Lynn suffers from frequent seizures, and doctors suspect that they might be occurring because of unusually high levels of which neurotransmitter?

Answers

Answer 1
GABA...
“GABA is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, which means it decreases the neuron's action potential. When the action potential drops below a certain level, known as the threshold potential, the neuron will not generate action potentials and thus not excite nearby neurons.”

Related Questions

g what constitutes a healthy or normal bmi? what are some of the reasons it is useful to have a single number, such as a bmi, to describe a height/weight relationship? what are the drawbacks?

Answers

Answer:

BMI is the shortened form for Body Mass Index.

The Body Mass Index is a simple arithmetic for determining one's body fat using their height and weight.    

The formula is given as

 

[tex]\frac{Weight (Kilograms)}{Height (Metres)}[/tex] or

[tex](\frac{Weight (Pounds)}{Height (Inches}) * 703[/tex]

If an adults BMI falls within the 18.5 to 24.9 range, it is considered healthy.

One of the benefits of using BMI as a health metric is that it is so easy to compute.

Its major disadvantage is that it only accounts for height and weight which can be altered by a variety of circumstances and as such in most cases are not the best indicators of whether or not, one if healthy.

For example, a higher muscle mass will mean more weight and as such, a higher BMI. Generally speaking, more muscle and less fat is healthy. So BMI, in this case, is useless as a metric of health status.

Other factors which alter the reading of BMI are: Gender, Frame Size, Age,

Pregnancy etc.

An individual who is very muscular, pregnant, or have a large frame, will most likely have a higher BMI calculation which may indicate that one is obese or overweight when they're not.

Cheers!

Which method of collecting a dietary history is the most time-consuming and requires a high degree of motivation to complete

Answers

Questions

Which of the following methods of collecting a dietary history is the most  

time-consuming and requires a high degree of motivation to complete?  

A) food record  

B) food frequency questionnaire

C) direct observation  

D) 24-hour food recall

Answer:

The correct answer is A) Food Record.

Explanation:

The diet history refers to the historical assessment of an individuals food or dietary intake. It may detail the foods eaten over a 24 hour period, a month or a year.

Dietary History are important as they help to ascertain

whether or not the subject is pre-disposed to malnutrition, determine if there are habits which may lead to obesity, anda dietary combination which will help prevent diseases

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I. Stress incontinence is
(A) Involuntary voiding from a sudden urge to void
(B) The loss of urine due to an increase in intra-
abdominal pressure, such as from sneezing or
coughing
(C) Involuntary voiding when a specific blad- der
volume is reached
(D) The loss of urine due to overflow or over-
distention of the bladder

Answers

B if you put stress on your bladder it leaks urine not due to psychological stress

I drank ammonia what can I do ?

Answers

if you have something like vomiting, convulsions, or a decreased level of alertness do not drink water or anything. it makes it hard to shallow.

Strength tests on four batches of concrete show them to fail at 81, 78, 86, and 95 ksi. The standard deviation of this sample is most nearly:

Answers

Answer:

The standard deviation of this sample is 7.438

Explanation:

We are given that Strength tests on four batches of concrete show them to fail at 81, 78, 86, and 95 ksi.

Data: 81, 78, 86, and 95

We are supposed to find standard deviation of this sample

Formula :[tex]\sqrt{\frac{(x-\bar{x})^2}{n-1}}[/tex]

n = 4

[tex]\bar x=\frac{81+78+86+95}{4}=85[/tex]

Substitute the values in the formula :

Standard deviation=[tex]\sqrt{\frac{(81-85)^2+(78-85)^2+(86-85)^2+(95-85)^2}{4-1}}[/tex]

Standard deviation=7.438

Hence The standard deviation of this sample is 7.438

A nurse wants to become part of a Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT) but is concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states. What statement by the nursing supervisor best addresses these concerns?

Answers

Answer: a. "Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states."

Explanation:

Disaster Medical Assistance Teams are teams consisting of professionals and para-professionals in the medical profession who are called upon during matters of National Emergency when medical personnel are needed to respond rapidly to save lives. They therefore deal with events such as terrorist attacks, natural or man-made disasters, disease outbreaks and the like.

They fall under the National Disaster Medical System which operates at a Federal level. As such, DMAT teams are by extension, Federal employees who are licensed to provide help in every state of the Republic so the nurse does not to be concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states.

According to the escience lab manual for lab 1, experiment 3, you need to prepare a 47 mL of a 24% soda/syrup prescription. To do this, you can use the 80% syrup solution and the 10% soda solution that you have in stock. How many mLs of soda solution do you need to create this final solution?

