Answer:
1. Maurice Wilkins
2. Rosalind Franklin
3. Linus Pauling
4. Erwin Chargaff
5. James Watson
6. Francis Crick
7. Rosalind Franklin
8.
Explanation:
1. Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins was a British scientist, both a molecular biologist and physicist. He made an outstanding contribution to the scientific discovery of the DNA structure. He is well known for his work in the 1940s at King's College in London, where he used optical spectroscopy to understudy the structure of the DNA.
2. Rosalind Elsie Franklin was an expert x-ray crystallographer and chemist, she contributed immensely to the understanding and discovery of the DNA structures as well as the molecular structure of coal, RNA and viruses.
3. Linus Carl Pauling was an American scientist who made a huge impact in the field of molecular biology, he played an important role in the molecular modelling of proteins and this helped in further understanding the DNA code.
4. Erwin Chargaff was an American scientist who formulated the Chargaff's rules and his experimentations helped to show that the ratio of adenine in a DNA molecule was equivalent to the ratio of thymine, as well of the ratio of guanine in a DNA molecule was equivalent to the ratio of cytosine.
5. James Watson and Francis Crick both worked in the Cavendish Laboratory to elucidate the 3- dimensional structure of the DNA.
6. Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins along with James Watson and Francis Crick won the Nobel Prize for Physiology in 1962 for their discovery of the molecular structure of the DNA.
7. Rosalind Elsie Franklin was an English scientist and x-crystallographer was famous for "photo 51", this helped to first prove that the DNA was a double helix structure.
8. Rosalind Elsie Franklin worked out mathematically what a helical defraction should look like in an x-ray defraction photo.
ABO blood type is examined in a Taiwanese population, and allele frequencies are determined. In the population,
f (IA) = 0.30,
f(IB) = 0.15, and
f (i) = 0.55.
What are the frequencies of the various genotypes and various phenotypes in this population? Assume Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Answer and Explanation:
Due to technical problems, you will find the answer and explanation in the attached file.
somebody help me please A cross is performed between a bird that is homo for red feathers and a bird that is homo for blue feathers. Purple offspring result due to incomplete dominance. Then, two of the purple offspring are crossed. What proportion of the offspring from the second cross will be purple? 1 in 4 2 in 4 3 in 4 4 in 4
Answer:
2 in 4
Explanation:
Let PP are the gametes of red feather bird and pp are the gamete of blue feather bird. In the first cross they both will give purple feather bird because of incomplete dominance.
Consider Pp as the allele of purple offspring for the second cross. When two of the purple offspring are crossed, it will give the proportion of 2 in 4
F2: Pp X Pp
Offspring: PP, Pp,Pp, pp
So, only two offspring, Pp is with purple feathers while PP has red and pp has blue feathers.
Hence, the correct option is 2 in 4.
The proportion of the offspring from the second cross that would be purple will be 2 in 4.
Let us assume that the red feather color is controlled by allele A and that of blue feather color is controlled by allele B.
Homzygous red feather birds will have the genotype AA
Homzygous blue feather birds will have the genotype BB
Crossing the 2 birds:
AA x BB
AB AB AB AB
Thus, the purple offspring are AB.
Crossing 2 of the purple offspring:
AB x AB
AA AB AB BB
1 AA - red
2 AB - purple
1 BB - blue
Thus, 2/4 or 1/2 or 50% of the offspring from the second cross will be purple.
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Transcriptional regulation of operon gene expression involves the interaction of molecules with one another and of regulatory molecules with segments of DNA. In this context, define and give an example of each of the following:
a. operator
b. repressor
c. inducer
d. corepressor
e. promoter
f. positive regulation
g. allostery
h. negative regulation
i. attenuation
Answer and explanation:
The operator is a DNA fragment localized between the promoter and structural gene sequences that are able to repress operon transcription. A repressor is a molecule that binds to the operator to inhibit transcription, while an inducer is a molecule that activates transcription by binding either to the repressors or to the activators. A corepressor is a molecule that binds to repressors in order to activate them. A promoter is a DNA sequence localized upstream structural genes which binds to a transcription factor in order to activate operon transcription. Positive regulation is the process by which operon transcription acts as a positive loop, thereby increasing its own transcription, while negative regulation is the process by which operon transcription inhibits its own expression. Allostery refers to the process by which a molecule regulates operon transcription by binding to distal (and therefore non-functional) sites of the operon. Attenuation is a process able to reduce operon transcription and also to block subsequent translation.
