One long wire carries a current of 30 A along the entire x axis. A second long wire carries a current of 40 A perpendicular to the xy plane and passes through the point (0, 4, 0) m. What is the magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at the point y

Answer:

TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION

Explanation:

Retraction is defined as the change in the direction of light rays as it moves from less dense medium to a denser medium.

For us to have a critical angle, the ray must be passing from the denser medium to the less dense medium. As the angle of refraction in the less dense medium is increasing, the angle of incidence in the less dense medium also increases. A point will reach when the refracted ray will be parallel to the interface i.e angle of refraction is 90°, the angle of incidence at this point is known as the critical angle. If the angle of refraction keeps increasing further, it will get to a point when the refracted ray becomes reflected into the denser medium. At this stage we say that the ray is internally reflected and this is the point when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.

Hence it can be concluded that the process that occurs when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle is called TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION

Answer:

7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Explanation:

Using,

v = λf.................. Equation 1

Where v = velocity of electromagnetic wave, λ = wave length, f = frequency.

make λ the subject of the equation

λ = v/f............... Equation 2

Note: All electromagnetic  wave have the same speed which is 3×10⁸ m/s.

Given: f = 3.818×10¹⁴ Hz

Constant: v = 3×10⁸ m/s

Substitute these values into equation 2

λ  =  3×10⁸/3.818×10¹⁴

λ  = 7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Hence the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation is  7.86×10⁻⁷ m

The wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation is equal to [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

Given the following data:

Scientific data:

Velocity of an electromagnetic radiation = [tex]3 \times 10^8\;m/s[/tex]

To determine the wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation:

Mathematically, the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is calculated by using the formula;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{Speed }{frequency}[/tex]

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{3.818\times 10^{14}}[/tex]

Wavelength = [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

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Answer:

(a) 10 s

(b) 30 m/s

(c) 150 m

Explanation:

The motorist's position at time t is:

x = 15t

The officer's position at time t is:

x = ½ (3) t² = 1.5 t²

(a) When they have the same position, the time is:

15t = 1.5 t²

t = 0 or 10 s

(b) The officer's speed is:

v = 3t

v = 30 m/s

(c) The position is:

x = 15t = 150 m

Answer:

M = F/3μ g - M₁/3

Explanation:

To solve this exercise we must use the equilibrium conditions translations

         ∑ F = 0

In the attachment we can see a free body diagram of each block

Block M (upper)

X axis

      fr₁ + F₂ -F = 0

      F = fr₁ + F₂              (1)

axis

     N₁-W = 0

     N₁ = Mg

the friction force has the formula

     fr₁ = μ N₁

     F = μ Mg + F₂

bottom block

X axis

     F₂ - fr₁ - fr₂ = 0

     F₂ = fr₁ + fr₂

Y axis

     N - W₁ -W = 0

     N = g (M + M₁)

we substitute

       F₂ = μ Mg + μ (M + M1) g

       F₂ = μ g (2M + M₁)

we substitute in 1

      F = μ M g + μ g (2M + M₁)

      F = μ g (3M + M₁)

we look for mass M    

      M = (F -  μ g M₁)/ 3μ g

      M = F/3μ g - M₁/3

the exercise does not have numerical data

Answer:

The question is not clear enough. So i have attached a copy of the correct question.

A) B = V/c

B) c = Lv

Explanation:

A) we know that formula for magnetic flux is;

Φ = BA

Where B is magnetic field and A is area

Now,

Let's differentiate with B being a constant;

dΦ/dt = B•dA/dt

From faradays law, the EMF induced is given as;

E = -dΦ/dt

However, we want to express it in terms of V and E.M.F is also known as potential difference or Voltage.

