nutrients are group of answer choices units of measure that indicate the amount of energy in a particular food. the healthful compounds found in vitamins and minerals. made up of three basic food groups: proteins, carbohydrates, and fats. the constituents in food that the body requires to function properly.

Answers

Answer 1

The components of food known as nutrients are what the body needs to function effectively. Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, and minerals are just a few of the different types of nutrients found in food.

They are crucial for the structure, operation, control, and repair of the body's tissues and organs and carry out the majority of their job within cells. The body gets its energy from fats. Each gramme of fat has more than twice as many calories as a gramme of protein or carbohydrate (9 kcal per gram). Vitamins aid in the control of bodily chemical processes. They aid in warding off infections and keeping our bodies healthy. Minerals are nutritional ingredients that are essential to numerous bodily processes. They are crucial for maintaining optimum health and ensuring that the body develops properly.

Thus, it can be said that the nutrients found in food are what the body requires to function properly. Among the many different types of nutrients present in food are vitamins, minerals, lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and a host of other substances.

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Related Questions

Will I catch a dry socket if I spat 4 times after my dental extraction and I nearly drank with a straw & almost ate on my left tooth side where my tooth was extracted?

Answers

you should be okay but try to avoid sucking or blowing motions with your mouth such as straws etc.

They works by entering a cell of the body, known as the host cell, and producing more. It kill the host cell and spread throughout the body. Antibiotics do not work against.


Bacteria


Viruses



Hypertension​

Answers

The answer is viruses

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute osteomyelitis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority?
a. Provide the client with antipyretic therapy
b. Administer antibiotics to the client
c. Increase the client's protein intake
d. Teach relaxation breathing to reduce pain

Answers

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute osteomyelitis.- Administer antibiotics to the client is the nurse's priority

A fresh bone infection is referred to clinically as acute osteomyelitis. This infection primarily affects children and is frequently spread hematogenously. Adult cases of osteomyelitis typically involve a subacute or chronic infection that results from an open wound to the bone and nearby soft tissue. Staphylococcus bacteria, types of germs frequently found on the skin or in the nose of even healthy people, are what cause the majority of cases of osteomyelitis. Osteomyelitis treatment aims to eradicate the infection and reduce any long-term side effects.

Treatment options include Medications. intravenous (IV) antibiotic administration, which may necessitate hospitalization or may be done on an outpatient basis.

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A nurse is evaluating teaching on a client who has a new prescription for montelukast to treat asthma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?A. "I'll rinse my mouth after taking this medication."B. "I'll take this medication when I get an asthma attack."C. "I'll take this medication once a day in the evening."D. "I'll use a spacer device when I inhale this medication."

Answers

The answer for the question is (C) "I'll take this medication once a day in the evening for montelukast to treat asthma.

Montelukast is a drug used in the maintenance treatment of asthma and is marketed under the trade names Singulair and others. In comparison to inhaled corticosteroids, it is typically less favoured for this application. To treat severe asthma attacks, it is useless. Other applications include long-lasting hives and allergic rhinitis. It is a second-line therapy for allergic rhinitis. Headache, cough, and abdominal pain are typical adverse effects. Allergic reactions, such as anaphylaxis and eosinophilia, can have serious side consequences. Pregnancy use seems to be safe. The leukotriene receptor antagonist class of drugs includes montelukast. It functions by preventing leukotriene D4 from acting in the lungs, which reduces inflammation and relaxes smooth muscle.

Asthma, exercise-induced bronchospasm, allergic rhinitis, and urticaria are among the disorders for which montelukast is used. It is mostly used as a supplemental therapy in adults in addition to inhaled corticosteroids, if inhaled steroids alone do not have the desired effect.

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Experiencing acute stress on a frequent basis, such as with back-to-back tight deadlines at work, is referred to as what type of stress?