Studies of the relative efficacy or nonefficacy of a drug based on specific genotypes would be considered part of the field of
Answer:
Personalized genomic medicine
Explanation:
Personalized genomic medicine is a field that uses genomics data to develop personalized technologies and therapies for clinical care. All people share a sequence homology level higher than 99%; however a very small fraction of the genome (lesser than 1%) contains genetic polymorphisms among individuals, and this variation is associated with the likelihood of suffering diseases, either by increasing or by reducing disease susceptibility. Personalized genomic medicine first identifies genetic variations and then develops new strategies and personalized drugs to treat genetic disorders.
The diagram represents a food pyramid. The concentration of the pesticide DDT in individual
organisms at level D is higher than the concentration in individuals at level A because DDT is
A. produced by organisms at level C ingested by
those in level D
B. passed through levels A, B, and C to organisms
at level D.
C. excreted by organisms at level A as a toxic
waste.
D. synthesized by organisms at level D.
Answer:
The answer is "Choice b".
Explanation:
In the given question diagram is missing. so first, we define the diagram after that we explain why the above given choice is correct.
In the attached file the food pyramid can be a divide into the level, in which the D pesticides use the "dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane ", which concentration is higher than its entities from the level of A because DDT is transferred with species at level D by levels A, B, and C, that's why the choice "b" is correct.
The main function of a cell membrane is to allow substances to enter and leave the cell. Which is a correct description of transport through a cell membrane
Answer:
The question is incomplete, below is the completed question:
The main function of a cell membrane is to allow substances to enter and leave the cell. Which is a correct description of transport through a cell membrane ?
a. Diffusion, or passive transport, occurs when molecules diffuse from a lower concentration to a higher concentration.
b. Facilitated transport occurs when proteins that extend through the cell membrane provide a channel through which certain substances can diffuse more rapidly than by passive diffusion.
c. The lipid bilayer opens up and allows the ions or molecules to enter the cell, then closes.
d. Active transport occurs when molecules diffuse from a higher concentration to a lower concentration.
Answer:
b. Facilitated transport occurs when proteins that extend through the cell membrane provide a channel through which certain substances can diffuse more rapidly than by passive diffusion.
Explanation:
Transport through cell membranes can be broadly classified as active transport or passive transport.
Active transport requires energy in the form of ATP for the transportation of substances across the cell membrane.
Option b correctly describes facilitated diffusion, which is a passive-mediated diffusion process, where channels in the cell membrane mainly composed of proteins called transmembrane integral proteins, allow for the movement of certain molecules (mostly polar/hydrophilic) molecules that will not otherwise be transported through simple diffusion because of the hydrophobic nature of the cell membrane.
The other options are wrong because:
a. diffusion or simple transport involves the movement of substances from regions of higher to a lower concentration not lower to higher as suggested here.
c. The lipid bi-layer does not allow ions or hydrophilic molecules because it is hydrophobic in nature, and it is not a channel, so it does not open and closes
d. In active transport, transfer of molecules is from regions of lower to higher concentration and not higher to lower concentration as suggested here.
The process of ________ involves a carrier protein that can transport a molecule across the cell membrane down its concentration gradient.
Answer:
Answer is Facilitated diffusion.
The process of facilitated diffusion involves a carrier protein that can transport a molecule across the cell membrane down its concentration gradient.
What is facilitated diffusion?The process of spontaneous passive movement of molecules or ions across a biological membrane by particular transmembrane integral proteins is known as facilitated diffusion.
To transfer molecules from one side of the membrane to the other without consuming energy, facilitated diffusion is required. Large and charged molecules require facilitated diffusion more than smaller molecules. These compounds are unable to readily diffuse through the plasma membrane.