Thus, V = -dΦ/dt

Thus, we can now say that;

-V = B•dA/dt

Now from the question, we are told that dA/dt = - c

Thus;

-V = B•-c

So, V = Bc

Thus, B = V/c

B) according to Faraday's Law or Lorentz Force Law, an electromotive force, emf, will be induced between the two ends of the sidelength:

Thus;

E =LvB or can be written as; V = LvB

Where;

V is EMF

L is length of bar

v is velocity

From the first solution, we saw that;

V = Bc

Thus, equating both of the equations, we have;

Bc = LvB

B will cancel out to give;

c = Lv

Explanation:

Answer:

0.99Hz

Explanation:

Using F= -mx ( spring force)

At equilibrium the gravitational force will be balanced by the spring force so mg= kx

K= mg/ 0.25 N/m

But

Frequency f= 1/2pi √g/0.25

Frequency is 0.99Hz

The block is pulled down slightly and released so, Frequency of oscillation is 3.15 Hz

What information do we have?

Length starched = 2.5 cm

F = Kx

We know that

F = mg

So,

mg = Kx

K/m = g/x

[tex]f=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{g}{x} }\\f=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{9.8}{0.025} }[/tex]

Frequency of oscillation = 3.15 Hz

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Answer:

Atoms are the particles that all matter is made from. When two or more kinds of atoms combine, they form pure elements

The answer is option A

Answer:

its molecues

Explanation:

Answer:

433

Explanation:

B. A chemical change

Explanation:

I'm guessing ?

Answer:

[tex]I=2.71\times 10^{-5}\ A[/tex]

Explanation:

A 6.0-cm-diameter parallel-plate capacitor has a 0.46 mm gap.  

What is the displacement current in the capacitor if the potential difference across the capacitor is increasing at 500,000V/s?

Let given is,

The diameter of a parallel plate capacitor is 6 cm or 0.06 m

Separation between plates, d = 0.046 mm

The potential difference across the capacitor is increasing at 500,000 V/s

We need to find the displacement current in the capacitor. Capacitance for parallel plate capacitor is given by :

[tex]C=\dfrac{A\epsilon_o}{d}\\\\C=\dfrac{\pi r^2\epsilon_o}{d}[/tex], r is radius

Let I is the displacement current. It is given by :

[tex]I=C\dfrac{dV}{dt}[/tex]

Here, [tex]\dfrac{dV}{dt}[/tex] is rate of increasing potential difference

So

[tex]I=\dfrac{\pi r^2\epsilon_o}{d}\times \dfrac{dV}{dt}\\\\I=\dfrac{\pi (0.03)^2\times 8.85\times 10^{-12}}{0.46\times 10^{-3}}\times 500000\\\\I=2.71\times 10^{-5}\ A[/tex]

So, the value of displacement current is [tex]2.71\times 10^{-5}\ A[/tex].

Answer:

Explanation:

To convert from °C to °F , the formula is

( F-32 ) / 9 = C / 5

F is reading fahrenheit scale and C is in centigrade scale .

F = 205 , C = ?

(205 - 32) / 9 = C / 5

C = 96°C approx .

Let us calculate the heat required .

Total heat required = heat required to heat up the ice at - 20 °C  to 0°C  + heat required to melt the ice + heat required to heat up the water at  0°C to

96°C.

=  5 x 2.04 x (20-0) +  5 x 336 + 5 x ( 96-0 ) x 4.2  kJ .

= 204 + 1680 + 2016

= 3900 kJ .

Answer:

8.65x10^3m

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

(A). 1620 watt.

(B).0.8885.

Explanation:

So, we are given the following data or parameters or information which is going to assist or help us in solving this particular Question or problem. So, we have;

Current = 9.35A, direct current at a potential difference of 195 V, frequency of the inverter = 60 Hz alternating current, alternating current with Vmax = 166V and Imax = 19.5A.

(A). The rms power is produced by the inverter = (19.5 /2 ) × 166 = 1620 watt(approximately).

(B). the rms values to find the power efficiency Pout/Pin of the inverter.

P(in) = 195 × 9.35 = 1823.3 watt.

Thus, the rms values to find the power efficiency Pout/Pin of the inverter = 1620/1823.3 = 0.88852324146441793 = 0.8885.

i

CHECK COMPLETE QUESTION BELOW

inductor is connected to the terminals of a battery that has an emf of 12.0 VV and negligible internal resistance. The current is 4.96 mAmA at 0.800 msms after the connection is completed. After a long time the current is 6.60 mAmA.

