Answer:
Nautical1. Journal Entries:
March 1:
Debit Cash Account $35,100
Credit Common Stock $35,100
To record the issue of 2,700 shares of common stock for $13 per share.
April 1:
Debit Cash Account $6,475
Credit Preferred STock $6,475
To record the issue of 175 shares of preferred stock for $37 per share.
June 1:
Debit Dividends $2,280
Credit Dividends Payable $2,280
To record dividends of $0.40 per share to all stockholders of record.
June 30:
Debit Dividends Payable $2,280
Credit Cash Account $2,280
To record the payment of cash dividends.
August 1:
Debit Treasury Stock $1,750
Credit Cash Account $1,750
To record the repurchase of 175 shares of common stock for $10 per share.
October 1:
Debit Cash Account $1,500
Credit Treasury Stock Account $1,500
To record the reissue of 125 shares of treasury stock for $12 per share.
2. Selection of whether each of these transactions would increase (+), decrease (?), on total assets, total liabilities, and total stockholders' equity:
Transaction Assets Liabilities Stockholders
Total Total Total Equity
Issue common stock $35,100 +$35,100 +$35,000
Issue preferred stock $6,475 +$6,475 +$6,475
Declare cash dividends $2,280 +$2,280 ?$2,280
Pay cash dividends $2,280 ?$2,280 ?$2,280
Repurchase treasury stock $1,750 ?$1,750 ?$1,750
Reissue treasury stock $1,500 +$1,500 +$1,500
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Authorized share capital:
$10 par preferred
$1 par value common
Issued, beginning of 2015:
Preferred = 125 shares
Common = 2,700 shares
b) The issue of 2,700 additional shares of common stock for $13 per share totalled $35,100. This amount is credited to the Common Stock and the receipt of cash debited to the Cash Account. The same is applicable with respect to the 175 additional shares issued at $37 per share.
c) When a cash dividend is declared, the stockholders of record on the record date of June 15 are noted, since they are the only ones that will participate in the dividends. The accounting records are debit to the dividend account and a credit to the Dividends Payable account, establishing the liability. The payment for the declared dividend is recorded with a debit to the Dividends Payable account to close the liability and a credit to the Cash Account.
d) Treasury stock is a stock of common stock repurchased by the company. The issue and reissue of treasury stock are treated in the treasury stock account if the costing method is used, otherwise, the par-value method would be operational.
Suppose a shortage in materials results in decrease in the supply of golf balls in the United States of 5%. If the elasticity of demand of golf balls sold in the US is -0.8, the new equilibrium price will be
Answer:
price elasticity of supply (PES) = % change in quantity supplied / % change in price
PES = -0.8% change in quantity supplied = -5%-5% = -0.8 / % change in price
% change in price = -0.8 / -5% = 16%
we are not given the initial price of the golf balls and I looked for similar questions but couldn't find any. But assuming that the initial price is $1, then the new price = $1 x (1 + 16%) = $1.16. If the initial price was $2, then new price = $2 x (1 + 16%) = $2.32. And son on.
Online B2B enables companies to enhance their performance by Multiple Choice reducing procurement costs. making supply-chain management unnecessary. making looser inventory control possible. lengthening order cycle time.
Answer:
reducing procurement costs.
Explanation:
Online business to business (B2B) marketing enables companies to enhance their performance by reducing procurement costs.
An online business to business (B2B) can be defined as a type of market where a business sells goods and services to another business online.
In an online business to business marketing or e-commerce, the cost of buying a product is usually lesser when compared to other channels of sales because the seller do not have to charge so much as sales are usually transparent and done automatically.
Hence, companies that are engaged in B2B are able to improve their performance and cut down the costs of procurement for goods and services.
A company purchased property for a building site. The costs associated with the property were: What portion of these costs should be allocated to the cost of the land and what portion should be allocated to the cost of the new building?
