Match the reactant in gluconeogenesis with the appropriate enzyme.

Enzyme:

a. Fructose dehydrogenase
b. PEP kinase
c. Phosphoglycerase
d. Pyruvate kinase
e. Phosphoglyceromutase
f. Glucose kinase
g. Phosphoglycerokinase
h. Phosphofructokinase
i. Hexokinase


1. glucose
2. fructose-6-phosphate
3. fructose-I , 6-bisphosphate
4. phosphoenolpyruvate
5. 1 , 3-bisphosphoglycerate
6. 3-phosphoglycerate

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: a c g e

Explanation:


Related Questions

You are studying ABO blood groups, and you know that 6.25% of the population has genotype IAIA and 42.25% of the population has Type O blood. What is the expected frequency of blood type B?

Answers

51.5- AB

Since in the ABO blood system AB is a blood type as well as B. The rest of the population will have either of these types so exclusively for B type then it will ne the remaining - AB

use the numbers 12345 to place the protien creations steps below in the correct order

Answers

Use the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 to place the protein creation steps below in the correct order. Ribosome attaches to the mRNA. Information is transcribed in DNA to mRNA. tRNA anticodon carries an amino acid that compliments the mRNA codon. mRNA leaves the nucleus. The chain of amino acids forms a protein.  

if it is helpfull please mark as brainlist

Answer:

please list numbers 12345 and then i will

Explanation:

characteristics of euglena​

Answers

Answer:

Euglena is a large genus of unicellular protists: they have both plant and animal characteristics. All live in water, and move by means of a flagellum. This is an animal characteristic. Most have chloroplasts, which are characteristic of algae and plants.

Which best defines the term matter?
Anything that can be seen
Anything that takes up space and has mass
All the living things on earth
O Anything in the atmosphere

Answers

Answer:

Anything that takes up space and has mass

Explanation:

anything that takes up space and has mass

Which of the following best describes how crossing over occurs during meiosis?

Answers

Answer:

first give the following options bro..

what is the key to the recognition of a trait whose expression is determined by the effects of two or more genes

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Polygenic inheritance occurs when many loci of a gene contributes to it genetic make up.

No particular allele can be selected for contributing to a particular traits all the allele are equally expressed.

Over expressitivity example is pleiotrophy effect have more than 5 fingers or toes

The offspring express more dominant traits that the normal mendelian principle

This signs indicate polygenic inheritance.

Myristoyl-CoA is a saturated fatty acid with 14 carbons attached to coenzyme A. How many molecules of ATP would be generated from the complete oxidation of a single molecule of myristoyl-CoA

Answers

Answer:

Total ATP molecules produced = 94 molecules of ATP

Explanation:

Myristoyl-CoA, is a saturated fatty acid with 14 carbons which has been activated for oxidation by attachment to coenzyme A. When it has undergone complete oxidation, it will yield 7 acetyl-CoA molecules and 6 FADH₂ and 6 NADH molecules each.

Each of the 7 acetyl-CoA molecules obtained from its initial oxidation enters into the citric acid cycle and is completely oxidized to yield further ATP and  FADH₂ and NADH molecules.

The overall yield of ATP from the various enzymatic steps is shown below:

Acyl-CoA dehydrodenase = 6 FADH₂

β-Hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase = 6 NADH

Isocitrate dehydrogenase = 7 NADH

α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase = 7 NADH  

Succinyl-CoA synthase = 7 ATP (from substrate-level phosphorylation)  

Succinate dehydrogenase = 7 FADH₂

Malate dehydrogenase = 7 NADH

Note: 1 FADH2 molecule yields 1.5 ATP; 1 NADH molecule yields 2.5 ATP molecules. Therefore,

Total ATP  from FADH₂ molecules = 13 * 1.5 = 19.5  

Total NADH molecules = 27 * 2.5 = 67.5

Total ATP molecules produced = 19.5 + 67.5 + 7  = 94

Total ATP molecules produced = 94 molecules of ATP

cytoplasm and nucleus together constitute which part​

Answers

Answer:

Cytoplasm and nucleus together constitute Protoplasm .

protoplasm is your answer mate

What energy yield (in molecules of ATPATP per molecule of monosaccharide) would you predict for the bacterial catabolism of raffinose, a trisaccharide

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is 2.67 ATP per molecule.