A. Toxic stress
B. Chronic stress
C. Eustress
D. Episodic stress

Answers

Answer:

B. Chronic stress

Explanation:

Chronic stress is the result of experiencing acute stress on a frequent basis, such as with back-to-back tight deadlines at work. Chronic stress can have a negative impact on both physical and mental health, and it can lead to a wide range of health problems, such as headaches, high blood pressure, heart disease, and depression. To manage chronic stress, it is important to find ways to reduce stress, such as by practicing relaxation techniques, exercising regularly, and getting enough sleep. It can also be helpful to talk to a mental health professional for additional support and guidance.

A nurse is planning care for a client who is having modified radical mastectomy of the right breast. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Instruct the client that the drain will be removed when there is 25 mL of output or less over a 24-hr period.
B. Assist the client to start arm exercises 48 hr after surgery.
C. Maintain the right arm in an extended position at the client's side when in bed.
D. Place the client in a supine position for the first 24 hr after surgery.

Answers

The client should be told by the nurse that the drain will be taken out when there is 25 mL or less of output in a 24-hour period having radical mastectomy.

What's the difference between a mastectomy and a radical mastectomy?

A basic mastectomy (left) just removes the skin, breast tissue, nipple, and areola; it leaves some lymph nodes behind. The entire breast, along with the breast tissue, skin, areola, and nipple, as well as the majority of the arm (axillary) lymph nodes, are removed during a modified radical mastectomy (right).

How long is the recovery from a radical mastectomy?

Most patients who undergo a radical mastectomy spend 1-2 nights in the hospital. Recovery takes roughly 4 weeks when done at home.

Do nipples still get hard after mastectomy?

After NSM, the nipple will always be upright. Sensitivity loss: The nerves that regulate feeling and sensation in the nipple/areola are lost along with the rest of the breast tissue, but the nipple/areola remains.

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What is the leading cause of infant death in the United States?

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The leading cause of infant death in the United States is prematurity/low birthweight.

Low birth weight is most frequently caused by being born too early (premature birth). which means before thirty seven weeks of gestation. A newborn infant has less time within the mother's female internal reproductive organ (uterus) to grow and gain weight. abundant of a baby's weight is gained throughout the last weeks of gestation.

Infant death are deaths happen throughout the primary 6 months of a baby's life. Infants born untimely or with a coffee birthweight ar at bigger risk. SIDS additionally tends to be slightly a lot of common in baby boys. SIDS typically happens once a baby is asleep, though it will often happen whereas they are awake.

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a treatment aimed at alleviating the symptoms associated with early nslbp or preventing its progression is considered to be

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Secondary prevention is the use of a treatment that aims to reduce the signs and symptoms of early NSLBP or stop it from progressing.

NSLBP is a catch-all name for a range of somatic conditions that generate pain in the lumbosacral region (musculoskeletal dysfunctions). It can be described as lumbosacral pain that doesn't have a significantly identified pathophysiology.

In order to stop or limit the progression of disease or injury, secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment, encouragement of self-care practices to avoid reinjury or recurrence, and the implementation of initiatives to restore people to their prior levels of health and function.

There are three categories of preventative strategies: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Primary prevention refers to actions taken before a disease or illness even manifests. The focus of secondary prevention is on identifying disease risks and putting in place the specific testing required for early disease identification. Patients who have been diagnosed with a chronic condition are the focus of tertiary prevention, which also includes suggestions and initiatives to enhance their quality of life.

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Women who develop high glucose levels during pregnancy.


Type 2


Type 1


Gestational diabetes​

Answers

The answer is gestational diabetes

if someone routinely responds to stress with a learned helplessness response, their response will involve ___

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If someone routinely reacts to stress with a learned helplessness reaction, that reaction is involved. a passive resignation or passivity in the face of adversity.