It happens when chemicals like glucose or amino acids flow effortlessly from a high concentration to a low concentration.
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True or dalse. The cell that produces interferon is protected from the infectious agent.
Answer:
True
I hope this helps!
What is the relationship between DNA mutation and sickle-cell anemia? (1 point)
O Sickle-cell anemia and DNA mutations are correlated without any causal relationship.
O Sickle-cell anemia causes a DNA mutation.
O A DNA mutation causes sickle-cell anemia.
O A DNA mutation is correlated with but does not cause sickle-cell anemia.
Answer:
A DNA mutation causes sickle-cell anemia.
Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a single code letter change in the DNA. This in turn alters one of the amino acids in the hemoglobin protein. Valine sits in the position where glutamic acid should be. The valine makes the hemoglobin molecules stick together, forming long fibers that distort the shape of the red blood cells, and this brings on an attack.
Explain the relationship between a thriving civilization and it’s agriculture system? In a paragraph
Answer:
They use advance technologies in agriculture.
Explanation:
There is a direct relationship between thriving civilization and it’s agriculture system because they use advance methods and technologies in agriculture instead of traditional practices. They use heavy machinery for tillage in order to save the time, use high yielding varieties, use proper dose of fertilizers, use of pesticides and weedicides in order to protect the crop. They harvest the crop by using thresher in order to avoid post harvest losses. In short, they use all technologies available to make a higher yield in order to earn more profit.
The mechanisms regulating sodium and water balance help maintain blood pressure homeostasis. These mechanisms include the renin-angiotensin II mechanism, neural regulation, and ADH.
Match each item to the appropriate category. Keep in mind relationships may be direct or indirect.
Categories:
1. Angiotensin II.
2. Sympathetic Nervous System
3. Both
a. stimulates ADH release
b. stimulates renin release
c. stimuates aldosterone release
d. increases sodium uptake
e. increases water reabsorption
f. stimulates vasoconstriction
g. increases peripheral resistance
h. stimulated by baroreceptors in blood vessels
i. stimulated by low blood pressure or volume
Answer:
a. stimulates ADH release : 2. Sympathetic Nervous System
b. stimulates renin release : 2. Sympathetic Nervous System
c. stimulates aldosterone release: 3. Both
d. increases sodium uptake : 1. Angiotensin II
e. increases water reabsorption: 2. Sympathetic Nervous System
f. stimulates vasoconstriction: 1. Angiotensin II.
g. increases peripheral resistance : 1. Angiotensin II.
h. stimulated by baroreceptors in blood vessels: 2. Sympathetic Nervous System
i. stimulated by low blood pressure or volume: 3. Both
Explanation:
The antidiuretic hormone is one of the hormones released by the hypothalamus (regulator center in the brain) and collected by the posterior hypophysis from where they are then released again to the system. This hormone, also known as vasopressin hormone, is released by changes in serum osmolarity or blood pressure. The osmotic receptors are located in the hypothalamus, while the pressure receptors are located in the heart, the aorta, and carotids. The amount of hormone secreted depends on these two aspects. Its function is to keep homeostasis and make kidneys conserve or excrete water to regulate its volume. The antidiuretic hormone stimulates water reabsorption when factors such as dehydration or hemorrhages are causing an increase in blood solutes. It might also stimulate water excretion when solutes in the blood are very low or blood pressure is too high.
Aldosterone is another hormone that acts stimulating the sodium ions reabsorption. This hormone production is controlled by a circuit named the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. This system is activated by the decrease of blood supply to the kidney, and hence, the decrease in blood pressure and sodium concentration. These factors cause the release of the renin, a proteolytic enzyme that acts on angiotensinogen producing angiotensin I which is converted into angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a peripheric vasoconstrictor peptide, that can increase the blood pressure when it is circulating in the plasma. It also stimulates the secretion of aldosterone.
What are some of the main characteristics of skeletal muscle cells that make them distinct from the other two types of muscle cells Why are these characteristics important for understanding the function of skeletal muscle?
Answer:
They are voluntary , require force and fast.
Explanation:
Main characteristics of skeletal muscle cells are given below:
1) these muscles are voluntary which means it can be controlled by the human.