Answer:
The question is incomplete, below is a possible match of the complete question:
a company purchased property for a building site. the costs associated with the property were:
purchase price $175,00
real estate commisions $15,000
legal fees 800
expenses of clearing the land 2,000
expenses to remove old building 1,000
what portion of these costs should be allocated to the cost of the land and what portion should be allocated to the cost of the new building?
Answer:
cost allocated to land = $193,800
cost allocated to new building = $0
Explanation:
The expenses associated with the ost of land purchase are all the necessary expenses made in the purchase of the land and in getting the land ready for use. These include legal fees, cost of clearing the land, cost of removing old structures etc. Therefore cost allocated to land is calculated as follows:
cost of land = purchase price + real estate commissions + legal fees + expenses of clearing the land + expenses to remove old building.
cost of land = 175,000 + 15,000 + 800 + 2,000 + 1,000 = $193,800
∴ cost of land = $193,800
cost of new building = $0
There is no transaction associated directly with setting up the new building, all the costs were associated with the acquisition of the land, hence the cost os the new building is $0
Lacy's Linen Mart uses the average cost retail method to estimate inventories. Data for the first six months of 2021 include: beginning inventory at cost and retail were $60,000 and $120,000, net purchases at cost and retail were $312,000 and $480,000, and sales during the first six months totaled $490,000. The estimated inventory at June 30, 2021, would be:
Answer: $68,200
Explanation:
Estimated inventory = Difference between Goods available for Sale at Retail Price and Actual Sales made * Cost Retail Ratio
Retail value of Goods Available for Sale
= Retail Price of Beginning Inventory + Retail price of Purchases
= 120,000 + 480,000
= $600,000
Difference between Goods available for Sale at Retail Price and Actual Sales made
= 600,000 - 490,000
= $110,000
Cost to retail price ratio
= (Cost of Beginning Inventory + Cost of Purchases) / (Retail Price of Beginning Inventory + Retail Price of Purchases)
= (60,000 + 312,000) / (120,000 + 480,000)
= 62%
Ending inventory
= 110,000 × 62%
= $68,200
g Once supply side effects are taken into account, tax cuts for labor income can change i. the supply of labor ii. potential GDP. iii. the growth rate of potential GDP.
Answer:
i, ii
Explanation:
a Tax is a compulsory sum levied by the government on income, goods or services. A tax cut would increase the supply of labour. As a result, the supply of labour would increase. As a result of the increase in labour, there would be an increase in potential GDP
Suppose Hyperpolis’s GDP increases by 15% and its inflation rate is 12%, while Superpolis’s GDP increases by 6% and its inflation rate is 3%. Assuming the population in both countries remained constant, which economy grew faster?
Answer: c) Both economies grew at the same rate
Explanation:
The faster growing economy would be the one that saw a greater increase in Real GDP than the other.
Real GDP growth = Nominal GDP growth - Inflation growth.
Hyperpolis Real GDP growth = 15% - 12%
Hyperpolis Real GDP growth = 3%
Superpolis Real GDP growth = 6% - 3%
Superpolis Real GDP growth = 3%
Both countries grew at the same rate of 3%.
Oligopoly firms will seldom change prices but if one firm increases their price, others may follow if costs have ____________ .
Answer:
decreased
Explanation:
if firms have decreased then it would be likely to follow other firms to increase popularity
Oligopoly firms will seldom change prices but if one firm increases its price, others may follow if costs have Decreased.
What is Oligopoly?A market structure known as an oligopoly has a limited number of enterprises, none of which can prevent the others from having a large impact. The market share of the major companies is calculated using the concentration ratio.
A market with a monopoly has only one producer, a duopoly has two businesses, and an oligopoly has three or more businesses. The maximum number of firms in an oligopoly is unknown, but it must be low enough so that each firm's actions have a significant impact on the others.
In the past, oligopolies have existed in the steel industry, the oil industry, the railroad industry, the tire industry, grocery store chains, and the wireless industry. An oligopoly can prevent new competitors from entering the market, stifle innovation, and raise prices, all of which are detrimental to consumers.