Answers

Answer:

33 mL  

Explanation:

It is important to recognize that the total amount of pure syrup remains constant:

Total syrup in the stock solution = total syrup in dilute solution

Thus, we can use the dilution formula

V₁c₁ = V₂ c₂

Data:

V₁ = ?;          c₁ = 80 %  

V₂ = 47 mL; c₂ = 24 %

Calculations:

1. The volume of stock syrup

[tex]\begin{array}{rcl}V_{1}c_{1} & = & V_{2}c_{2}\\V_{1}\times80 \, \% & = & \text{47 mL}\times 24 \, \%\\80V_{1} & = & \text{1130 mL}\\V_{2}&=& \dfrac{\text{1130 mL}}{80}\\\\&=&\text{14 mL}\\\end{array}\\\text{You need $\textbf{14 mL}$ of stock syrup.}[/tex]

2.  The volume of soda solution

Total volume of dilute solution =  47 mL

The volume of stock syrup        =  14

Volume of soda solution            = 33 mL

You need 33 mL of soda solution.

Why do we need sinuses in our facial bones? Describe why fluid in the maxillary sinus or a sinus infection
cause teeth to ache?

Answers

Answer:

Sinus cavities allow for voice resonance

They help filter and add moisture to any air that is inhaled through the nasal passages and in the removal of unwanted particles from the sinus cavities.

Sinus cavities lighten the skull.

Explanation:

Sinus infection tooth pain occurs when the fluid that builds up in the sinus cavities during a sinus infection puts pressure on your upper teeth.

If cancer runs in your family, what will your doctor likely do?

Answers

Answer:

Your doctor will most likely treat your family.

Explanation:

A man is at a risk of developing colon cancer because he has a familial history of the disease. Which of the following foods can reduce the risk? a. Protein shake b. Baked potato chips c. Diet cola d. Steamed broccoli e. Grilled chicken

Answers

Answer:

A man is at a risk of developing colon cancer because he has a familial history of the disease. Which of the following foods can reduce the risk?

b. steamed broccoli

Explanation:

In order to reduce colon cancer (and many other diseases) everyone should have a helthy diet. This diet should be based on fresh food such as fruit and vegetables. Also it has to include whole grains, legumes, different type of seeds and non fat dairy products. When it comes to meat, we should consume few portions. It is also important to drink water.  

We can reach the temperature 120 C In water bath Instrument from :

A) It is not possible.

B) Set up the pressure on 1.5 Kg/cm2.

C) Set up the temperature on 100 C

D) Set up the temperature on 120 C​

Answers

Answer:

option b is the correct answer

When we sleep, what does the brain replenish it’s stock for?

Answers

Answer:

it does not replenish shock but has cerebrospinal fluid that absorbs shock

Carafate 1 g p.o.
Identify the component missing in the order.

Answers

Answer: Frequency

Explanation:

Without frequency ex once daily; every 4 hrs, etc. You don't know when to give the med

What does your choice of career as a health care professional indicate?

Answers

Answer:

you stand to get the following benefits listed below

Explanation:

1. Good Pay: Remember health care professionals usually go back home with a good pay than other professions, such salary can pay all their bills.

2. More job prospect: Not surprisingly, there is a high demand for health care professionals today. There are numerous job opportunities in this field from a medical assistant technician to a dental assistant.  

3. Low job turnover occurs: Due to the salary and a feeling of self-worth, there is low job turnover, in other words less people drop out from this profession.

Another factor for such choices is an individual's motivation for the healthcare profession. For example, the loss of a friend or past experiences may move one to join this profession.

Answer:

Explanation:

You like people

The eyes and nose are on the ________ surface of the body

Answers

Answer:

Outer

Explanation:

The eyes and nose are the sense organs present on the  anterior surface of the body

What are the different types of sense organs ?

Human body have five sense organs to see, hear, smell, taste and touch.

Eyes of the visual system provide vision. Human beings have different color of eyes  depending on the amount of melanin present in it.

Nose of the olfactory system have nostrils, through which we breathe,  smell different odors.

Ears are the auditory organs, perceive sound by detecting vibrations, pressure changes in the surrounding medium through time.

Skin is the sense of touch, is the largest organ of human body. Different receptors are present on the surface of skin to sense pain, temperature, pressure, etc.

The tongue is the organ for taste, have various receptors which can  salty, sweet, bitter or sour.  