2) skeletal muscles requires force for its movement.
3) movement of skeletal muscle is fast.
Due to its structure, skeletal muscle provide support to the body and the body is able to move from one place to another. It also provide protection to the delicate organs of the body. It is also used as a storage of minerals and fats.
g The ____ ring is built onto ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP for its de-novo nucleotide biosynthesis, while the ring structure of the ______ bases are synthesized separately and then coupled to ribose-5-phosphate via the C-N glycosidic bond.
Answer:
The purine ring is built onto ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP for its de-novo nucleotide biosynthesis, while the ring structure of the pyrimidine bases are synthesized separately and then coupled to ribose-5-phosphate via the C-N glycosidic bond.
Explanation:
Purines are produced as bases attached to the ribose 5-phosphate (pentose sugar). The adenine and guanine nucleotides derive from inosine monophosphate (IMP), which is synthesized on an existing ribose-phosphate. Thus, purine bases are built on a ribose sugar that is directly attached to the pyrimidine ring. On the other hand, pyrimidines are produced from the carbamoyl phosphate precursor. In this case, the ribose-5-phosphate pentose sugar is attached after the pyrimidine ring is made.
A graduate student studying biology at the University of Nebraska has identified a new species of spider found only in Eastern Nebraska around Omaha. The graduate student determines that the spider has six homologous pairs of chromosomes. How many chromosomes would a cell in that spider have during metaphase of mitosis?
Answer:
12 chromosomes
Explanation:
Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves the formation of two genetically identical daughter cells. The two daughter cells are genetically identical in the sense that they contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Mitosis involves four stages namely: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase.
In the metaphase stage as stated in this question, homologous chromosomes align at the equator of the cell called cell plate, before each chromatids are pulled apart by microtubules at the Anaphase stage.
According to the question, the spider being worked on has 6 pairs of chromosomes, which will align at the cell's equator during metaphase stage of mitosis. Since the replicated chromosomes (chromatids) are yet to separate to opposite poles of the cell, the cell will still contain 12 chromosomes at the metaphase stage.
N.B: Each chromosome contains 2 chromatids or replicated chromosome, which will be separated at the Anaphase stage. Each chromatid will be an individual chromosome after cytokinesis.
What are some pros and cons of using a dispersant versus bacteria to deal with a very large spill and how would each one impact the environment
Answer:
it is toxic to the health
Explanation:
Dispersants create a toxic environment for fish by releasing harmful oil break-down products into the water. ... Dispersants and dispersed oil have also been shown to have toxic effects on bird eggs that are similar or worse than from untreated oil.
which of the following MOST directly influences a measurable outcome in an experiment?
Answer:
Hello. You did not enter the answer options, but the factor that most directly influences a measurable result in an experiment is the manipulation of the variables.
Explanation:
In an experiment, the manipulation of variables becomes highly important so that it is possible to measure, that is, evaluate the result. This is because it is the variables that express values that represent the characteristics that are being analyzed and studied within the experiment. Therefore, the manipulation between them must be done in a very rational and balanced way so as not to modify the values shown by them, changing the data and generating false or immeasurable data.
Why it is important to emasculate and bag wheat, oats and groundnut flowers before a cross is made by using another desirable plant.
Answer:
There are no options in this question but it can be answered using general knowledge. The answer is:
In order to prevent self-pollination or natural cross-pollination of the wheat, oats or groundnut flowers.
Explanation:
The flowers of wheat, oat and groundnut plants have something in common, which is the fact that they are all bisexual flowers i.e. flowers that have both male and female reproductive parts. Hence, they tend to undergo self-pollination i.e. transfer of pollen to female reproductive part on the same flower.
To prevent this from occuring when a desirable trait is wanted during crop breeding procedures, a process called EMASCULATION is carried out. Emasculation is the process whereby the stamen (male flower) or pollen of a plant is removed without destroying the female part of the flower. This is done in order to discourage self-pollination in plants with a bisexual flower.
Also, after emasculation, the flowers are bagged in order to prevent natural cross-pollination i.e. to prevent pollens from other plant from being transferred to the stigma of the desired plants in random manner.