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The Closed Fund is a closed-end investment company with a portfolio currently worth $200 million. It has liabilities of $3 million and 5 million shares outstanding.Required:a. What is the NAV of the fund? b. If the fund sells for $36 per share, what is its premium or discount as a percent of NAV?
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
a. NAV of the fund is
= (Portfolio amount - liabilities) ÷ (outstanding shares)
= ($200 - $3) ÷ ($5)
= $39.40
b. The premium or discount as a percent of NAV is
= (Price - net asset value) ÷ (net asset value)
= ($36 - $39.40) ÷ ($39.40)
= -0.086
This represents the discount of 8.6%
We applied the above formulas
Gideon Company uses the direct write-off method of accounting for uncollectible accounts. On May 3, the Gideon Company wrote off the $2,000 uncollectible account of its customer, A. Hopkins. The entry or entries Gideon makes to record the write off of the account on May 3 is
Answer and Explanation:
The Journal entry is shown below:-
Bad debts expense Dr, $2,000
To Accounts receivable-Hopkins $2,000
(Being write off is recorded)
Here we debited the bad debt expenses as it increased the expenses and we credited the accounts receivable as it reduced the assets so that the proper posting could be done
Suppose Real GDP is $700 billion and Natural Real GDP is $620 billion. To eliminate this ________________gap, Keynesian theory indicates that government should ______________________.
Answer: d. inflationary; decrease government purchases or increase taxes
Explanation:
Suppose Real GDP is $700 billion and Natural Real GDP is $620 billion. To eliminate this inflationary gap, Keynesian theory indicates that government should decrease government purchases or increase taxes.
The Real GDP is greater than the Natural real GDP which is the potential GDP. When that happens the Economy is said to be overheated and producing above its limits as Aggregate Demand is above Aggregate Supply.
To combat this the Government according to Keynes should embark on policy that will reduce economic activity. The Government can use Contractionary Fiscal Policy that will see it reduce its spending and/or increase taxes. Both of these will have the effect of reducing the amount of money in the economy left for both investment and consumption and cause a fall in the Aggregate Demand.
Praveen Co. manufactures and markets a number of rope products. Management is considering the future of Product XT, a special rope for hang gliding, that has not been as profitable as planned. Since Product XT is manufactured and marketed independently of the other products, its total costs can be precisely measured. Next year’s plans call for a $350 selling price per 100 yards of XT rope. Its fixed costs for the year are expected to be $315,000, up to a maximum capacity of 550,000 yards of rope. Forecasted variable costs are $245 per 100 yards of XT rope.
Required:
1. Estimate Product XT's break-even point in terms of (a) sales units and (b) sales dollars.
2. Prepare a CVP chart for Product XT. Use 7,000 units (700,000 yards/100 maximum number of sales units on the horizontal axis of the graph, and $1,400,000 as the maximum dollar amount on the vertical axis.
3. Prepare a contribution margin income statement showing sales, variable costs, and fixed costs for Product XT at the break-even point.
Answer:
1a. 3,000 units
1b. $1,050,000
2. See attachment.
3. contribution margin income statement
Sales ($350 × 7,000 units) $2,450,000
Less Variable Cost ($245 × 7,000 units)) ($1,715,000)
Contribution $735,000
Less Fixed Costs ( $315,000)
Operating Profit $420,000
Explanation:
Break-even point (sales units ) = Fixed Cost ÷ Contribution per unit
= $315,000 ÷ ($350 - $245)
= 3,000
Break-even point (sales dollars) = Fixed Cost ÷ Contribution Margin Ratio
= $315,000 ÷ ($105/$350)
= $1,050,000
Indicate the proper accounting treatment for a change in the rate used to compute warranty costs.
a. Accounted for prospectively
b. Accounted for retrospectively
Answer:
a. Accounted for prospectively
Explanation:
Warranty cost is an expense i.e. to be incurred for the repair or replacement of the goods comes under the warranty given by the company.