Explanation:

With the help of sucrose, it comes to known that the dissociation of a sugar-sugar bond generates one phosphorylated monosaccharide. Therefore, raffinose, which is a trisaccharide exhibits bonds of two sugar-sugar molecules. Post dissociation, they will generate one regular monosaccharide and two phosphorylated monosaccharides.  

There will be the generation of net ATPs by each phosphorylated monosaccharide as they are already phosphorylated. While the regular monosaccharide, which is first needed to get phosphorylated will only produce two ATPs. Thus, a total of 8 ATPs will be produced by one molecule of raffinose. After dividing by three monosaccharides, the molecule will produce 8/3 = 2.67 ATPs per monosaccharide.  

Pleaseeeee help me. When a rabbit eats a plant, nutrients from the
plant become available to the tissues of the
rabbit. During this process, some of the energy
from these nutrients is lost and the energy
becomes heat and unavailable chemical energy.
This energy loss partly explains why the total
energy is greater in
A. predator populations than in scavenger
populations.
B.consumer populations than in producer
populations.
C. producer populations than in consumer
populations.
D. predator populations than in prey populations,

Answers

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

total energy is greater in producer populations than in consumer populations

You put 10ul (one loopful - the loop is calibrated for this volume) of a 0.03 ug/ul pGLO solution into the DNA tube. Calculate the ug of DNA you put into the tube.

Answers

Answer:

The µg of DNA put into the tube is 0.3 µg.

Explanation:

Here in this question, we are interested in calculating the µg of DNA put into the DNA tube.

This can be calculated using a mathematical formula.

Mathematically;

Total amount of DNA in µg = concentration in µg/ µl X volume in µl

= 10 µg/µl X 0.03µl = 0.3 µg.

A coniferous forest that runs along the west coast of Canada and the United States, due to the moist winds off the Pacific, is called the

Answers

Is called the = temperate rain forest

What does cyclical mean

Answers

Cyclical means occurring in cycles technically meaning reoccurring.

Why did the leaves rise? Will the leaf discs float faster or slower if the rate of photosynthesis is decreased? (5 points)

Answers

Answer:

Leave rise and floating depends on the production of oxygen.

Explanation:

The leaves rises due to consumption of oxygen which is produced during photosynthesis. Floating of leave occurs due to production of oxygen in the process of photosynthesis. The leaf discs float faster if the rate of photosynthesis is increases because oxygen production is also increases while the leaf discs float will be slower if the rate of photosynthesis is decreased due to low production of oxygen.

an advertisement on tv claims children grow faster with the use of vitamin gro. vitamin gro is a 25mg pill taken twice a day. the viewer has little knowledge about how children grow, but he knows that children need a complete diet and a good exercise routine. he decided to put the commercial to the test. the viewer uses his 6 nieces who are the same age to conduct the experiments. to make the experiment easier he uses his six nieces using labels such as child 1, child 2 and so on. he records their height every 3 days for 7 days. What are the variables?

Answers

Answer:

Independent variable - vitamin gro and exercise routine.

Dependent variable - growth of children or nieces.

Explanation:

There are two variables present in an experiment called dependent and independent variables.

Independent variables are those variables which can be controlled in an experiment and dependent variables are those variables which are measured in the experiment under the influence of the independent variable.

In the given experiment, the independent variable will be vitamin gro and exercise routine and the dependent variable is the growth of children or nieces because vitamin gro and exercise routine can be controlled and growth of children is dependent on vitamin gro and exercise routine.