Hence, emasculation and bagging is important to make sure the desired plants are still viable for the crop breeding procedure.
n your lab you are studying the genome of venomous rattlesnakes to find the gene which codes for their venom glands. You have two rattlesnakes, one rattlesnake has a mutation but can still produce venom. You compare his DNA to a normal rattlesnake. What type of mutation has occurred? Normal: AATCGCTACGCACGTCAG Mutated: TATCGCTACGCACGTCAG
Answer:
There are no options but the kind of mutation that occurred by carefully observing both sequences is:
POINT SUBSTITUTION MUTATION
Explanation:
Mutation is any change, whether small or big, in the nucleotide sequence of a gene (DNA). Mutation occurs from time to time in an organism either by a mistake during DNA replication or induced by a mutagen (mutation-causing substance). Mutation can be of different types depending on the effect on the mutant.
In this case of comparing the DNA sequence two rattle snakes, the sequences of the two snakes are:
Normal: AATCGCTACGCACGTCAG
Mutated: TATCGCTACGCACGTCAG
By carefully observing the two DNA sequences, one would realize that the only difference in the two sequences is the first nucleotide base. That is, in the normal sequence, th first base is Adenine (A) while in the mutated sequence, the first base is Thymine (T).
This type of mutation that involves only one nucleotide base is called POINT MUTATION. It can also be noticed that base "A" was changed "T". Hence, this is a type of SUBSTITUTION MUTATION because a single base was replaced by another in the sequence.
Give four reasons why th toe operating system pivotal in teaching and learning
The correct answer to this open question is the following.
The four reasons why the operating system is pivotal in teaching and learning are the following.
1) Operating systems are the foundation of the computer. Without the operation system in place, you could not run any program.
2) The operating system presents an interface that allows users to perform many tasks at the same time, with all degrees of complexity.
3) The operating system permits the installation of all kinds of software so the user could work on practically anything.
4) Applications for sound, video, graphics, mathematics, and many other activities can be run due to the operating system.
In these times of digital education, the operation system of a computer allows users to do all the needed activities to fulfill the goals of teaching and learning. From video classes, team meetings, corporate dates, continuing training activities, and many more, the capacity of a good operating system is what makes it easy for you to accomplish your goals.
PLEASE ANSWER QUICK!The Greek roots of the word prokaryote mean “before nucleus.” Describe the way that DNA is organized in prokaryotic cells without the help of a nucleus. How does this approach differ from the way that eukaryotic cells organizes their DNA
Answer:
Prokaryotic cells' DNA are located in the cytoplasm of the cell rather than in the nucleus, like in eukaryotic cells. DNA aids in protein synthesis and determines functions of the cell in cells, regardless of being within the membrane of a nucleus or not.
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I hope this helps a little.
The word prokaryote in Greek means before kernel (nucleus). Unlike the eukaryotic cells, the nuclear material is located in the cytoplasm of the cell in a nucleoid.
What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells?The prokaryotic cells are the primitive karyons that are defined by the lack of the true nucleus and organelles. Unlike the eukaryotes, the organelles lack the membrane that covers them but has a tough cell wall.
The prokaryotes include archaea and bacteria which are unicellular and microscopic organisms that are simple and have their genetic material organized into nucleoids in the center of the cell. They have the ability to live in harsh conditions.
Therefore, the eukaryotes and prokaryotes differ in the arrangement of the genetic material.
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In a population of flowers growing in a meadow, C1 and C2 are autosomal codominant alleles that control flower color. The alleles are polymorphic in the population, with f (C1) = 0.8 and f (C2) = 0.2. Flowers that are C1C1 are yellow, orange flowers are C1C2, and C2C2 flowers are red. A storm blows a new species of hungry insects into the meadow, and they begin to eat yellow and orange flowers but not red flowers. The predation exerts strong natural selection on the flower population, resulting in relative fitness values of C1C1 = 0.30, C1C2 = 0.60, and C2C2 = 1.0.