Resignation is a psychological phenomenon in which an individual resigns himself or herself to a situation, often without actively participating in it. This typically occurs in situations where an individual does not have the power to make a change, or when they feel that the effort to do so is not worth the reward. Passive resignation is often characterized by feelings of helplessness and resignation, and may result in apathy or lack of motivation. It can also be a sign of learned helplessness, in which an individual becomes so accustomed to not being able to change a situation that they stop even trying.

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A therapist takes a very directive role in challenging the client; she even assigns homework to confront those beliefs and modify the client's behavior. She is probably a ________ therapist.
Rational emotive behavioral

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A therapist takes a very directive role in challenging the client; she even assigns homework to confront those beliefs and modify the client's behavior. She is probably a rational emotive behavioral therapist.

A therapist is someone who provides various types of therapy. Therapists are trained professionals who provide a variety of services, such as psychologists, social workers, counsellors, life coaches, and others. They are useful in counseling people with various mental and physical issues. A therapist or licensed counselor must pass a state licensure exam and should have a master's degree in addition to completing an internship with a practicing Supervisor.

Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT) was developed by Albert Ellis in the 1950s. It's a method for identifying irrational beliefs and negative thought patterns that can lead to emotional or behavioral problems. REBT is based on the premise that most people want to succeed in life. For example, you most likely want to achieve your goals and be happy.

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Type 2 diabetes is increasing greatly in the U.S. population as people become heavier and less physically active


True


False​

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Type 2 diabetes is increasing, and some of the cause is obistity.

Nurse preparing pt for a THA. For which of the following reasons should the nurse assess the client's vital signs?
To prevent postoperative hypotension
To determine how the client will tolerate the procedure
To assess the client's pain level
To establish a baseline for postoperative assessment

Answers

While Nurse preparing point for a THA, to establish a baseline for postoperative assessment should be the reason for nurse assess the client's vital signs.

Age-related variations in vital signs are often caused by altered physiological mechanisms. As we become older, our core body temperature tends to drop, and our body's capacity to adapt to various stresses decreases. Fever in an older patient frequently implies a more serious illness and is associated with a greater risk of life-threatening outcomes, thus even a small deviation from the primary body temperature might be a relevant result.

It takes time and experience to develop the clinical competence of accurately assessing vital signs. There is a wealth of information in the literature concerning the inter-observer variability seen and reported as a result of this skill's deficiency. When there is a significant or unexpected change in the vital signs, clinicians should be cautious of this and constantly recheck the vital signs themselves. Clinics and organizations should work hard to check and train their nursing and support personnel on a regular basis to improve these abilities.

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Which of the following characteristics is a known risk factor for the development of cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
High intake of soluble fiber
Low intake of trans fat
Increasing age
High intake of vitamin E

Answers

The known risk factor for the development of cardiovascular disease (CVD) is Increasing age. Option C is the correct answer.

What is cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

This refers to a collective name for explaining the disease of the heart or blood vessels. Blood flow to the heart, brain, or body can be reduced due to the following: blood clot (thrombosis) build-up of fatty deposits inside an artery, leading to the artery hardening and narrowing (atherosclerosis).

Possible risk factors for heart disease and stroke that is cardiovascular disease (CVD) are high blood pressure, high low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, diabetes, smoking, secondhand smoke exposure, obesity, unhealthy diet, and physical inactivity.

Note that Several health conditions, your lifestyle, and your age and family history can increase your risk for heart disease.

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give a brief overview to key aspects you learned through the emotional wellness curriculum about physical exercise. Good physical health habits. Nutrition, exercise, and appropriate health care. These make up the physical dimension of wellness. A few ways we can get there.

Answers

Answer:

Physical exercise is an important aspect of maintaining overall physical health and emotional well-being. Regular physical activity can help improve cardiovascular health, strengthen bones and muscles, improve flexibility and balance, and improve sleep. It can also help reduce the risk of developing certain chronic conditions, such as obesity, type 2 diabetes, and heart disease.