The force of a muscle contraction is higher when the muscle is stimulated every 0.5 secs than when stimulated with the same voltage every 0.05 seconds.

a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

b. False

Explanation:

Increasing the frequency of muscle stimulation causes wave summation to occur, which causes an overlap of muscle twitch. When this muscle summation happens, the force generated in the muscle increases. This means that stimulating the muscle every 0.5 seconds will generate less muscle contraction force than when stimulated every 0.05 seconds  

The maps below represent the same area of the Amazon rainforest over an 8-year period as humans moved into the rainforest. Forested areas are shown in deep green, and cleared areas are tan (bare ground) or light green (pasture land). Which of the following statements is best supported by evidence from the maps? A. This area became more densely populated with trees between 2000 and 2008. B. Humans living in this area began an extensive forest restoration program between 2000 and 2008. C. Humans began leaving this area to find jobs in nearby cities between 2000 and 2008. D. This area changed appearance between 2000 and 2008 because trees were cleared.

Answers

Answer:

D.)

Explanation:

am smart

Answer:

D. This area changed appearance between 2000 and 2008 because trees were cleared

Explanation:

I got it right on study island

1. A tree root breaking a rock into smaller fragments is an example of both _______ and mechanical weathering.
2. When rocks are exposed to heat, they _______, which can contribute to thermal stress.
3. When harmful gases, such as sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide, react with water in the atmosphere, they can produce
4. The agent of erosion involved in stream erosion is
5. When the ground is so saturated that it can't absorb rainfall or when rain falls so quickly that the ground can't absorb the water, _______ forms.
6. A/An _______ is a huge, heavy, moving body of ice that picks up rocks and sand and erodes the ground beneath it as these materials scrape across it.
7. Hot arid climates are prone to erosion by _______.
8. Rows of trees and shrubs planted to protect fields from wind erosion are known as _______.

Answers

Answer:

chemical

expand

acid rain.

rushing water.

runoff

glacier

wind.

windbreaks

Explanation:

The correct terms for the given fill in the blanks are:

1. A tree root breaking a rock into smaller fragments is an example of both chemical and mechanical weathering. Weathering is the breakdown of rock into smaller particles.

2. The rocks when are exposed to heat, expand contributing to thermal stress.

3. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide are harmful gases, which react with water in the air to form acid rain.

4. The agent of erosion involved in stream erosion is referred to as rushing water.

5. The ground is so saturated that it can't absorb rainfall or heavy and quick rainfall does not allow the ground to absorb the water forming runoffs.

6. Glacier is a huge, heavy, moving body of ice that picks up rocks and sand and erodes the ground beneath it as these materials scrape across it.

7. Hot arid climates are prone to erosion by wind.

8. Windbreaks refer to the rows of trees and shrubs planted to protect fields from wind erosion.

To know more about weathering, refer to the following link:

https://brainly.com/question/14426457

Explain to your lab mate the health risk associated with consuming a diet low in vitamin K along with the ingestion of antibiotics over multiple days. How would the termination of antibiotic treatment help to remove this health risk?

Answers

Answer:

Vitamin K, a fat soluble vitamin is rich in green leafy  vegetables,and also produced by bacterial in the intestine.

Its major function is blood clotting or arrest of bleeding to prevent blood loss.

Antibiotics especially with Cephalosporins,reduces Vit. K absorption in the intestine. Intake of these antibiotic kill the targeted bacterial together with the the bacteria which produces Vit. K in the intestine.

Hence when antibiotic is taken  with low level of Vit, K the individual is prone to excessive bleeding or haemorrhage,because the concentration of the vitamins is further depleted.