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The content of total body water in in adult women is *

Answers

Answer:

The content of total body water in adult women is on average 52-55 percent water.

Explanation:

The content of total body water can vary on many factors, including age, health, water intake, weight, and sex.

Answer:

if we talkin knowledge it would be bellow the iq of 16

Explanation:

An 80-year-old client that takes a diuretic for the management of hypertension, informs the nurse that she
taes laxatives daily to promote bowel movements. The nurse assess the client for possible symptoms of
which condition?

Answers

Answer:

Hypokalemia

Explanation:

Some diuretics are designed to get rid of potassium. Laxatives create bowel movements which also excrete potassium. Potassium controls cardiac rhythm and can cause death if there is a potassium imbalance.

Kevin has a BMI of 28.5. How many calories should he eliminate from his diet every day to achieve weight loss? a. 600 calories b. 400 calories c. 100 calories d. 200 calories e. 300 calories

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

A BMI of 28.5 for a male shows that he is overweight. Cutting down calories significantly can promote weight loss by 1-2 pounds each week.

Kevin has a BMI of 28.5.600 calories should he eliminate from his diet every day to achieve weight loss.

What is BMI ?

Body mass index (BMI) can be define as the  calculation that is  used in healthcare settings which is an indirect method to determine a person's body weight category.

BMI is a measurement can take the data of height, and weight to produce a calculation and this calculation  determine the relationship between weight and height.

The reason BMI is used  for the correlation between being overweight and having certain health problems, Coronary heart disease, Hypertension, Osteoarthritis, Sleep apnea and respiratory problems

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Zane is told that he may develop AIDS in his lifetime. Which signs and symptoms would indicate that he has AIDS

Answers

Answer:

Reduction in body size

Persistent fever, night sweats, fatigue, weight loss, anemia and abdominal pain (obviously these aren’t all of them, but most of them)

What are some of the possible advantages and disadvantages of virtual autopsy’s?

Answers

Answer:

The only advantages of the virtual autopsy are the ability to replay and lack of exposure to pathogens. All of the disadvantages of being virtual vs in person are: lack of being hands-on; seeing, smelling, feeling and even hearing' sometimes even a "taste" in the air. Advantage of in person: Actual cohorts to get feed-back from and to. Advantages of virtual: you can't make a "natural" mistake virtually because it can be corrected. Some would say you can't make a mistake during autopsy, but this is false it can make or break a person's fatal diagnosis whether it be natural cause so many factors involved.

Some of the possible advantages of the virtual autopsy are as follows:

It creates digital and permanent records of the body, making it easier for pathologists and clinicians to communicate with each other.It can prove to be cheaper than conventional autopsies in some cases, with fewer resources needed and simpler to perform.It lowers the risk of contaminating pathologists and other medical personnel.

What do you mean by Virtual Autopsy?

A virtual autopsy may be defined as a noninvasive technique where non-intrusive human autopsies are performed by using a CT Scanner in order to obtain a detailed view of the body.

Some of the possible disadvantages of the virtual autopsy are as follows:

It is expensive and includes high equipment and technology costs.is new and is not fully accurate and thus may lead to false diagnoses and judgments.It needs skills and training to deduce from the autopsy results. Lack of experience is a disadvantage.

Therefore, some of the possible advantages and disadvantages of the virtual autopsy are well described above.

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which of the following is typically most important to the adolescent when being examined

Answers

everything that apply

should the gender rule be used to determine primary insurance for dependent children? why and why not​

Answers

sure that you understand how your benefit coverage works when you have multiple insurances.

A few simple guidelines to assure maximum benefit are:

Scenario Explanation
If you have other insurance, then … Highmark sends you a Coordination of Benefits (COB) questionnaire to determine which plan is primary
If services are rendered to you, and you are the employee under the plan, then… Your plan through your employer is the primary plan for you.
If services are rendered to your spouse, who has a policy through another insurance carrier, then… Your spouse's own policy is the primary plan for your spouse.
If services are rendered to a dependent, who is covered by both parents' policies and both policies have the birthday rule, then… Coverage for the parent whose birthday falls earliest in the year (month and day) is the primary plan.
If services are rendered to a dependent who is covered by both parents' policies and both policies have the birthday rule and both parents are born on the same month and day, then… The primary plan is the policy that covered the patient for the longest period of time.
If one insurance company follows the birthday rule and other follows the gender rule, then… The policy with the gender rule dictates the father's coverage to be the primary plan.
If parents are divorced and there is a court order stating which parent is primary, then… The policy of the parent listed on the court order is the primary plan.
If parents are divorced and no court order, then… The parent with custody is the primary plan.
If parents are divorced and parent with custody remarried, then… The plan of the stepparent with custody is primary over the natural parent without custody.