Here if there is a change in the rate i.e. used for determining the warranty cost so it would be accounted in prospectively manner i.e. it would be changed in the current period and also the amount should be estimated or predicted
Hence, the correct option is a.
Carla Vista Enterprises buys back 600,000 shares of its stock from investors at $6.50 a share. Two years later, it reissues this stock for $6.00 a share. The stock reissue would be recorded with a debit to Cash for:
Answer:
The stock reissue would be recorded with a debit to Cash for $3,600,000, a debit to additional Paid in capital $300,000 and Credit to treasury stock $3,900,000
Explanation:
Description Debit$ Credit$
Cash 3,600,000
(600,000 * $6.00)
Additional Paid in capital 300,000
(600,000 x $0.50)
Treasury stock 3,900,000
(600,000 * 6.50)
"The technique which identifies the time period required to recover the cost of the investment is called the" ________________ method.
Answer:
Cash payback method
Explanation:
Cash payback technique is a method used by financial experts to analyse capital projects to see which ones they can invest in and which one to avoid.
This method is used to estimate the time it will take for a project to recoup the original cost of investment. It estimated when a business will payoff initial cost and start giving the investor profit.
Cash payback is easy to calculate
Cash payback = (Initial investment) ÷ (Estimated cash inflows each year)
Shorter cash payback is favourable as the investor gets back initial cost in a shorter period.
In the Assembly Department of Hannon Company, budgeted and actual manufacturing overhead costs for the month of April 2017 were as follows.
Budget Actual
Indirect materials $14,200 $13,700
Indirect labor 19,100 19,900
Utilities 11,400 12,100
Supervision 4,600 4,600
All costs are controllable by the department manager.
Prepare a responsibility report for April for the cost center.
Answer:
HANNON COMPANY
Assembly Department
Manufacturing Overhead Cost Responsibility Report
For the Month Ended April 30,2017
Controllable Cost Budget$ Actual$ Difference$ Remark
Indirect materials 14,200 13,700 500 Favourable
Indirect Labor 19,100 19,900 -800 Unfavourable
Utilities 11,400 12,100 -700 Unfavourable
Supervision 4,600 4,600 0 None
Total 49,300 50,300 -1,000 Unfavourable
Entries for Stock Investments, Dividends, and Sale of Stock Seamus Industries Inc. buys and sells investments as part of its ongoing cash management. The following investment transactions were completed during the year:
Feb. 24 Acquired 1,000 shares of Tett Co. stock for $85 per share plus a $150 brokerage commission.
May 16 Acquired 2,500 shares of Issacson Co. stock for $36 per share plus a $100 commission.
July 14 Sold 400 shares of Tett Co. stock for $100 per share less a $75 brokerage commission.
Aug. 12 Sold 750 shares of Issacson Co. stock for $32.50 per share less an $80 brokerage commission.
Oct. 31 Received dividends of $0.40 per share on Tett Co. stock.
Required:
Journalize the entries for these transactions.
Answer:
Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit$ Credit$
Feb 24. Investment - Company T 85,150
Cash {(1,000 * $85) + $150} 85.150
(To record the purchase of stock)
May 16 Investment - Company I 90,100
Cash{(2,500 * $36) + $100) 90,100
(To record the purchase of stock)
June 14 Cash{(400 * $100) - $75} 39,925
Investment {($85,150 * (400/1,000)} 34,060
Gain on sales of investment 5,865
(To record the sale of stock)
Aug 12. Cash {(750 * $32.50) - $80} 24,295
Loss on sale of investment 2,735
Investment {$90,100 * (750/1,500)} 27,030
(To record the sale of stock)
Oct 31 Cash ($0.4 * 600) 240
Dividend income 240
(To record dividend income)
Why must corporate managers use multiple techniques of project evaluation? Which technique is most commonly used and why? Describe several ways you may be able to use the techniques above as you progress in your professional career.