Good physical health habits, such as eating a well-balanced diet, getting enough sleep, and engaging in regular physical activity, are important for maintaining overall physical wellness. It is also important to prioritize good nutrition by consuming a variety of nutrient-rich foods, including fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins. In addition, it is important to stay hydrated by drinking plenty of water and avoiding sugary beverages.

It is also important to receive appropriate health care, including preventive screenings, immunizations, and regular check-ups with a healthcare provider. This can help identify and address any potential health issues early on, which can improve overall health and well-being.

There are many ways to incorporate physical activity into your daily routine, including walking or biking to work or running errands, taking the stairs instead of the elevator, and participating in organized sports or fitness classes. It is important to find an activity that you enjoy and that fits your lifestyle, and to aim for at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity per week, as recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

Andy was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. His family has learned the major symptoms of this disorder. Which of these is NOT one of those major symptoms?

Answers

Andy was just given a diagnosis of schizophrenia. His family is now aware of the key symptoms of this disorder and realizes that remorse is not one of them.

Typical symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations, strange physical behavior, disorganized thinking, and delusions, which are mistaken beliefs. People with schizophrenia frequently experience paranoid ideas or hear voices. It is unclear what specifically causes schizophrenia. According to research, a person's likelihood of developing the illness can be increased by a mix of physical, genetic, psychological, and environmental variables. A stressful or emotionally charged life experience may start a psychotic episode in some persons who are predisposed to schizophrenia. For a number of reasons, schizophrenia can be difficult to diagnose. The first is that those who suffer from the disease frequently aren't aware that they are ill and are therefore less inclined to seek medical attention.

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choose all the structures that are involved with emotional feelings and memories. multiple select question. prefrontal cortex amygdala midbrain medulla oblongata pons

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The structures that are involved with emotional feelings and memories are:

prefrontal cortex amygdala

What is the function of prefrontal cortex and amygdala ?

The prefrontal cortex  can be described as the cerebral cortex covering the front part of the frontal lobe it can be considered as the brain region which has  been implicated in planning complex cognitive behavior, personality expression, as swell as moderating social behaviour.

The amygdala, region of the brain  can be seen as one that is  associated with emotional processes it can be considered owing to the structure's almondlike shape as one that is located in the medial temporal lobe, just anterior to (in front of) the hippocampus.

In conclusion, both are structures that are involved with emotional feelings and memories .

Therefore, option A, B are correct.

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Women can experience benefits of strength training, however, they cannot achieve the level of hypertrophy that men can. What is the reason for this is?
Endocrinological differences do not allow women to achieve the same amount of muscle hypertrophy (size) as men. (Testosterone)

Answers

Women are not able to reach the same level of muscular hypertrophy (size) as men due to endocronological variations (Testosterone).

Male testes produce 30 times as much testosterone as they did before puberty, which is why men eventually have greater testosterone levels than women do. And at any age, men have 15 times the amount of testosterone in the blood than women have. Men often grow more muscle hypertrophy, or bigger muscles, from strength training than women do due to the action of testosterone. Muscle recruitment and muscle hypertrophy lead to strength improvements, which women are just as capable of achieving as men are. Men have noticeably more testosterone on average than women, despite the fact that testosterone is present and operates equally in both men and women.

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Blank —- includes the negative thoughts,
attitudes, beliefs, and stereotypes about a
group of people based upon specific
attributes or characteristics they have.

Answers

Answer: STIGMA

STIGMA includes the negative thoughts, attitudes, beliefs, and stereotypes about agroup of people based upon specificattributes or characteristics they have.

When you accept someone—faults and all—regardless of whether or not you like the individual or approve of his or her lifestyle, Rogers suggests that you are exhibiting ________.a. inventories are standardized
b. personality inventory
c. openness
d. unconditional positive regard

Answers

d. unconditional positive regard

When you accept someone—faults and all—regardless of whether or not you like the individual or approve of his or her lifestyle, Rogers suggests that you are exhibiting unconditional positive regard.