A home health nurse who sees a client with diverticulitis is evaluating teaching about dietary modifications necessary to prevent future episodes. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching

Answers

Answer:

"I should increase my intake of fresh fruits and vegetables during remission"

Explanation:

Diverticulitis is an inflammation or infection in one or more small pouches in the digestive tract. After the nurses' teachings a statement that would indicate this would be "I should increase my intake of fresh fruits and vegetables during remission". This is because, even though doctors say that patients with diverticulitis should avoid high fiber diets, when in remission eating lots of fresh fruits and vegetables is known to prevent acute diverticulitis.

The nurse understands that the client who is undergoing induction therapy for leukemia needs additional instruction when the client makes which statement

Answers

The question is incomplete as it lacks the group of choices or statements, however the generalized answer is provided on the basis of knowledge.

Answer:

The correct statement would be - "i can not wait to get home to my pet"

Explanation:

Induction therapy affects the WBC of the patient as it destroys during the therapy which leaves them prone for infection and risk of bleeding tendencies.

Pets like dog or cat contains infection which is dangerous for such patient as there is very low production of new platelets and WBC so one should avoid the contact with the animals or people with cold or cough.

Thus, the correct answer would be - "i can not wait to get home to my pet"

Patients receive injectable medications when they're incapable of taking oral medications or when

Answers

Answer:

they have an illness such as diabetes

Assuming all blood types are equally common, people with what blood types would have the best and worst odds of finding a donor?

Answers

People with A, B, AB, or O blood type mixing can have serious consequences, when A blood is mixed with type B blood the antigens on the type A red blood cells react with the plasma proteins of type B blood. This can lead to antibodies antigen reaction causes clumping of the red blood cells and tends to block blood vessels, resulting in the brain and kidney damage resulting death. O blood are called universal donors, O blood type contains plasma proteins against blood types A and B it can be used in emergency transfusion.

Which is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte in the left ventricle (LV)?

Answers

Answer:

The question is lacking the options, below is the completely stated question and options:

This is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiocyte in the left ventricle (LV).

A. sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV

B. atrioventricular (AV) node → sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV

C. sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → atrioventricular (AV) node → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV

D. atrioventricular (AV) node → Purkinje fibers → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → sinoatrial (SA) node → cardiocyte in LV

E. sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → Purkinje fibers → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → cardiocyte in LV

Answer:

The correct answer is:

sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV  (A.)

Explanation:

The electrical impulse conduction system of the heart refers to the pathways through which electrical signals pass, to cause excitation of specific paths of the heart, leading to depolarization, which in turn leads to contraction and relaxation of the heart. The correct excitation pathway is as follows:

1. Normal excitation originates in the sinoatrial (SA) node, from which depolarization spreads throughout the atria, causing impulses (excitation) to spread from the SA node to the atria. It is believed that this depolarization spreads to the atrial cells through adjacent myocardial cells and myofibrils.

2. Next, the depolarization from the atria reaches the atrioventricular (AV) node, causing excitation of the AV node. The AV node is located on the floor of the right ventricle, close to the interventricular septum. The excitation leaves this site by two pathways; the fast and slow pathways which vary based on the time of transmission of impulses to the next phase.

3. Next, from the AV node, the excitation is passed to the two branches of the bundle of His, which form a network of fibers known as purkinje fibers, from where excitation passes to the apical region of the left and right ventricles causing depolarization of the ventricular myocardium.

Attached to this answer is a picture to show what the pathway looks like.

The correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte is:

sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Subendothelial conducting network → cardiomyocyte in LV.

The heart is a cone-shaped hollow muscular organ that possesses the property of generating its own electrical impulses or excitations.

It is divided into four(4) chambers namely the right ventricle, left ventricle, right atrium and left atrium.

The correct path of an electrical excitation is from:

The pacemaker: This is also called the sinoatrial (SA) node. It generates the electrical excitations.

Atrioventricular (AV) node: The electrical excitation initiated by SA node is then transmitted to AV node. This transmits the signal from atria to ventricles.

Atrioventricular (AV) bundle: These are specialised fibres that originate from the AV node. They are the bundle that divides to form the right and left bundle branches.