If the medication is stopped,the condition will improve because the bacteria which produces Vt K can resumes the secretions,and its absorption will resume

Explanation:

The removal of sections of RNA, called introns, occur at which regulation step in eukaryotic cells? (1 point)
o mRNA life span
O post-translation
O RNA processing
ochromatin remodeling

Answers

Answer:

post-translation

Explanation:

When a eukaryotic gene is transcribed in the nucleus, the primary transcript (freshly made RNA molecule) isn't yet considered a messenger RNA. Instead, it's an "immature" molecule called a pre-mRNA.

The pre-mRNA has to go through some modifications to become a mature mRNA molecule that can leave the nucleus and be translated. These include splicing, capping, and addition of a poly-A tail, all of which can potentially be regulated – sped up, slowed down, or altered to result in a different product.

Most pre-mRNA molecules have sections that are removed from the molecule, called introns, and sections that are linked or together to make the final mRNA, called exons. This process is called splicing.

In the process of alternative splicing, different portions of an mRNA can be selected for use as exons. This allows either of two (or more) mRNA molecules to be made from one pre-mRNA.

Answer:

RNA processing

Explanation:

RNA processing. Splicing, capping, and addition of a poly-A tail to an RNA molecule can be regulated, and so can exit from the nucleus. Different mRNAs may be made from the same pre-mRNA by alternative splicing.

Which of the following best explains the potential health problems associated with endocrine disruptors? A) Endocrine disruptors are the only available pesticides,hence they are used widely. B) Endocrine disruptors mimic hormones that regulate critical biological processes. C) Endocrine disruptors do not biodegrade, remaining toxic years after their release. D) There are no major health problems associated with exposure to endocrine disruptors. E) Endocrine disruptors encompass a wide array of toxic pesticides.

Answers

B) Endocrine disruptors mimic hormones that regulate critical biological processes.

Endocrine disruptors, at times moreover called as hormonally unique trained professionals, endocrine disturbing engineered substances, or endocrine upsetting blends are manufactured substances that can interfere with endocrine structures. These aggravations can cause threatening developments, birth flees, and other developmental issues.

The potential health problems associated with endocrine disruptors is that Endocrine disruptors mimic hormones that regulate critical biological processes.

For more information:

https://brainly.com/question/22965068?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

It's A.) Endocrine disruptors mimic hormones that regulate critical biological processes.

Explanation:

Quizlet gave me the answer

Why are so many of the same genes found in almost all living organisms

Answers

Answer:

Molecular homology occurs when different species inherit similar molecules, such as nucleic acids or proteins, from an evolutionary common ancestor. In many cases, especially for essential housekeeping genes involved in protein synthesis or DNA replication, genes are homologous across most, if not all, living organisms. Hope this helps!

Explanation:

Which of the following pairs of organisms
would have the MOST SIMILAR niche in
their environments.
Zebra and Lion
Squirrel and Chipmunk
Robin and Bald Eagle
Oak Tree and Mushroom

Answers

Answer:

Squirrel and Chipmunk

Answer:

C. a lion hunting for a zebra in the grassland  

Explanation:

E2023

What term matches the following definition: " ...a fundamental evolutionary process that results in both the adaptation of species to their environments and the generation of biodiversity (new species)"?

Answers

Answer:

a.Natural selection

b.Evolution

c.Artificial selection

d.Co-evolution

The correct option is A.

Natural selection.

Explanation:

The correct answer is natural selection because Natural selection is an evolutionary process which was discussed by Charles Darwin in 1859, In one of his theory that it is the ability of organisms to develop traits or characteristics that will help them to adapt and ensure their survival in their environment and then passing or transferring these new traits to new species or offsprings over generations through reproduction.

a) There are three nucleotide in each codon, and each of these nucleotides can have one of four different bases. How many possible unique codons are there?
b) If DNA had only two types of bases instead of four, how long would codons need to be to specify all 20 amino acids?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

There are 64 possible codons to be specified for, If we have three nucleotides with 4 bases the set of all combinations can encode

4x4x4 = 64 amino acids

This will give 64 different combinations of four nucleotides

If we have 2 bases with 4 nucleotide we have a possibility of having 16 codons specifying for 20 amino acid.