Humanist psychologist Carl Rogers coined the phrase "unconditional positive regard" to characterise a strategy he employed in his non-directive, client-centered treatment. 1

Unconditional positive regard, in Rogers' view, entails extending a person's full support and approval regardless of what they say or do. No matter what the client says or does, the therapist accepts them and is there to assist them. That implies that the therapist encourages the patient whether they are displaying "good" or "poor" behaviours and feelings.

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A nurse is caring for a client following a vaginal delivery of a term fetal demise. Which of the following statement should the nurse make?
A. "You can bathe and dress your baby if you’d like to."
B. "If you don’t hold the baby, it will make letting go much harder."
C. "You should name the baby so she can have an identity."
D. "I’m sure you will be able to have another baby when you’re ready."

Answers

The nurse should make "You can bathe and dress your baby if you'd like" statement.

Pregnancy is the period during which one or more offspring (gestates) develop inside a woman's uterus (womb). A multiple pregnancy produces more than one child, such as twins. Pregnancy is usually caused by sexual contact, but it can also be caused by assisted reproductive technology procedures. A pregnancy can result in a live birth, miscarriage, induced abortion, or stillbirth. Childbirth usually occurs 40 weeks after the start of the last menstrual period (LMP), a period known as the gestational age.

The United States Center for Health Statistics defines fetal death as the delivery of a fetus with no sign of life, as indicated by no breathing, heartbeats, umbilical cord pulsation, or definite movements of voluntary muscles, regardless of pregnancy duration.

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Lim and Zebrack (2004) reported that for family caregivers of dementia, having social support is significantly associated with improved : Help please!!!

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According to Lim and Zebrack (2004) reported that for family caregivers of dementia, having social support is significantly associated with improved:

affecting the standard of living for people providing care for loved ones who have a chronic physical condition. Here, we examine the theories behind and tools available for gauging the quality of life of caregivers. Understanding stress-related variables and compiling elements affecting quality of life in accordance with the family stress theory were of special interest to us. According to the findings, quality of life was measured using a variety of positive and negative adjectives. Results show that patient and caregiver characteristics, stresses, stress appraisal, stress coping mechanisms, and social support are all potential determinants impacting carers' quality of life. The application of theory to interventions, measurement development, operationalization of measurement concepts, and the necessity of extensive longitudinal research are all topics covered in our recommendations.

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In a study Gardner and Steinberg (2005) people were tested on a computer driving task in which they faced a decision about whether to stop or go through yellow lights and risk being hit by another car. Adolescents, college students and adults were tested. Each group tested with and without peers present in the room. when peers were present

Answers

Adults, college students, and adults underwent testing with and without their in-person colleagues. Adolescents took fewer risks when their peers were around than when they were alone themselves.

The logical basis for thinking about social problems is provided by the cognitive changes that occur during adolescence. They assist teenagers in creating a personal set of values. Teenagers' beliefs begin to revolve around their personal values. Middle adolescence, which lasts from ages fifteen to seventeen, and late adolescence, which lasts from ages eighteen to twenty-one, are the normal durations of early, middle, and late adolescence, can be roughly divided into three stages. Teenagers' emotional connections with their parents shift as a result of the physical changes associated with puberty. Adolescence brings about changes that affect how young people see and feel about themselves.

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heritability enrichment of specifically expressed genes identifies disease-relevant tissues and cell types

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Heritability is the extent to which a person's genetic variants may sufficiently account for the variances in their characteristics.

A complicated disease or trait's relevant tissues and cell types can be identified systematically using genetics. For the purpose of creating ex vivo models, tracking non-coding allelic function, and selecting therapeutic targets, it is essential to identify these tissues and cell types. A tool for examining the genetic architecture of complex phenotypes is genomic partitioning. In order to better understand how causal variations are distributed throughout the genome, it includes estimating heritability contributions from subsets of predictors. the percentage of variance in a population trait that is due to genetic inheritance. Estimates of heritability are frequently given in percentages and range from 0 to 1. The degree to which genetic variations among persons may adequately explain the variations in their attributes is known as heritability.