Answer:
The most important technique for project evaluation is the net present value (NPV) which compares the present value of discounted cash flows against the initial costs associated with the project. The other two most important techniques used are the payback period (either regular or discounted) and the internal rate of return (IRR).
Depending on the company's needs, sometimes one technique might be used instead of others. E.g. technological firms generally use the payback period because most of their projects have a very short life, 1 or 2 years. Other times, you might have to compare different projects and even if they are not mutually exclusive, no company can dispose of money freely. It only invests in certain projects that have a minimum required rate of return.
But the basic technique, the NPV, is the most relevant in a sense that no project with a negative NPV should be accepted.
Which of the following is not one of the benefits of outsourcing, whether domestically or internationally, value chain activities presently performed in-house? A. Preventing a company from hollowing out its technical know-how, competencies, or capabilities. B. Streamlining company operations in ways that improve organizational flexibility and cut the time it takes to get new products into the marketplace. C. Allowing a company to concentrate on its core business, leverage its key resources, and do even better what it already does best. D. Helping a company assemble diverse kinds of expertise easily and efficiently. E. Improving a company’s ability to innovate.
Answer: A. Preventing a company from hollowing out its technical know-how, competencies, or capabilities.
Explanation:
Outsourcing is the practice whereby organizations hire an outside party to help do certain functions wguvg could have been done by the workers in the organization but outsourced in order to focus on other production areas.
Out of the options given in the question, the one which is not a benefits of outsourcing, whether domestically or internationally, value chain activities presently performed in-house is that "preventing a company from hollowing out its technical know-how, competencies, or capabilities".
Preventing a company from hollowing out its technical know-how, competencies, or capabilities is not benefits of outsourcing, hence option A is correct.
Outsourcing is the process of hiring an outside party to assist with some duties that might have been performed by employees within the firm but were outsourced in order to focus on other areas of production.
"Preventing a company from hollowing out its technical know-how, competencies, or capabilities" is not a benefit of outsourcing, whether domestically or internationally, value chain tasks now conducted in-house.
Thus, the option A is correct.
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Crane Corporation has 2,000 shares of stock outstanding. It redeems 500 shares for $370,000 when it has paid-in capital of $300,000 and E & P of $1,200,000. The redemption qualifies for sale or exchange treatment for the shareholder. Crane incurred $13,000 of accounting and legal fees in connection with the redemption transaction and $18,500 of interest expense on debt incurred to finance the redemption. What is the effect of the distribution on Crane Corporation's E & P? Also, what is the proper tax treatment of the redemption expenditures?
Answer:
E&P $1,200,000 × 25%= $300,000 reduction
Crane Corporation would reduce its E & P in the amount of $300,000 as a result of the redemption.
This represents a 25% decrease in the amount of the E & P corresponding to the 25% stock redemption.
When a stock redemption results in sale or exchange treatment for the shareholder, the E & P account of a corporation is reduced in an amount not in excess of the ratable share of the E & P of the distributing corporation attributable to the stock redeemed.
As such, none of the expense of $13,000 of accounting and legal fees or other is deductible.
A list of financial statement items for Splish Brothers Inc. includes the following: accounts receivable $30,100, prepaid insurance $5,590, cash $22,360, supplies $8,170, and debt investments (short-term) $17,630.
Prepare the current assets section of the balance sheet listing the items in the proper sequence.
(List current assets in order of liquidity.)
Answer: Please find answers below
Explanation:
The Order of liquidity shows how assets of a company are presented in a balance sheet in an order that shows the faster the time taken for an asset to be converted to Cash.
The order in which Current accounts are represented as as follows
--- Cash (including currency, checking accounts, and petty cash),
----Short-term investments ,
----Accounts receivable,
---- Inventory,
-----Supplies,
----- Pre-paid expenses.