Part A)What is the resistance RR of the inductor

PART B) what is inductance L of the conductor

Answer:

A)R=1818.18 ohms

B)L=1.0446H

Explanation:

We were given inductor L with resistance R , there is a connection between the battery and the inductor with Emf of 12V, we can see that the circuit is equivalent to a simple RL circuit.

There is current of 4.96mA at 0.8ms, at the end of the connection the current increase to 6.60mA,

.

a)A)What is the resistance RR of the inductor?

The current flowing into RL circuit can be calculated using below expresion

i=ε/R[1-e⁻(R/L)t]

at t=∞ there is maximum current

i(max)= ε/R

Where ε emf of the battery

R is the resistance

R=ε/i(max)

= 12V/(6.60*10⁻³A)

R=1818.18 ohms

Therefore, the resistance R=1818.18 ohms

b)what is inductance L of the conductor?

i(t=0.80ms and 4.96mA

RT/L = ⁻ln[1- 1/t(max)]

Making L subject of formula we have

L=-RT/ln[1-i/i(max)]

If we substitute the values into the above expresion we have

L= -(1818.18 )*(8.0*10⁻⁴)/ln[1-4.96/6.60)]

L=1.0446H

Therefore, the inductor L=1.0446H

Answer:

The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another. On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system. Therefore, matter and energy in a system naturally change over time will decrease in entropy.

Explanation:

Answer:

Decrease in entropy

Explanation:

Various systems which exist in nature possess energy and matter that move through these system continuously. The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another.

In a closed system for example, only energy flows in and out of the system while matter does not enter or leave the system.

On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system.

Answer:

K.E = 5.53 eV = 8.85 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Explanation:

First we calculate the energy of photon:

E = hc/λ

where,

E = Energy of Photon = ?

h = Plank's Constant = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s

c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

λ = wavelength = 120 nm = 1.2 x 10⁻⁷ m

Therefore,

E = (6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s)(3 x 10⁸ m/s)/(1.2 x 10⁻⁷ m)

E = (16.565 x 10⁻¹⁹ J)(1 eV/1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ J)

E = 10.35 eV

Now, from Einstein's Photoelectric equation we know that:

Energy of Photon = Work Function + K.E of Electron

10.35 eV = 4.82 eV + K.E

K.E = 10.35 eV - 4.82 eV

K.E = 5.53 eV = 8.85 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be "8.85 × 10⁻¹⁹ J".

According to the question,

Speed of light, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s

Wavelength, λ = 120 nm or,

                        = 1.2 × 10⁻⁷ m

Plank's Constant, h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J.s

Now,

The energy of photon will be:

→ E = [tex]\frac{hc}{\lambda}[/tex]

By substituting the values,

     = [tex]\frac{6.626\times 10^{-34}\times 3\times 20^8}{1.2\times 10^{-7}}[/tex]

     = [tex]\frac{16.565\times 10^{-19}}{\frac{1 \ eV}{1.6\times 10^{-19}} }[/tex]

     = 10.35 eV

By using Einstein's Photoelectric equation,  

Energy of Photon = Work function + K.E

                   10.35 = 4.82 + K.E

                       K.E = 10.35 - 4.82

                             = 5.53 eV or,

                             = 8.85 × 10⁻¹⁹ J

Thus the response above is correct.