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the occupational safety and health administration (osha) is an example of a government agency that

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Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), public health agency of the U.S. Department of Labor. Formed in 1970 through the Occupational Safety and Health Act, OSHA is charged with ensuring that employers furnish their employees with a working environment free from recognized health and safety hazards.

The United States Department of Labor's Occupational Safety and Health Administration ('OSHA /o/) is a sizable regulatory body with historical federal visitorial authority to inspect and study workplaces. The Occupational Safety and Health Act, or OSH Act, was passed by Congress and signed into law by President Richard M. Nixon on December 29, 1970. In order to "assure safe and healthy working conditions for working men and women by formulating and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, information, and support," OSHA's mission statement states. The organization is also tasked with upholding a number of whistleblower laws and rules. It has been demonstrated that OSHA's workplace safety inspections lower injury rates and injury costs without having a negative impact on employment, sales, credit ratings, or business survival.

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When the pCO2 of the blood increases, the production of H+ ___ but only ___ is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier to elicit a response by central chemoreceptors.

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When the pCO₂ of the blood increases, the production of H⁺ increases but only carbon dioxide is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier to elicit a response by central chemoreceptors.

What is the blood-brain barrier?

The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is the specialized system of the brain microvascular endothelial cells. It is a highly semipermeable border of the endothelium cells. This barrier helps in shielding the brain from the entry of toxic substances in the blood, which supplies the brain tissues with nutrients, and also filters harmful compounds from the brain back to the bloodstream and are then excreted.

When the pCO₂ of the blood increases that is the increase in the acidity of the blood, the production of H⁺ increases in the blood but only the carbon dioxide molecules are capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier to elicit a response by the central chemoreceptors. This helps in maintaining the pH of the blood.

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The intake of fatty foods contributes to a rise in cholesterol levels. This is an example of a(n) ______.
Group of answer choices
control group
neutral association
positive association
negative association

Answers

positive, because it it raises it

A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheterA. Initiate fluid resuscitation. B. Medicate for pain. C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. D. Maintain the airway.

Answers

Answer:c

Explanation:

When one faces a situation with both attractive and unattractive characteristics, one is facing a(n) _____ conflict.

Answers

When one faces a situation with both attractive and unattractive characteristics, one is facing an approach-avoidance conflict.

When a goal or event has both favorable and unfavorable consequences or traits that make it both desirable and undesirable at the same time, approach-avoidance conflicts arise. According to the approach-avoidance theory, people gravitate toward pleasant and other favorable environments. According to Havlena and Holbrook32, people will go toward alternatives that produce pleasant emotional states while deciding between similar alternatives.

One of the three potential conflicts that could exist alongside a decision-making circumstance is the approach-avoidance conflict. Making decisions regarding events that have both good and negative consequences is a part of the approach-avoidance conflict.

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Identify the type of biobank that is usually found in hospitals and clinics and generally stores leftover samples collected during routine medical care (for example, tissue from a biopsy or blood draw):
Residual Sample Biobank

Answers

Residual Sample Biobank is Usually found in hospitals and clinics and usually stores leftover samples collected during routine medical care.

A Residual Sample Biobank is a type of biobank that stores residual samples such as blood, tissue, and other biological materials left over from clinical tests. These samples are collected and stored for later use in research and development. The samples are stored in a secure facility, often in a controlled environment, and are typically anonymized to protect patient privacy. Researchers can request access to the biobank in order to use the samples for their studies. The Residual Sample Biobank is an important resource for medical research, providing researchers with a wide range of biological materials.