Required:
a. What is the C1C2 genotype frequency among the progeny of predation survivors?
b. What is the C2C2 genotype frequency among the progeny of predation survivors?
c. What is the C2C2 genotype frequency among the progeny of predation survivors?
d. What is the equilibrium C2 allele frequency in the predation environment?
Which of the following correctly describes the process of Translation?
I. tRNA anticodon bonds to mRNA codon
II. Ribosome bonds to mRNA strand
III. Ribosome reaches a STOP codon and detaches from the mRNA
IV. Each tRNA adds an Amino Acid to the chain as the Ribosome moves along the mRNA
V. Complimentary mRNA strand is made from DNA template
Answer:
I. tRNA anticodon bonds to mRNA codon
II. Ribosome bonds to mRNA strand
III. Ribosome reaches a STOP codon and detaches from the mRNA
IV. Each tRNA adds an Amino Acid to the chain as the Ribosome moves along the mRNA
Explanation:
Translation is the second process of gene expression in which a protein molecule is synthesized from the information in a mRNA strand. Translation occurs in the RIBOSOME (an organnelle for protein synthesis made up of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins). The process of translation occurs in three stages viz: Initiation, Elongation and Termination.
Initiation occurs when the ribosome binds to the mRNA strand in the cytoplasm. The mRNA sequence is then read in a group of three nucleotides called CODON by the ANTICODON of a transfer RNA (tRNA). The basis of reading is the complementary base pairing rule i.e. A-U, G-C. Options I and II describes this stage.
In the elongation stage, the tRNA carries an amino acid corresponding to what it reads in the mRNA codon to the growing polypeptide chain. The amino acids bonds to one another via a peptide bond. As each codon is being read, the mRNA gradually moves over the means sequence. Option IV describes this stage.
Elongation stage continues until any of the stop codons (UAA, UAG, and UGA) are finally encountered by the trans in the ribosome. Since, there are no corresponding anticodons that can read the stop codons, they signal the termination of the translation process. The ribosome then detaches from the mRNA sequence. Option III describes this stage.
Note, option V describes TRANSCRIPTION not TRANSLATION.
____________ a regulatory protein that may bind DNA to inhibit transcription. ____________ a DNA sequence that binds a regulatory protein. ____________a DNA sequence that binds RNA polymerase and regulates transcription. ____________a compound that interacts with another protein or compound to form an active repressor ____________a compound that induces or activates transcription, such as lactose.a. Repressorb. Operator c. Promoterd. Corepressore. Inducer
Answer:
A repressor is a regulatory protein that may bind DNA to inhibit transcription. An operator is a DNA sequence that binds a regulatory protein. A promoter is a DNA sequence that binds RNA polymerase and regulates transcription. A corepressor is a compound that interacts with another protein or compound to form an active repressor. An inducer is a compound that induces or activates transcription, such as lactose.
Explanation:
Repressor proteins bind to DNA and RNA to suppress target gene expression. A DNA repressor blocks transcription by inhibiting the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter sequence, while an RNA repressor bind to the mRNA to block translation of the protein. An operator is a DNA sequence required for the attachment of transcription factors. The genes that are transcribed by the binding of a transcription factor to an operator sequence are collectively referred to as an operon. Operons are generally found in prokaryotes but they also can be found in some eukaryotes including Caenorhabditis elegans and Drosophila melanogaster. An inducer is a molecule that activates gene transcription either by binding to repressors/corepressors (thereby inactivating their functions) or by binding activators. For example, the allolactose act as an inducer of the lac operon.
g dGDP is made from ________ by the ribonucleotide reductase. This enzyme is inactive when ______ is bound to its master regulatory pocket.
Answer:
1. GTP dephosphorylation
2. hydrolyzed or removed
Explanation:
GDP, (Guanosine diphosphate) is a biological term, that is made of composition including pyrophosphate group, a pentose sugar ribose, and the nucleobase guanine and it is made from GTP ( Guanosine triphosphate ) dephosphorylation by the ribonucleotide reductase. This enzyme is inactive when hydrolyzed or removed, and then eventually bound to its master regulatory pocket.