Current Assets of Splish Brothers Inc. in order of liquidity
Current Assets Amount
Cash $22,360
Debt investments(short term) $17,630
Accounts receivables $30,100
Supplies $8,170
Prepaid Insurance $5,590
Total Current Accounts $83,850
An investor has a $1,000,000 portfolio that is split evenly between "blue chip" stocks and Treasury securities. The current economic environment is characterized by low interest rates and flat stock prices - and this is expected to remain unchanged for a number of years. However, the residential and commercial real estate market is expected to be strong. The investor would like to diversify the portfolio and enhance returns without adding much additional risk. Which of the following investment purchase recommendations would help achieve this objective?A. Mortgage REITsB. Mortgage BondsC. Equity REITsD. Fannie Mae Pass-Through Certificates
Answer:
Correct Answer:
B. Mortgage Bonds
Explanation:
Since residential and commercial real estate market is expected to be strong for a number of years, the best investment would be a mortage bond.
A mortgage bond is a bond in which holders have a claim on the real estate assets put up as its collateral. The lender might sell a collection of mortgage bonds to an investor, who then collects the interest payments on each mortgage until it's paid off. If the mortgage owner defaults, the bondholder gets her house.
Martin Farley and Ashley Clark formed a limited liability company with an operating agreement that provided a salary allowance of $70,000 and $56,000 to each member, respectively. In addition, the operating agreement specified an income-sharing ratio of 3:2. The two members withdrew amounts equal to their salary allowances. Revenues were $668,000 and expenses were $520,000, for a net income of $148,000. a. Determine the division of $148,000 net income for the year. Schedule of Division of Net Income Farley Clark Total Salary allowance $ $ $ Remaining income Net income $ $ $ b. Provide journal entries to close the (1) revenues and expenses and (2) drawing accounts for the two members. For a compound transaction, if an amount box does not require an entry, leave it blank.
Answer:
a) Farley should get $83,200
Clark should get $64,800
b) December 31, closing entry income summary account
Dr Income summary 148,000
Cr Farley, Martin, capital 83,200
Cr Clark, Ashley, capital 64,800
Explanation:
Martin Farley:
$70,000 salary allowance
60% of remaining income
Ashley Clark:
$56,000 salary allowance
40% of remaining income
if net income = $148,000, then:
Farley should get $70,000 + (60% x $22,000) = $83,200
Clark should get $56,000 + (40% x $22,000) = $64,800
Suspect Corp. issued a bond with a maturity of 30 years and a semiannual coupon rate of 6 percent 4 years ago. The bond currently sells for 95 percent of its face value. The book value of the debt issue is $45 million. In addition, the company has a second debt issue on the market, a zero coupon bond with 15 years left to maturity; the book value of this issue is $50 million and the bonds sell for 54 percent of par. The company’s tax rate is 40 percent.Required:a. What is the company’s total book value of debt?b. What is the company’s total market value of debt? c. What is your best estimate of the aftertax cost of debt?
Answer and Explanation:
The computation of each point is shown below:-
But before that we need to do the following calculations
First Issue of Bonds:
Face Value = $45,000,000
Market Value = 95% × $45,000,000
= $42,750,000
Annual Coupon Rate = 6%
Semiannual Coupon Rate = 3%
= 3% × $45,000,000
= $1,350,000
Time to Maturity = 26 years
Semiannual Period to Maturity = 52
Let semiannual YTM be i%
$42,750,000 = $1,350,000 × PVIFA(i%, 52) + $45,000,000 × PVIF(i%, 52)
N = 52
PV = -42750000
PMT = 1350000
FV = 45000000
I = 3.20%
Semiannual YTM = 3.20%
Annual YTM = 2 × 3.20%
Annual YTM = 6.40%
Before-tax Cost of Debt = 6.40%
After-tax Cost of Debt = 6.40% × (1 - 0.40)
= 3.84%
Second Issue of Bonds:
Face Value = $50,000,000
Market Value = 54% × $50,000,000
= $27,000,000
Time to Maturity = 15 years
Semiannual Period to Maturity = 30
Let semiannual YTM be i%
$27,000,000 = $50,000,000 × PVIF(i%, 30)
Using a financial calculator:
N = 30
PV = -27000000
PMT = 0
FV = 50000000
I = 2.075%
Semiannual YTM = 2.075%
Annual YTM = 2 × 2.075%
= 4.15%
Before-tax Cost of Debt = 4.15%
After-tax Cost of Debt = 4.15% × (1 - 0.40)
= 2.49%
a. The total book value of debt is
Total Book Value of Debt = $45,000,000 + $50,000,000
= $95,000,000
b. The total market value of debt is
Total Market Value of Debt = $42,750,000 + $27,000,000
= $69,750,000
c. The estimate of the aftertax cost of debt is
Weight of first Issue of Debt is
= $42,750,000 ÷ $69,750,000
= 0.6129
Weight of second issue of Debt
= $27,000,000 ÷ $69,750,000
= 0.3871
So,
Estimated After-tax Cost of Debt is
= 0.6129 × 3.84% + 0.3871 × 2.49%
= 3.32%
If a beneficiary wants to make sure that the life insurance proceeds being paid out are not exhausted before he or she dies, the beneficiary would choose which of the following settlement options?