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What are the coefficients in the following expression x^2+2x-5xy-y+3y^4 Which of the following statements are true regarding dividends? (You may select more than one answer. Single click the box with the question mark to produce a check mark for a correct answer and double click the box with the question mark to empty the box for a wrong answer) O A stock dividend commonly indicates management's confidence that the company doing well O A stock dividend increases the number of outstanding shares O A stock dividend increases the number of authorized shares O Stock dividends are a mechanism to keep the market price of stock affordable On January 15, the end of the first pay period of the year, North Company's employees earned $48,000 of sales salaries. Withholdings from the employees' salaries include FICA Social Security taxes at the rate of 6.2%, FICA Medicare taxes at the rate of 1.45%, $3,100 of federal income taxes. 1,037 of medical insurance deductions, and $130 of union dues. No employee earned more than $7,000 in this first period Prepare the journal entry to record North Company's January 15 salaries expense and related liabilities View transaction list Journal entry worksheet 1 Record the employee payroll for period. Note: Enter debits before credits General Journal Debit Credit Date Jan 15 Record entry Clear entry View general journal Write the simplest polynomial function with the given root: -5, square root of 2, and -3i. The following figure was drawn using a straightedge and a compass. Where was the point of the compass located in order to make the arcs?1. points X and Y2. point D3. point C4. points A and B a company buys electronic components, assembles them into pcs, and then ships them to customers. in this case the electronic components are for the company. a.inputs b.processes c.products d.outputs e.services 3. After coming home late from a party, Mae's father questioned her. She wanted to tell him that she wasstudying at a friend's place and lost track of time, but she told him the truth instead: she was at a party.What character trait does Mae demonstrate? -8x < 32 Do what on both sides and change or keep the inequality sign? See picture please (T/F) legislation regarding personnel practices has been primarily in the ares of employee rights, job safety, and elimination of discrimination. An online streaming service charges a monthly fee as well as a one-time sign-up fee. The cost for this online streaming service is modeled by the following function where m represents the number of months the service is subscribed to and C(m) represents the total cost given that amount of time: C(m) = 13m + 9In the above function, what is the slope? What is the y-intercept? How do we interpret the slope of this function? How do we interpret the y-intercept of this function? which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead squat assessment 10, 12, 11, 13, 14, 12, 13, 14, 13, and 12 find the mean. how are components separated using distillation? the substance with the [ select ] vapor pressure is vaporized first, and then it is a car is purchased for . after each year, the resale value decreases by . what will the resale value be after years? use the calculator provided and round your answer to the nearest dollar. Malaria is spread by __________. a. mosquitoes b. infected food c. contaminated water d. people please select the best answer from the choices provided. a b c d FILL IN THE BLANK Back in the fossil field, you have discovered many fossils that are similar to Neko borgus. You notice, however, that the more recent Neko fossils tend to be larger than those that are more ancient. The most plausible conclusion is that __________. Which of the following is not a non-tariff barrier?a. voluntary export restraintb. health and product standardsc. enviromental protection lawd. ad-valorem duties What is the answer for identifying the slope and Y intercept for this graph ? In Drosophila, the allele red eyes (bw+) is dominant to the allele for brown eyes (bw). At another gene locus on the same chromosome, the allele for thin wing veins (hv+) is dominant to the allele for heavy wing veins (hv). Flies homozygous for bw and hv+ are crossed to flies homozygous for bw+ and hv to obtain doubly heterozygous F1 progeny. Given that these 2 gene loci are very closely linked, the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation should be closest to a. 9 brown, thin: 3 brown, heavy: 3 red, thin: 1 red, heavy b. 3 red, thin: 1 brown heavy c. 1 brown, thin: 1 brown, heavy: 1 red, thin: 1 red, heavy d. 1 brown, thin: 2 red, thin: 1 red, heavy 253.The zero coupon bonds of Markco, Inc. have a market price of $394.47, a face value of$1,000, and a yield to maturity of 6.87%. How many years is it until this bond matures?A.7 years B.10 years C.14 years D.18 years E.21 years a smart phone charger delivers charge to the phone, in the form of electrons, at a rate of -0.75 c/s.