Subendothelial conducting network: This is also called the Purkinje fibres which is formed within the ventricular myocardium.

Cardiomyocyte of the left ventricle: The cardiomyocytes are set of cells that generates contractile force in the heart. These are located at the left ventricle.

Therefore, the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte is:

sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Subendothelial conducting network → cardiomyocyte in LV.

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For how long should most adults in moderately good physical condition and with healthy lungs be able to hold their breath

Answers

Answer:

30 seconds and up to 2 minutes

Explanation:

Most adults should be able to hold their breath for between 30 and 1 minute if they are in relatively excellent physical condition and have healthy lungs. However, this can change depending on things like age, fitness level and general health.

What is Health?

The concept of health is comprehensive and includes a state of mind, body and social relations of an individual. Physical fitness is the state of a person's body and their ability to engage in physical activity without experiencing excessive fatigue or physical restrictions. Regular exercise, proper diet, getting enough sleep and avoiding bad habits like smoking and excessive drinking are all necessary to maintain excellent physical health.

Maintaining healthy lungs is important for maintaining physical health in terms of lung health. The lungs are affected by many variables including smoking, air pollution and respiratory diseases. They are in charge of supplying oxygen to the body and eliminating carbon dioxide. Regular exercise can help increase lung capacity and function.

Therefore, most adults should be able to hold their breath for between 30 and 1 minute if they are in relatively excellent physical condition and have healthy lungs.

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The nurse is teaching a nursing student about infection. Which is an example of a reservoir of infection?

Answers

Answer: i think it could be the habitat in which the agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies.

Explanation: Basically, the reservoir may or may not be the source from which an agent is transferred to a host.

Answer:

reservoir is the host, may it be a human, animal, plant/soil, water, etc

Explanation:

On arrival to the ICU, R.B. begins to thrash, kick her legs, and wave her arms. The portable transport ventilator alarms are ringing. What are the priority nursing assessment

Answers

Answer:

When portable transport ventilator alarms are ringing, the priority nursing assessment includes to check if, all the tubes of ventilators are connected properly or not because sometimes movement of the patient can disconnect the tubes.

Sometimes, obstruction of the Endotracheal tube (ETT) from mucus plugs or from patients biting on the tube, causes ringing of alarm and should be assessed on a priority basis.

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Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke Hey guys! I have this problem and I dont really understand how to solve it, could you guys help me? :' ) NEED ASAP I WILL GIVE BRAINLEYEST What is the value of the expression 22 + 82 22? 8 10 17 20 In a reversible reaction, the endothermic reaction absorbs ____________ the exothermic reaction releases.A. None of these, endothermic reactions release energyB. more energy thanC. the same amount of energy asD. less energy than Answer for Brainiest, 25 points and 5 stars with thanks You are interested in buying a piece of land overlooking the sea. You find a place atop a 50m high sea cliff. The lot is only about 30m wide but is 200m long parallel to the coast, so you think you are getting a large expanse of the coastline. What would be the most important thing to look for in considering this purchase 2) Micah and Taylor investigate the effect of tap water and spring water on the growth of plants.They grew two plants of the same type and size in separate containers. Every three days, theyadded the same amount of tap water to one plant and the same amount of spring water to theother. Describe an action that would best improve the reliability of their results? On November 29, 1937, several individuals gathered at the headquarters of the Committee for Industrial Organization (CIO) in Jersey City, New Jersey to initiate a recruitment drive and discuss the National Labor Relations Act. Acting on the orders of Mayor Frank Hague, police seized the group's recruitment materials and refused to allow the meeting to take place. Hague argued that he was enforcing a 1930 city ordinance that forbade gatherings of groups that advocated obstruction of the government by unlawful means. Hague referred to CIO members as "communists." Arguing that the ordinance violated the First Amendment protection of freedom of assembly, the group filed suit against several city officials, including Hague. A district court and the United States Court of Appeals for the Third Circuit agreed and invalidated the ordinance. In Hague v. Committee for Industrial Organization (1939), the Supreme Court concluded that the actions taken by police clearly violated the First Amendment as it applied to the states. "Citizenship of the United States would be little better than a name if it did not carry with it the right to discuss national legislation and the benefits, advantages, and opportunities to accrue to citizens therefrom." Relying on the Court's previous ruling in the Slaughter House Cases, Justice Roberts wrote that freedom of assembly is "a privilege inherent in citizenship of the United States" and that no "contrary view has ever been voiced" by the Court. Source: Oyez, Hague v. 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