a. Fixed amount
b. Fixed income
c. Fixed time
d. Fixed period
Answer:
Option d. Fixed period
Explanation:
time is very essential. Anytime the policy owner specifies payment to be guaranteed for a specific period regardless of who is the beneficiary, policy owner or who receive the payment,is the fixed period settlement option.
Anything that occur to annuity after the owner's death is dependent on the type of annuity and its payout plan.
A fixed-period, is that which is for a certain period of time. the annuity guarantees payments to the annuitant for a set length of time. example is about 10, 15, or 20 years and case payments will continue to be paid to the beneficiary until the time given or period is due or when account’s balance reaches zero.
Draiman Guitars is offering 110,000 shares of stock in an IPO by a general cash offer. The offer price is $39 per share and the underwriter's spread is 8 percent. The administrative costs are $350,000. What are the net proceeds to the company?
Answer:
$3,596,800
Explanation:
The computation of net proceeds to the company is shown below:-
Net proceeds = Number of shares of stock × Offer price × (1 - Underwriter spread percent) - Administrative cost
= 110,000 × $39 × (1- 0.08) - $350,000
= 110,000 × $39 × 0.92 - $350,000
= $3,946,800 - $350,000
= $3,596,800
So, for determining the net proceeds we simply applied the above formula.
The maximum tax rate on estates and gifts: Question 7 options: is gradually increasing. has remained constant. is gradually declining. has increased sharply.
Is gradually declining.
Suppose that the risk-free rates in the United States and in the United Kingdom are 6% and 4%, respectively. The spot exchange rate between the dollar and the pound is $1.60/BP. What should the futures price of the pound for a one-year contract be to prevent arbitrage opportunities, ignoring transactions costs. Group of answer choices $1.63/BP $1.57/BP $1.60/BP $1.66/BP $1.70/BP
Answer:
$1.57/BP
Explanation:
Calculation for the futures price of the pound for a one-year contract.
Using this formula
Futures price =Spot exchange rate×(1+Risk-free rates in United States/1+Risk-free rates in United Kingdom
Let plug in the formula
Futures price=$1.60×(1.04/1.06)
Futures price= $1.60×(0.9811)
Futures price=$1.57/BP
Therefore the futures price of the pound for a one-year contract to prevent arbitrage opportunities will be $1.57/BP.
The infant industry argument says that Question 7 options: tariffs should be imposed to allow a new industry in a country to get established. imports should target new products from other countries to take advantage of the transmission of new ideas. dumping should be allowed in order to establish a presence of an industry that has previously not had a presence in another country. countries should produce and trade goods according to their comparative advantage.
Answer:
The infant industry argument says that Question 7 options:
tariffs should be imposed to allow a new industry in a country to get established.