Pleaseeeee help me. When a rabbit eats a plant, nutrients from the
plant become available to the tissues of the
rabbit. During this process, some of the energy
from these nutrients is lost and the energy
becomes heat and unavailable chemical energy.
This energy loss partly explains why the total
energy is greater in
A. predator populations than in scavenger
populations.
B.consumer populations than in producer
populations.
C. producer populations than in consumer
populations.
D. predator populations than in prey populations,
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
total energy is greater in producer populations than in consumer populations
Which of the following statements is true?
An atom consists of protons, electrons, and
neutrons.
An atom consists of protons and neutrons.
An atom consists of electrons bonded to one
another.
An atom consists of protons bonded to one
another.
Answer:
An atom consists of protons, electrons, and neutrons.
Explanation:
The atom of an element is its smallest indivisible particle that retains its chemical properties. Atom is the fundamental and basic unit of matter.
The structure of an atom is made up of a positively charged PROTON, a neutrally charged NEUTRON (both contained in the nucleus) and a negatively charged ELECTRON that surrounds the nucleus. These three particles are called sub-atomic particles. The arrangement and number of these sub-atomic particles determine the properties of the atom.
First Question, A, An atom consists of protons, electrons, and neutrons.
Second Question, B, A nucleus consists of protons and neutrons.
edge
Describe at least 2 benefits and 2 drawbacks there might be for animal cells (including humans) to make their own food through photosynthesis.
Answer:
Explanation:
Benefits
Animals will not depend on plant source again for their food but have it produced directly by themselves because photosynthesis will allow animal produce their own food
Animal will get a direct source of energy for their activities. Energy is derived from food consumed after the food has been broken down in the body system of animal. Animal photosynthesis will give animals access to direct source of energy as the product their food.
Demerit
Animal lacks chlorophyll the green. Pigment in plant that light hit on absorption that will enable them to photosynthesis.
Animal lacks ways or mechanism of regulating Carbondioxide in take as in the case of C4 plant and crassulacean metabolic pathway (CAM).
Animals such as human will not have access to varieties of food but stick to photosynthate produced by them.
The anticodon (Select all that apply):
a. is a triplet of nucleotides in tRNA
b. determines the identity of the amino acid to be added to the peptide chain
c. is complementary to the codon
d. binds to the codon via hydrogen bonds
Answer:
choice A
Explanation:
An anticodon is a trinucleotide sequence complementary to that of a corresponding codon in a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence. An anticodon is found at one end of a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule.
if a short sequence of dna reads 3'TAACGTCCAGGCAAA5', what is the complementary sequence in the other strand of dna g
Answer:
5' ATTGCAGGTCCGTTT 3'
Explanation:
Complimentary strands of DNA run anti-parallel to each other, the ends facing in opposite directions.
The complimentary base pairs for DNA are:
A=T and C=G and when finding the complimentary strand these pairs are only paired with each other.
On April 26, 1986, Reactor 4 at the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Station in Ukraine exploded, releasing radioactive isotopes into the air. The majority of the isotopes that were released and spreading thousands of miles were of the element iodine. As a class, discuss what endocrine glands would be most affected and how it would become apparent in the nearby population.
Answer:
In the given case, the thyroid gland will be affected the most due to the exposure of the element iodine. For the synthesis of thyroid gland hormone, T3 and T4 iodine is required. As the exposure of the radioactive iodine element is taking place, therefore, it will result in the deterioration of the thyroid gland. Radioactive iodine is generally used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism.
However, in normal individuals, the exposure of the radioactive iodine element results in a decrease in the level of thyroid hormones below the normal level due to the destruction of the thyroid cells. The symptoms seen can be neck tenderness, swollen salivary gland, and loss in body weight.
The thyroid gland will be mostly affected in this case. The element Iodine is
the major precursor which is involved in the formation of two hormones.
Thyroid hormonesTriiodothyronine (T3)Thyroxine (T4).When an individual is exposed to radioactive iodine , it alters the production
of the hormones which leads to series of effects such as:
Decreased metabolismLow body weightGoitre etc.Read more about Thyroid hormones here https://brainly.com/question/2469666