If we have 2 nucleotides with 4 bases the set of combination is

4×4 = 16 amino acids of four nucleotides

I know it’s sorta not biology but oh well... so my teacher loves rocks and is wanting us to find a rock and name what type it is and so on and I know it is sedimentary but don’t know what type.

Answers

Answer:

I guess its sandstone

A paleontologist finds a relatively complete skeleton but isn’t sure if it is an ape fossil or a hominid fossil. Which of the following features would NOT help distinguish between the two choices?
a. position of the opening in the skull for the spinal cord
b. design of the pelvis
c. relative length of the hind limbs
d. position of the eyes

Answers

c. relative length of the hind limbs. Overall fossilized apes and hominids are 90+% similar in the past 3.5 million years since Australopithecus afarensis but this one aspect of upper vs. lower limbs is the greatest difference. Hope this helps!

somebody help me please A cross is performed between a bird that is homo for red feathers and a bird that is homo for blue feathers. Purple offspring result due to incomplete dominance. Then, two of the purple offspring are crossed. What proportion of the offspring from the second cross will be purple? 1 in 4 2 in 4 3 in 4 4 in 4

Answers

Answer:

2 in 4

Explanation:

Let PP are the gametes of red feather bird and pp are the gamete of blue feather bird. In the first cross they both will give purple feather bird because of incomplete dominance.

Consider Pp as the allele of purple offspring for the second cross. When two of the purple offspring are crossed, it will give the proportion of 2 in 4  

F2: Pp X Pp

Offspring: PP, Pp,Pp, pp

So, only two offspring, Pp is with purple feathers while PP has red and pp has blue feathers.

Hence, the correct option is 2 in 4.

The proportion of the offspring from the second cross that would be purple will be 2 in 4.

Let us assume that the red feather color is controlled by allele A and that of blue feather color is controlled by allele B.

Homzygous red feather birds will have the genotype AA

Homzygous blue feather birds will have the genotype BB

Crossing the 2 birds:

                             AA     x     BB

                         AB    AB    AB    AB

Thus, the purple offspring are AB.

Crossing 2 of the purple offspring:

                                    AB    x    AB

                              AA    AB    AB    BB

1 AA - red

2 AB - purple

1 BB - blue

Thus, 2/4 or 1/2 or 50%  of the offspring from the second cross will be purple.

More on incomplete dominance can be found here: https://brainly.com/question/13402032

Consider a material for a vascular graft application with proteins adsorbed to its surface and a second material with proteins covalently attached to its surface. For which material would you expect the protein layer to be more stable under flow conditions similar to those found in a blood vessel? Why?

Answers

Answer is given below :

Explanation:

Individual-specific proteins are placed on the graft material so that the body does not recognize the graft as a foreign substance and treats it as a part of the body’s natural tissue structure. If the body recognizes the graft as a foreign substance, it produces an immune response against it and leads to a graft rejection reaction by the body. In order for these proteins to attach to grafts, a covalent bond for absorption must be preferred. Absorption is a reversible process and, if used, can lead to de-absorption of bound proteins, including blood, after dissolving by turbulence and pulling to the grafting material by blood flow (velocity up to 40 cm/sec). The remaining infectious tissue is detected foreignly, activating the immune response.  On the other hand, covalent bonding is irreversible in nature and vascular flow does not have a disruptive effect on the bond between the graft and the protein, reducing the stable state of the graft and the possibility of rejection.

Choose only one correct option. Explanation needed.

Answers

Answer: D

only green plants

Answer:

[tex]\large \boxed{\mathrm{D. \ Photosynthesis}}[/tex]

Explanation:

Photosynthesis is a characteristic present in plants. Photosynthesis is a process where plants transform light energy into chemical energy. Reproduction, respiration, and excretion are all characteristics of living organisms.

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