Explanation:
The argument for the infant industry protectionism suggests that the imposition of tariffs on imports gives a new industry in the country the required breathing space it requires to develop, grow, and be established before it can face competitive forces from outside, which imports imply. Since newly formed industries often do not command the economies of scale and learning experience that their competitors from other countries may have, therefore, they need to be singularly shaded from external competition until they have achieved similar economies of scale and learning curve. But, can they attain any competitive edge without learning from competitors?
A 65-year old widow that is in a low tax bracket and that has a low risk tolerance wishes to make an investment that will provide income. Which is the BEST recommendation
Answer:
Bank Certificate of Deposit (CD)
Explanation:
For the 65-year old widow in this scenario, the best recommendation would be a Bank Certificate of Deposit (CD). A traditional Bank CD is a time-bound deposit, in which you enter into an agreement to let the bank use your money for a fixed period of time, and in return, the bank pays you a higher interest rate than it would for a traditional savings account. Thus providing a good income with very low risk.
Webcom. Inc. had the following current assets and current liabilities at the end of two recent years:
Current Year (in millions) Previous Year (in millions)
Cash and cash equivalents $8,297 $4,067
Short-term investments, at cost 422 458
Accounts and notes receivable, net 7,041 6,912
Inventories 3,581 3,827
Prepaid expenses and other current assets 1,479 2,377
Short-term obligations 4,815 6,205
Accounts payable 12,774 11,949
Requried:
a. What is the Current Ratio for the current year?
b. What is the Current Ratio for the preceding year?
c. What is the Quick Ratio for the current year?
d. What is the Quick Ratio for the preceding year?
e. What is the Working Capital for the current year?
f. What is the Working Capital for the preceding year?
Answer:
a. Current Ratio for the current year = 1.18
b. Current Ratio for the preceding year = 0.97
c. Quick Ratio for the current year = 0.98
d. Quick Ratio for the preceding year = 0.76
e. Working Capital for the current year = $3,231
f. Working Capital for the preceding year = –$513
Explanation:
Based on the information provided in the question, we first state the following formula to be used before answering the question:
Current asset = Cash and cash equivalents + Short-term investments, at cost + Accounts and notes receivable, net + Inventories + Prepaid expenses and other current assets ................... (1)
Current liabilities = Short-term obligations + Accounts payable ................. (2)
Current ratio = Current assets / Current liabilities ............................ (3)
Quick Ratio = (Current assets - Inventory) / Current liabilities ............... (4)
Working capital = Current assets - Current Liabilities ........................... (5)
We now calculate the answers as follows:
a. What is the Current Ratio for the current year?
Using equation (1), we have:
Current asset for the current year (in millions) = $8,297 + $422 + $7,041 + $3,581 + $1,479 = $20,820
Using equation (2), we have:
Current liabilities for the current year (in millions) = $4,815 + $12,774 = $17,589
Using equation (3), we have:
Current ratio for the current year = $20,820 / $17,589 = 1.18
b. What is the Current Ratio for the preceding year?
Using equation (1), we have:
Current asset for the preceding year (in millions) = $4,067 + $458 + $6,912 + $3,827 + $2,377 = $17,641
Using equation (2), we have:
Current liabilities for the preceding year (in millions) = $6,205 + $11,949 = $18,154
Using equation (3), we have:
Current ratio for the preceding year = $17,641 / 18,154 = 0.97
c. What is the Quick Ratio for the current year?
Using equation (4) and calculations from part a, we have:
Quick Ratio for the current year = ($20,820 - 3,581) / $17,589 = 0.98
d. What is the Quick Ratio for the preceding year?
Using equation (4) and calculations from part b, we have:
Quick Ratio for the preceding year = ($17,641 - 3,827) / $18,154 = 0.76
e. What is the Working Capital for the current year?
Using equation (5) and calculations from part a, we have:
Working Capital for the current year = $20,820 - $17,589 =$3,231
f. What is the Working Capital for the preceding year?
Using equation (5) and calculations from part b, we have:
Working Capital for the preceding year = $17,641 - $18,154 = –$513