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Answer:

0.35 m³/s

Explanation:

When the pipe's depth is 0.4 m, the area of the circular segment is:

A = ½ R² (θ − sin θ)

The depth of the water is:

h = R (1 − cos(θ/2))

Solving for θ:

0.4 = 0.5 (1 − cos(θ/2))

0.8 = 1 − cos(θ/2)

cos(θ/2) = 0.2

θ/2 = acos(0.2)

θ = 2 acos(0.2)

θ ≈ 2.74 rad

The area is therefore:

A = ½ (0.5 m)² (2.74 − sin 2.74)

A = 0.338 m²

The cross-sectional area when the pipe is full is:

A = π (0.5 m)²

A = 0.785 m²

The flow velocity is constant:

v = v

Q / A = Q / A

(0.15 m³/s) / (0.338 m²) = Q / (0.785 m²)

Q = 0.35 m³/s

Answer:

she need to use 20 cm thick

Explanation:

given data

wants the attic insulated = R-30

purchased = 10 cm thick

solution

as per given we can say that

10 cm is for the R 15

but she want for R 30

so  

R 30 thickness = [tex]\frac{30}{15} \times 10[/tex]  

R 30 thickness = 20 cm

so she need to use 20 cm thick

Answer:

129900

Explanation:

Given that

Mass of the particle, m = 1 g = 1*10^-3 kg

Speed of the particle, u = ½c

Speed of light, c = 3*10^8

To solve this, we will use the formula

p = ymu, where

y = √[1 - (u²/c²)]

Let's solve for y, first. We have

y = √[1 - (1.5*10^8²/3*10^8²)]

y = √(1 - ½²)

y = √(1 - ¼)

y = √0.75

y = 0.8660, using our newly gotten y, we use it to solve the final equation

p = ymu

p = 0.866 * 1*10^-3 * 1.5*10^8

p = 129900 kgm/s

thus, we have found that the momentum of the particle is 129900 kgm/s

Answer:

a)  A = 1.99 μm , b) λ = 0.4134 m , c)  v = 57.2 m / s , d)   s = - 1,946 nm ,

e)      v_max = 1,739 mm / s

Explanation:

A sound wave has the general expression

           s = s₀ sin (kx - wt)

where s is the displacement, s₀ the amplitude of the wave, k the wave vector and w the angular velocity, in this exercise the expression given is

           s = 1.99 sin (15.2 x - 869 t)

a) the amplitude of the wave is

        A = s₀

        A = 1.99 μm

b) wave spectrum is

      k = 2π /λ

in the equation k = 15.2 m⁻¹

      λ = 2π / k

      λ = 2π / 15.2

     λ = 0.4134 m

c) the speed of the wave is given by the relation

       v = λ f

angular velocity and frequency are related

       w = 2π f

        f = w / 2π

        f = 869 / 2π

        f = 138.3 Hz

        v = 0.4134 138.3

         v = 57.2 m / s

d) To find the instantaneous velocity, we substitute the given distance and time into the equation

       s = 1.99 sin (15.2 0.0509 - 869 2.94 10⁻³)

       s = 1.99 sin (0.77368 - 2.55486)

remember that trigonometry functions must be in radians

       s = 1.99 (-0.98895)

       s = - 1,946 nm

The negative sign indicates that it shifts to the left

e) the speed of the oscillating part is

           v = ds / dt)

           v = - s₀(-w) cos (kx -wt)

the maximum speed occurs when the cosines is 1

           v_maximo = s₀w

           v_maximum = 1.99 869

           v_maximo = 1739.31 μm / s

let's reduce to mm / s

          v_maxio = 1739.31 miuy / s (1 mm / 103 mu)

          v_max = 1,739 mm / s

a) A is = 1.99 μm , b) λ is = 0.4134 m , c) v is = 57.2 m / s , d) s is = - 1,946 nm, e) v_max is = 1,739 mm / s

When A sound wave has the general expression is:

Then, s = s₀ sin (kx - wt)

Now, where s is the displacement, Then, s₀ is the amplitude of the wave, k the wave vector, and w the angular velocity, Now, in this exercise the expression given is

s is = 1.99 sin (15.2 x - 869 t)

a) When the amplitude of the wave is

A is = s₀

Thus, A = 1.99 μm

b) When the wave spectrum is

k is = 2π /λ

Now, in the equation k = 15.2 m⁻¹

Then, λ = 2π / k

After that, λ = 2π / 15.2

Thus, λ = 0.4134 m

c) When the speed of the wave is given by the relation is:

