 130 × 8²) + (130 × 9.8 × -12) - (130 × 9.8 × 12)

W_others = 5889 J

Recall that I earlier said W_others = work done by friction.

Thus, work done by friction = 5889 J

Answer:

8 kV

Explanation:

Here is the complete question

Assume a device is designed to obtain a large potential difference by first charging a bank of capacitors connected in parallel and then activating a switch arrangement that in effect disconnects the capacitors from the charging source and from each other and reconnects them all in a series arrangement. The group of charged capacitors is then discharged in series. What is the maximum potential difference that can be obtained in this manner by using ten 500 μF capacitors and an 800−V charging source?

Solution

Since the capacitors are initially connected in parallel, the same voltage of 800 V is applied to each capacitor. The charge on each capacitor Q = CV where C = capacitance = 500 μF and V = voltage = 800 V

So, Q = CV

= 500 × 10⁻⁶ F × 800 V

= 400000 × 10⁻⁶ C

= 0.4 C

Now, when the capacitors are connected in series and the voltage disconnected, the voltage across is capacitor is gotten from Q = CV

V = Q/C

= 0.4 C/500 × 10⁻⁶ F

= 0.0008 × 10⁶ V

= 800 V

The total voltage obtained across the ten capacitors is thus V' = 10V (the voltages are summed up since the capacitors are in series)

= 10 × 800 V

= 8000 V

= 8 kV

Answer:

Explained below.

Explanation:

We are told that the surface material is ejected into space at a high speed. This means that it will have a likely high momentum as well.

Now, we can say that the total momentum is conserved because the entire asteroid system behaves like an isolated system.

Also, as the surface material is moving with the high momentum like we established earlier, it will cause the asteroid to move with a speed in an opposite direction which also means deflection in an opposite direction.

Answer:

Explained below.

Explanation:

The material ejected from the surface of the asteroid would have a significant momentum. Since the asteroid and all its material is an isolated system, the ejection would cause an oppositely directed change in momentum of the asteroid, according to the law of conservation of momentum.

The ejected material is analogous to gases expelled from a rocket, and the asteroid is analogous to a rocket.

Find how much work ∆W is done by the motor in lifting the elevator:

P = ∆W / ∆t

where

• P = 45.0 kW = power provided by the motor

• ∆W = work done

• ∆t = 20.0 s = duration of time

Solve for ∆W :

∆W = P ∆t = (45.0 kW) (20.0 s) = 900 kJ

In other words, it requires 900 kJ of energy to lift the elevator and its passengers. The combined mass of the system is M = (m + 490.0) kg, where m is the mass of the elevator alone. Then

∆W = M g h

where

• g = 9.80 m/s² = acceleration due to gravity

• h = 35.0 m = distance covered by the elevator

Solve for M, then for m :

M = ∆W / (g h) = (900 kJ) / ((9.80 m/s²) (35.0 m)) ≈ 2623.91 kg

m = M - 490.0 kg ≈ 2133.91 kg ≈ 2130 kg

Answer:

a). Single replacement.

Explanation:

Because one element replaces another element in a compound

Answer:

I dont know sorry

Explanation:

hehe

Answer:

The Solar System has plants? I assume you meant planets. If so, that is false

Explanation:

Answer:

I guess it is kinetic energy

Answer:

kinetic energy because my dog told me

Answer:

B. it increases

Explanation:

As shown in the table provided, the speed of sound in water (1493 m/s) is greater than the speed of sound in air (346 m/s).

Answer:

B is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Answer:

I know you said not to do this but I am doing a challenge and You asked this an hour ago. PLS DON'T REPORT ME.

Explanation: Sorry