Then, v = λ f

Now, the angular velocity and frequency are related is:

w is = 2π f

Then, f = w / 2π

After that, f = 869 / 2π

Now, f = 138.3 Hz

Then, v = 0.4134 138.3

Thus, v = 57.2 m / s

d) Now, To find the instantaneous velocity, When we substitute the given distance and time into the equation

Then, s = 1.99 sin (15.2 0.0509 - 869 2.94 10⁻³)

After that, s = 1.99 sin (0.77368 - 2.55486)

Then remember that trigonometry functions must be in radians

After that, s = 1.99 (-0.98895)

Thus, s = - 1,946 nm

When The negative sign indicates that it shifts to the left

e) When the speed of the oscillating part is

Then, v = ds / dt)

Now, v = - s₀(-w) cos (kx -wt)

When the maximum speed occurs when the cosines is 1

Then, v_maximo = s₀w

After that, v_maximum = 1.99 869

v_maximo = 1739.31 μm / s

Now, let's reduce to mm / s

Then, v_maxio = 1739.31 miuy / s (1 mm / 103 mu)

Therefore, v_max = 1,739 mm / s

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Answer:

T = 80√3 N ≈ 139 N

W = 160 N

Explanation:

Sum of forces on B in the x direction:

∑F = ma

80 N sin 60° − T sin 30° = 0

T = 80 N sin 60° / sin 30°

T = 80√3 N

T ≈ 139 N

Sum of forces on B in the y direction:

∑F = ma

80 N cos 60° + T cos 30° − W = 0

W = 80 N cos 60° + T cos 30°

W = 40 N + 120 N

W = 160 N

Answer:

Around the center of the mirror

Answer: Astro 1 will have a 10x larger field of view than the Hubble.

Explanation: The hubble will also be extremely light weight that way it can go further into space and the mission will be able to last a longer amount of time.

Answer:

There is no induced current on the coil.

Explanation:

Current is induced in a coil or a circuit, when there is a break of flux linkage. A break in flux linkage is caused by a changing magnetic field, and must be achieved by a relative motion between the coil and the magnet. Holding the magnet above the center of the coil will cause no changing magnetic filed since there is no relative motion between the coil and the magnet.

Answer:

Upper plate Q/3

Lower plate 2Q/3

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

Explanation:

Given data:

power rating of the heater P= 1010 W

voltage of the heater V= 115 volts

current taken by the heater I= ?

We can apply the power formula to solve for the current in the heater

i.e P= IV

Making I the current subject of formula we have

I= P/V

Substituting our given data into the expression for I we have

I=1010/115= 8.78 A

Answer:

50 cm long

When 35cm long wrench is compared to 50cm long wrench, we find that the 50cm long wrench produces more turning effect of force because it has longer distance between fulcrum and line of action of force. At conclusion, the more the turning effect of force the more it is easy to unscrew bolts.

Explanation:

Change in Velocity = final velocity - initial velocity

Change in velocity = 30km/h - (- 45km/h )

= 75 km/h due west

Answer:

se the principle of induction.

place the two metallic spheres together,  now we bring the positively charged bar closer to the first sphere.

The charge that was induced in the sphere is distributed as infirm as possible,

At this time I separate the spheres and move the bar away, by separating the spheres the excess positive

Explanation:

For this exercise we will use that the electric charge is not created, it is not destroyed and charges of the same sign repel.

Let's use the principle of induction. We place the two metallic spheres together, one in front of the other, now we bring the positively charged bar closer to the first sphere.

Here the positive charge of the bar repels the positive charge of the sphere, but as this is mocil it moves as far away as possible, until the negative charge that remains neutralizes the positive charge of the bar.

The charge that was induced in the sphere is distributed as infirm as possible, most of it in the furthest sphere, since the Coulomb force decreases.

At this time I separate the spheres and move the bar away, by separating the spheres the excess positive charge in the last sphere cannot be neutralized, therefore this sphere remains with a positive charge.

Explanation:

Using Equations of Motion :

[tex]s = ut + \frac{1}{2} g {t}^{2} [/tex]

Height = 0 * 4 + 4.9 * 16

Height = 78.4 m